Đề thi chọn HSG Anh 9 năm 2012-2013

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Đề thi chọn HSG Anh 9 năm 2012-2013

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Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 dành cho học sinh giỏi lớp 9 tư liệu này sẽ giúp các em phát huy tư duy, năng khiếu môn tiếng Anh trước kì thi học sinh giỏi sắp tới. Mời các cùng bạn tham khảo.

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  1. SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 9 THCS HẢI DƯƠNG NĂM HỌC 2012-2013 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Ngày thi: 27 / 3 / 2013 (Đề thi gồm có 05 trang) Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi. Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết chữ cái A hoặc B, C, D. Phần tự luận viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài. (Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì.) A. LISTENING Hướng dẫn làm bài nghe: - Bài nghe gồm có 1 phần, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc có tín hiệu nhạc - Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài nghe. Listen to the passage and fill in the blank with ONE missing word (10 points): Our oceans are becoming extremely (1)..................... Most of this pollution comes from the land which (2) ..................... it comes from people. Firstly, there is raw sewage which is pumped (3).....................into the sea. Many countries, both developed and developing, are guilty of doing this. Secondly, ships drop about six million tons of (4)..................... into the sea. Thirdly, there are oil spills from ships. A ship has an (5)..................... and oil leaks from the vessel. This not only pollutes the water, but it also (6)..................... marine life. Next, there are waste materials (7) ..................... factories. Without proper regulations, factory owners let the waste run directly into the rivers, which then (8) ..................... to the sea. And (9) ....................., oil is washed from the land. This can be the result of (10) ..................... or a deliberate dumping of waste. B. PHONETICS Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others (5 points): 11. A. benefit B. recycle C. logical D. grocery 12. A. disappear B. existence C. imagine D. extensive 13. A. empty B. relate C. suggest D. effect 14. A. scenery B. scholarship C. dictionary D. compulsory 15. A. sample B. behave C. replace D. parade C. GRAMMAR - VOCABULARY - LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15 points): 16. The man asked me ..................... A. where had I gone the previous day. B. where I had gone the previous day. C. where I had gone yesterday. D. where did I go yesterday. 17. Jenny refused to explain the reason ..................... her absence from class last week. A. why B. about C. for D. of 18. The party was great! Everyone enjoyed ..................... very much. A. themselves B. ourselves C. oneself D. itself 19. Nguyen Du is considered one of the best ..................... that Vietnam has ever produced. A. poets B. poems C. poetry D. poetic 20. Hardly ..................... at school when it started to rain. A. did we arrive B. we arrived C. we had arrived D. had we arrived 21. Please don't put much salt in the soup. Just ...................... A. few B. a few C. a little D. little 1/5
  2. 22. The police are looking for the man ..................... car was found in the jungle last night. A. whose B. whom C. who D. his 23. It is high time we.....................something to protect rare animals from extinction. A. did B. do C. will do D. are doing 24. Despite working in the same office, Mary earns ..................... her boyfriend. A. twice as many as B. twice more than C. twice as more than D. twice as much as 25. Jack never helps his mum with the housework,.....................? A. does he doesn't he C. will he D. did he 26. When the boy was told that he had failed the exam, he was extremely ..................... A. disappointing B. disappointedly C. disappointed D. disappointment 27. "No, you are not allowed ..................... out tonight, Mike," the father said angrily. A. to go B. going C. to going D. go 28. "The room is too dirty! Do you think it needs...................., honey?" said the wife. A. to clean B. cleaning B. to be cleaning D. cleaned 29. I think your health will not improve ..................... you give up smoking. A. if B. when C. unless D. until 30. Can you close the gate ..................... the hens will not go out? A. so as to B. in order to C. in order for D. so that II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points): 31. Why don't you ask Uncle John this question? He is very .................about the history of English. (KNOW) 32. Henry wondered who had sent him that .....................email. (MYSTERY) 33. Please don't serve Mrs. Thomson with meat. She is a..................... (VEGETABLE) 34. Many rural areas in the North have been..................... (URBAN) 35. They are ..................... awaiting the test results. (ANXIETY) 36. Tom phoned his friend to apologize for his..................... at the get-together. (POLITE) 37. Many families are trying to ..................... by not eating in restaurants. (ECONOMY) 38. "I have just won the first prize in the English speaking contest," the little girl said..................... (PRIDE) 39. Travelling helps to..................... our knowledge. (RICH) 40. It is not difficult to see that there are many ..................... differences between the two regions. (CULTURE) III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5 points): 41. Remember not to say anything that makes high sensitive people upset. A B C D 42. One of the biggest problems faces us today is how to reduce pollution. A B C D 43. There is no point to explain the situation to such a narrow-minded person. A B C D 44. John could not go camping with his classmates last weekend because his illness. A B C D 45. I am absolutely convinced that life is pleasure and easy. A B C D IV. Match one sentence in Column A with one suitable response in Column B. Use each response ONCE only (5 points): A B 46. Excuse me, are you ready to order, Sir? A. Great idea! 47. Would you mind turning down the radio? B. You must be kidding! 48. Could you do me a favor, Madam? C. Thanks for your nice compliment. 49. I think we should stop here and go out for some coffee. D. Certainly, let me get a pen and a piece of paper. 50. Could you take a message, please? E. No, of course not. F. Yes, how can I help you? 2/5
  3. G. Yes, I'd like some red wine and some steak. D. READING I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points): Plants grow (51).................almost every part of the world. We see (52).................plants as flowers, grass, and trees nearly every day. Plants grow high on mountaintops, far in the oceans, and in many deserts and (53).................regions. Without plants, there could be no life on earth. Man could not live without air or food, and so he could not live without plants. The oxygen in the air we breathe comes from plants. The food we eat also comes from plants or from animals that eat plants. We build houses and make many (54)................. products from lumber cut from trees. (55)................. of our clothing is made from the fibers of the cotton plant. Scientists believe there are more than 350,000 species of plants, but no one knows for (56)................. Some of the smallest plants, called diatoms, can be seen only with a (57)................. A drop of water may hold as many as 500 diatoms. The largest living things are the giant sequoia trees of California. Some of them stand more than 290 feet high and measure over 30 feet wide Scientists (58)................. all living things into two main groups – plants and animals. It is usually easy to tell the two (59)................. Almost all kinds of plants stay in one place, but nearly all species of animals move about under their own power. Most plants make their own food from air, sunlight, and water. Animals cannot make their own food. The basic units of all life, called cells, are also different in plants and animals. Most plants have thick walls that (60).................a material called cellulose. Animal cells do not have this material. 51. A. on B. in C. at D. of 52. A. these B. those C. all D. such 53. A. polar B. polarized C. poled D. pole 54. A. harmful B. useful C. unnecessary D. unhealthy 55. A. Many B. Few C. Much D. Lot 56. A. certainty B. guarantee C. sure D. certainly 57. A. telescope B. periscope C. stethoscope D. microscope 58. A. part B. separate C. divide D. sort 59. A. difference B. apart C. distinctly D. separately 60. A. contain B. maintain C. stock D. incorporate II. Read the following passage and choose the words from A to H in the box to fill in each gap from 61 to 65. There are THREE extra words you do not need to use (5 points): A. for C. of E. kinds G. concerned B. afford D. excited F. channels H. broadcast Many parents in the United States are (61) .....................about the effect of advertisements on TV on their children. Children may watch TV and may see candy advertised. The children may ask their parents to buy the candy they have seen on TV. The candy may not be good (62) ..................... the children’s health. Also children see many (63) .....................of toys and games advertised on TV. If their parents cannot (64) ..................... to buy these things, the children will be upset. Many parents wish to have no advertising during the time when children watch TV. Maybe some day all TV (65) .....................will drop advertisements. No one likes them much, but they help to pay for the programs. 3/5
  4. III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question (10 points): It is not easy for adult students of English to improve their accents. Unlike children, who are flexible, adults often find it hard to change the way they speak. This is why even the top or smartest adult students have difficulty with pronunciation. There are several things that an international student can do to improve his or her pronunciation. One method is to sign up for a pronunciation class. Studying pronunciation can help students to understand the rules of English, but in order to practice speaking students often need to be exposed to English outside the classroom as well. This is why many students say that studying in an English-speaking country greatly affects their English. Living with native speakers can help students to pick up new vocabulary as well as improve their accents. International students can also learn important cultural information. This can help to prevent misunderstandings that may occur when people from different cultures live together. However, living with someone from another culture can be difficult. International students are usually excited when they first show up at their new homes, but after a few months they may start to think about their home countries and get homesick. Students who are homesick get depressed quickly. They might cry a lot or want to be alone. This makes it difficult for them to make friends and learn English. 66. According to the passage, it seems that..................... A. all that the students need to improve their pronunciation is to practice more outside the classroom B. attending a pronunciation class can be very helpful to adult learners who have problems with their pronunciation. C. most younger students cannot change their pronunciation. D. adult students of English cannot improve their accents because they are slow to change 67. What does the phrase “to be exposed to English” in the second paragraph mean? A. Imitating native speakers. B. Avoiding speaking English outside the classroom. C. Living in an English–speaking environment. D. Listening to native speakers 68. Which of the flowing is TRUE? A. The passage implies that adult learners should not study English in an English-speaking country to avoid these problems. B. Many students feel depressed because they cannot improve their pronunciation. C. On their arrival, most international students may forget about the problems because they are very excited. D. To avoid misunderstandings about cultures, students should live with native speakers. 69. According to the passage, many international students feel depressed because..................... A. living with someone from another culture can be difficult. B. they are lonely. C. they are homesick. D. they cannot improve their pronunciation. 70. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The problem adult students may face. B. Learning English. C. How to improve pronunciation. D. How to overcome homesickness. E. WRITING 4/5
  5. I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence given before it (5 points): 71. Although the weather was very bad, the captain ordered his men to sail down the coast. → In spite of........................................................................................................................................................................... 72. We would rather walk home than take a bus. → We prefer........................................................................................................................................................................... 73. If you worry, you will find it difficult to get to sleep. → The more........................................................................................................................................................................... 74. Jane cannot get a good job because she does not have any qualifications. → If......................................................................................................................................................................................... 75. The boss made us work 12 hours a day. → We..................................................................................................................................................................................... II. Use the suggested words and phrases below to write a complete letter (10 points): I write / tell / how much / I / enjoy evening / I spend / you / your family / last Saturday evening. I / be / Sydney / since/ January / and it be / first time / dinner / an Australian family. I / find / conversation / most interesting. I also / congratulate you / excellent cooking. I / very grateful / helpful / information/ courses of English. I / hope / I / find / suitable school / next few days, and English / not too hard / me / study. You / give / best regards / husband / lovely daughters? Thank / again/ extremely / pleasant evening. I / look forward / see / you / next week. You are required to begin and end your letter as followed: Dear Mrs. Thomson, ............................................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................................... Yours faithfully, Pham Thanh Thuy III. Write a paragraph of about 120 words about your favorite teacher (10 points) ========== THE END ========== Họ và Tên thí sinh: ............................................................................... Số báo danh: ................. Họ và Tên giám thị 1: ............................................................................Chữ ký :…………………. Họ và Tên giám thị 2: ............................................................................Chữ ký :…………………. 5/5
  6. SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM HẢI DƯƠNG BÀI THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 9 THCS NĂM HỌC 2012-2013 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi: 27 / 3 / 2013 A. LISTENING (10 points): One point for each correct answer. 1. polluted 2. means 3. directly 4. garbage 5. accident 6. kills 7. from 8. leads 9. finally 10. carelessness B. PHONETICS (5 points): One point for each correct answer. 11. B 12. A 13. A 14. D 15. A C. GRAMMAR - VOCABULARY - LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS I. (15 points): One point for each correct answer. 16. B 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. D 21. C 22. A 23. A 24.D 25. A 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. D II. (10 points): One point for each correct answer. 31. knowledgeable 32. mysterious 33. vegetarian 34. urbanized 35. anxiously 36. impoliteness 37. economize 38. proudly 39. enrich 40. cultural III. (5 points): One point for each correct answer. 41. C 42. B 43. B 44. C 45. C IV. (5 points): One point for each correct answer. 46. G 47. E 48. F 49. A 50. D D. READING I. (10 points): One point for each correct answer. 51. B 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. C 56. C 57. D 58. C 59. B 60. A II. (5 points): One point for each correct answer. 61. G 62. A 63. E 64. B 65. F III. (10 points): Two points for each correct answer. 66. B 67. A 68. C 69. C 70. B E. WRITING I. (5 points): One point for each correct answer. 71. In spite of the very bad weather, the captain ordered his men to sail down the coast. OR: In spite of the fact that the weather was very bad, the captain ordered his men to sail down the coast. 72. We prefer walking home to taking a bus. 73. The more you worry, the more difficult you will find it to get to sleep. 6/5
  7. OR: The more worried you are, the more difficult you will find it to get to sleep. 74. If Jane had some / enough qualifications, she would / could get a good job. 75. We were made to work 12 hours a day (by the boss). II. 10 points: Dear Mrs. Thomson, I am writing to tell you how much I enjoy the evening I spent with you and your family last Saturday evening (1 point). I have been in Sydney since January and it was my first time to have dinner with an Australian family (1 point). I found the / our conversation most interesting (1 point). I would also like to congratulate you on your excellent cooking (1 point). I am very grateful (to you) for your helpful information about (some) courses in English (1 point). I hope that I will find a suitable school in the next few days (1 point), and (that) English will not be too hard for me to study (1 point). Would / Could / Can you (please) give my best regards to your husband and your lovely daughters? (1 point). Thank you again for the extremely pleasant evening (1 point). I look / am looking forward to seeing you next week (1 point). Yours faithfully, Pham Thanh Thuy III. 10 points 1. Task fulfillment: 6.0 points + Complete the task with relevant information + Well-organized 2. Language: (4.0 points) + appropriate vocabulary + correct grammar + punctuation / spelling 7/5
  8. PHÒNG GD&ĐT BÌNH GIANG ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG I NĂM HỌC: 2012-2013 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi : TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 9 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Đề thi gồm 04 trang) Học sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi, không làm bài vào đề thi này. Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết phương án chọn A hoặc B, C, D... Phần tự luận : Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của đề bài. (Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì) A. LISTENING Listen to Becky and Sarah talking about their new apartments and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). You will listen to their talks twice. (10 pts) 1. The bookshelf looks really good in Becky’s living room. 2. She wants to buy an expensive mp3 player. 3. She doesn’t have a dinner table. 4. Now she has to sit on the sofa to watch TV. 5. Her living room is small. 6. Sarah doesn’t have many books. 7. She has a new TV. 8. She doesn’t have enough money to buy a mp3 player now. 9. Her dinner table isn’t nice and big. 10. She didn’t buy an expensive sofa. B. PHONETICS Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. (5 points) 11. A. academic B. reputation C. experience D. intermediate 12. A. visit B. suggest C. employ D. direct 13. A. advertise B. separate C. primary D. instruction 14. A. compulsory B. economic C. material D. community 15. A. poem B. writer C. contact D. symbol C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS I. Choose the option A, B, C or D which best completes or responds to each sentence. (15 points) 16. Nisa: “Do you mind if I borrow your umbrella for a while?” Jira: “_________________________” A. No, here you are. B. Never mind. C. You’re welcome. D. Yes, and bring it back. 17. She has lived in a _________ since 2008. A. five-floors building B. five-floor building C. five-floor buildings D. five-floors buildings 18. Maria: “Thanks for lovely evening.” Diana: “_________________________” A. Oh, that’s right. B. Yes, it’s really great. C. No, it’s not good. D. I’m glad you enjoyed it. 19. The liquid __________ to a boiling point. A. heats B. was heated C. heated D. be heated 20. If you _________, I will explain it again to you. A. understand B. don’t understand C. won’t understand D. didn’t understand 1
  9. 21. Nick: “Can you lend me your car this afternoon? I have an urgent appointment.” Susan: “_________________________” A. I don’t think so I won’t need it. B. No I can’t. I won’t need it. C. I think so. I won’t be using it. D. Yes, I can. I will be using it. 22. Mr. Thomas: “Would you mind if I turned the air-conditioner down? Mark: “_________________________” A. No, please do. B. Yes, I don’t mind. C. Yes. That’s right. D. No, I mind. 23. I wish I ___________ you some money for your ticket, but I have nothing left now. A. can lend B. would lend C. could lend D. will lend 24. I was impressed ____________ the beauty of the bay. A. on B. by C. in D. from 25. I _____________ a letter to my friends. A. posted B. issued C. collected D. published 26. She moved to Hanoi, but we still keep in _________. A. phoning B. writing C. meeting D. touch 27. Vietnamese women today prefer modern clothes _________ the ao dai. A. to B. for C. in D. with 28. The girl: “This box is very bulky. Can you give me a hand?” The boy: “_________________________” A. That box isn’t mine. B. Sure, I’ll be glad to help. C. Yes, that’s right. D. Certainly, I’m looking for someone to help you. 29. _________ to Nha Trang? – Yes, twice. A. Did you ever go B. Are you ever C. Do you ever go D. Have you ever been 30. Give me a hand, __________? A. will you B. do you C. don’t you D. won’t you II. Provide the correct form of the words in capital letters to complete the sentences. (10 points) 31. The Minister of Finance is responsible for _________ affairs. (ECONOMY) 32. My teacher _________ me to take this examination. (COURAGE) 33. I live in the _________ part of the country. (NORTH) 34. Put the food in the _________, please. (FREEZE) 35. Her car needs _________ at the garage. (SERVICE) 36. Many ________ of different organizations participated in the conference yesterday. (REPRESENT) 37. The weather was terrible, so we had a very _________ holiday. (PLEASE) 38. We must make a _________ about where to go. (DECIDE) 39. _________, many houses have to be demolished to make ways for the roads. (FORTUNATE) 40. Nowadays people are using energy at an _________ speed. (BELIEVE) III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting. (5 points) 41. Although it rained heavily, but I came to class in time. A B C D 42. My father, along with his friends, are drinking tea in the living room. A B C D 43. The lesson is too difficult for us to understand it. A B C D 44. In many ways, riding a bicycle is similar with driving a car. A B C D 45. Your friends became very angrily over a seemingly little problem. A B C D 2
  10. D. READING I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C, D best fits each space. (10 points) A WELSH FESTIVAL Wales has a population of about three million. English is the main language and only twenty per cent speak both Welsh and English. Every year, (46) _______ August there is a Welsh-speaking festival. It (47) _______ place in a different town each year so everyone has a chance for it to be near them. Local people (48) _______ years making plans for when the festival will be in (49) _______ town. Each festival is (50) _______ by about 160.000 people. They travel not only from nearby towns and villages (51) _______ also from the rest of the British Isles and (52) _______ from abroad. There are concerts, plays and (53) _______ to find the best singers, poets, writers and so on. Shops sell Welsh music, books, pictures and clothes as (54) _______ as food and drink. The festival provides a chance for Welsh-speaking people to be together for a whole week, with (55) _______ Welsh language all around them. 46. A. in B. by C. on D. at 47. A. takes B. finds C. has D. makes 48. A. pass B. put C. spend D. do 49. A. our B. their C. his D. its 50. A. arrived B. come C. visited D. attended 51. A. and B. but C. since D. however 52. A. just B. hardly C. quite D. even 53. A. tests B. examinations C. competitions D. races 54. A. long B. far C. good D. well 55. A. one B. a C. the D. some II. Read the following passage and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. (10 points) In Britain there is a (56)_________ now which people call Mother’s Day. In the old days many girls from working-class families in towns and cities and from farmers’ families in the country worked in rich houses. They had to do all the (57)_________ and their working day was usually very long, they often (58)_________ on Sundays, too. Once a year, it was usually one Sunday in March, they could (59)_________ their mothers. They went home on that day and (60)_________ presents for their mothers and for (61)_________ members of their families. They could stay at home only one day, and then they went back (62)_________their work. People call that day Mothering Day (63)_________Mothering Sunday. Later workers at the (64)_________ and girls who worked in the houses of rich families received one free day a week, and Mothering Day became Mother’s Day. It is (65)_________ last Sunday in March. III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (10 points) FRUITIBIX Do you want to be slim? Do you worry about your family's health? Then you should try Fruitibix, the new healthy fruit and nut biscuit. Fruitibix tastes wonderful, but it contains less sugar than most other biscuits. Each biscuit contains dried fruit and nuts, including apples, coconuts and bananas. Sometimes you feel like eating something between meals. Now, instead of having a chocolate, bite into a Fruitibix. It won't make you fat and it will keep you healthy. At lunchtime, instead of chips and hamburgers, have a Fruitibix. It contains all the essential foods for a balanced meal. And if you are in a hurry, and you don't have time for a proper meal, Fruitibix will give you the energy to keep on going. So whenever your children ask for something sweet, give them Fruitibix instead of cakes or chocolate. They will love the taste and it won't harm their teeth. Discover Fruitibix. It's on our supermarket shelves now! 66. This is ______________. A. an advertisement B. a magazine C. a student's notebook D. a letter 67. The writer wants to ______________. A. explain why people buy this product C. give advice about healthy living 3
  11. B. persuade people to buy the product D. compare Fruitibix with other sorts of food 68. Why, in the writer's opinion, should people eat Fruitibix instead of chocolate? A. Fruitibix tastes better than chocolate. B. Fruitibix contains more fat than chocolate. C. Fruitibix is cheaper and easier to eat than chocolate. D. Fruitibix is healthier and less fattening than chocolate. 69. Why does the writer say that fruitibix is useful when you are in a hurry? A. You don't need to cook it. C. It's as good as a proper meal. B. You can buy Fruitibix everywhere. D. It won't be harmful to your teeth. 70. Which of these people should buy Fruitibix? A. Mrs. Brown is looking for something special to serve for dessert at a dinner party. B. Mr. Taylor is going on a fishing trip and wants to take something to eat with him. He enjoys salty food. C. Mrs. Brook's daughter was ill yesterday. She is getting better but the doctor advised Mrs. Brook to give her liquid food without any sugar or salt in it. D. Mr. Green wants something to take to the office. He is busy today and might not have time for lunch. E. WRITING I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5 points) 71. He won a prize at the competition because he spoke English fluently.  Because of _______________________________________________________________. 72. Nowhere is more expensive than this restaurant.  This restaurant ____________________________________________________________. 73. Mr. Lee said to his students, “Do as many exercises in English as you can.”  Mr. Lee advised ____________________________________________________________. 74. “How much do you think it will cost?” she asked.  She wanted to know ________________________________________________________. 75. I last saw him when I was a student.  I haven't __________________________________________________________________. II. Use the following sets of words and phrases to write a letter from Lilly to Elizabeth. (10 points) Dear Elizabeth, 76. I / be / glad / receive / letter. 77. I / just / wonderful / news. 78. I / pass / final / examination / university. 79. My father / be / please / he / hear this. 80. He / already / promise / pay / holiday abroad / I / pass. 81. So / I / come / England. 82. I / like / study English / school / near / home. 83. I / look for / advanced course / perhaps / three / four hours / day. 84. You / help / find / one? 85. I / look forward / see / soon. Love, Lilly III. It is said that the Internet plays an important role in our life. Do you think so? Write a passage of about 120 -150 words to express your idea about this saying. (10 points) 4

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