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Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Kim Đồng, Phước Sơn

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Việc ôn tập và hệ thống kiến thức với ‘Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Kim Đồng, Phước Sơn’ được chia sẻ dưới đây sẽ giúp bạn nắm vững các phương pháp giải bài tập hiệu quả và rèn luyện kỹ năng giải đề thi nhanh và chính xác để chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kì thi sắp diễn ra. Cùng tham khảo và tải về đề thi này ngay bạn nhé!

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Kim Đồng, Phước Sơn

  1. TRƯỜNG TH&THCS KIM ĐỒNG MATRIX FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST ENGLISH 7 School year: 2022-2023 No. of Com High App PARTS Mark Task types Ques TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL 5 1,0 - Listen and circle the LISTENIN 1,0 best answer G (2,0) 5 1,0 - Listen and tick T/F 1,0 Indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently 2 0,4 0,4 form the LANGUAG others//Whi E ch word has COMPON different ENT stress (2,0) syllable MCQs: 3 0,6 Circle the 0,4 0,2 best option MCQs: 5 1,0 Circle the 0,4 0,6 best option Read the text and fill in the blank 5 1,0 (with 0,8 0,2 suitable READING words from (2,0) the box) Read the text and 5 1,0 0,8 0,2 circle the best answer:
  2. 2 0,4 (Error identificatio n) Circle A, B, C or D 0,4 which is not correct in standard English 4 0,8 (Sentence transformati on) Rewrite the WRITING sentences so 0,8 (2,0) as its meaning keeps unchanged 2 0,8 (Sentence building) Write complete sentences 0,8 from the words given. TOTAL(8,0) 38 8,0 2,2 0,8 2 0,4 Introduction 0,4 SPEAKIN 5 1,0 Topic G speaking 0,2 0,8 (2,0) 3 0,6 Questions and Answer 0,4 0,2 Grand Total(10,0) 48 10,0 3,0 1,0 TRƯỜNG TH&THCS KIM ĐỒNG SPECIFICATION FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST ENGLISH 7 School year: 2022-2023
  3. CONTENTS Com Low App High App PARTS Mark Re TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL -Sen 1-5: - Listen to Circle the a Dialogue correct about answer eating 1,0 5 1,0 habits and circle the LISTENI correct NG answer. (2,0) -Sen 6-10: - Listen to listen and a dialogue tick T or F about street 5 1,0 1,0 painting and tick T or F Pronunciat LANGUA ion: GE -Sen 11: Indicate the COMPON distinguish word ENT sounds/s/ & whose (2,0) / ʒ/ in underlined words have 2 0,4 part is 0,4 letter “s” pronounced -Sen 12: differently distinguish form the sounds /  others ɒ /, / ɔ:/ in words have letter “o” Vocabular 2 0,4 y: -Sen 13: 1 Odd one 0,4 word about out the hobby with the answer gardening -Sen 14: 1 word about healthy living with
  4. the answer skin condition Vocabular y: -Sen 15: 1 MCQs: word about 1 0,2 Circle the 0,2 hobbies best option with the answer gardening Grammar points: -Sen 16: 1 MCQs: sentence Circle the about best option verbs of liking and dislikingwi th the 2 0,4 answer 0,4 collecting -Sen 17: 1 sentence about indefinite quantifier with the answer any Grammar 3 0,6 0,6 points: -Sen 18: 1 sentence about past simple about Wh- question with the answer did you buy --Sen 19: 1 sentence about compariso ns with the
  5. answer different from -Sen 20: 1 sentence about present simple with the answer don’t go READING -Sen 21: 1 (Cloze test) (2,0) word about Read the verb with text about the answer health and included fill in the -Sen 22: 1 blank (with word about suitable a noun words from with the the test) answer countries -Sen 23: 1 4 0,8 0,8 word about a preposition with the answer in -Sen 24: 1 word about an adjective with the answer healthy -Sen 25: 1 1 0,2 0,2 word about tense - the present simple of negative sentence with the answer don’t eat
  6. -Sen 26: T/F statement - Sen 27: Choose the best answer for a WH- question -Sen 28: Find the 4 0,8 ( Reading 0,8 synonym comprehets word from ion) Read the text the text “teacher” about with the music and answer art and tutor circle the -Sen 29: best Find the answer: incorrect statement -Sen 30: What does the word “their” in the text 1 0,2 0,2 refer to?the answer is Jenny and Sarah’s -Sen 31: 1 2 0,4 (Error WRITING sentence identificati (2,0) about on) Circle 0,4 preposition A, B, C or with the D which is answer for not correct -Sen 32: 1 in standard sentence English about the compariso n with the answer as low as
  7. -Sen 33: -1 sentence about verbs of liking and disliking (talk about hobby) -Sen 34: 1 sentence about (Sentence compariso transformat ns with the ion) answer Rewrite the different sentences from so as its 0,8 4 0,8 -Sen 35: 1 meaning sentence keeps about unchanged simple sentence -Sen 36: 1 sentence about compariso ns with the answer of adjective younger -Sen 37: 1 sentence about simple past (Sentence -Sen 38: 1 building) sentence Write about complete countable/ 2 0,8 sentences 0,8 uncountabl from the e noun words with the given. answer countable noun apples
  8. TOTAL(8, 0) 8.0 3,4 2,2 1,6 0,8 SPEAKIN - Introduce G personal (2,0) informatio n (hobby, Introductio school, 2 0,4 0,4 n houses, family, teacher, subject..) -Randomly 5 1,0 Topic 0,2 0,8 take one speaking vocab topic (hobby/hea lthy/health y living/ community service/ music and art/ food and drink) -5 minutes for preparatio n - Look at the pictures and answer the question “What is this?” -Spell one word - two vocabs in situation -Student point the word form teacher’s explanatio n
  9. -Answer three questions about one of the topics Questions ((hobby/he 3 0,6 and 0,4 0,2 althy/healt Answers hy living/ community service/ music and art/ food and drink) Grand Total 10,0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0) TRƯỜNG TH&THCS KIM ĐỒNG ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ I Họ và tên: ____________________ NĂM HỌC: 2022 - 2023 Lớp: 7/... Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 7 Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (Không kể giao đề)
  10. Điểm: Nhận xét của giáo viên: Chữ ký Chữ ký Chữ ký Giám thị Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 A. LISTENING (2,0ms) Part 1. Listen to Minh talking about the eating habits in his area. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D. (1,0m) 1. People in Minh’s area often have ____________ meals a day. A. two B. three C. four D. five 2. For breakfast, they usually have _______________ . A. rice and soup B. bread and milk C. pho or eel soup D. pho or xoi 3. _______________ is the main meal of the day in his area. A. Breakfast B. Lunch C. Dinner D. Snack 4. For dinner, they usually have rice with a lot of fresh vegetables and ___________or meat. A. seafood B. fried tofu C. chicken D. omelette 5. After dinner, people in Minh’s neighbourhood often have some fruit and ___________ . A. coffee B. soft drink C. mineral water D. green tea Part 2. Listen to a man talking about street painting and tick T (True) or F (False). (0. is an example) (1,0m) Statements T F 0. Street painting is street art. √ 6. Street painting is a new type of art.
  11. 7. Street painting began in the 6th century. 8. At a street painting event, you can become an artist. 9. The Lake Worth Street Painting Festival happens every month. 10. About 100,000 artists take part in the Lake Worth Street Festival. B. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,0ms) I. Choose the word that has different sound from the others. 11. A. measure B. pleasure C. conclusion D. pension 12. A. dollhouse B. volunteer C. portrait D. omelette II. Odd one out: 13. A. gardening B. actress C. artist D. musician 14. A. spring rolls B. omelette C. pancakes D. skin condition III. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete these sentences. 15. My father always plants trees and water them every day. His hobby is ___________. A. making models B. gardening C. collecting things D. building dollhouse 16. My friend and I enjoy ___________ teddy bears. A. collect B. collects C. collecting D. collected 17. There isn’t ____________ milk in the fridge. A. some B. a lot of C. lots of D. any 18. When ______________ this car?
  12. A. do you bought B. do you buy C. did you bought D. did you buy 19. He likes folk songs; I like pop music. His taste is ____________ me. A. different from B. like C. than D. as 20. My parents ____________ jogging every day. They only do it three times a week. A. are going B. don’t go C. doesn’t go D. didn’t go C. READING (2,0ms) I. Read and choose the correct word from the box to complete the passage (1,0m). healthy included in don’t eat countries A recent report showed which countries were the healthiest to live in. It (21)___________ things like how long people live and what kind of health problems they have. Some of the (22) ___________ on the list were Australia, Italy and France and Japan was atthe top. In Japan, more people live to be over eighty years old than (23) ___________ any other countries. Part of the reason is that people have a very (24)_____________ diet. They eat a lot of fish and vegetables. They (25) ____________ much red meat and cheese. We don’t all have to live in Japan to be healthier, but we should definitely all eat more fish and do more exercise, too. II. Read the passage again and choose the correct answer (1,0m) Jenny and Sarah are practising singing a Vietnamese folk song to take part in a singing contest only for foreign students who are studying in schools in Ho Chi Minh City. Their song is Hoa thom buom luon. It has a beautiful melody, but they find it challenging because the lyrics are difficult for them to pronounce. With the help of Miss Thanh, their Vietnamese tutor, their performance is improving significantly. Besides singing, they also have to practise a traditional dance in order to impress the judges and the audience. Although the dance is not as difficult as the song, they still rehearse very hard. With a lot of efforts, both girls hope they will have a great performance and win the contest. 26. According to the text, which sentence is FALSE? A. Jenny and Sarah are foreign students in a school in Ho Chi Minh City. B. Jenny and Sarah are going to sing the folk song Hoa thom buom luon. C. Their performance is improving significantly with the help of their tutor. D. Their traditional dance is more difficult than the song. 27. What do Jenny and Sarah think about the song they chose?
  13. A. The melody is beautiful but the lyrics are difficult. B. The melody is hard but the lyrics are lovely. C. The melody is challenging but the lyrics are easy. D. The melody and the lyrics are difficult. 28. Find the word in the text that is the synonym of the word “teacher”. A. student B. tutor C. judge D. audience 29. Which sentence is NOT correct about Jenny and Sarah? A. Jenny and Sarah have to practice a dance to impress their teachers. B. Jenny and Sarah find that the lyrics of the song they chose are not easy. C. Jenny and Sarah have to rehearse very hard. D. Jenny and Sarah hope that they will win the contest. 30. What does the word their in line 4 mean? A. Foreign students’. B. Miss Thanh’s. C. Jenny and Sarah’s. D. The lyrics’ D. WRITING (2,0ms) I.Find a mistake A, B, C or D in each sentence below.(0,4ms) 31. What do they often have in breakfast? A B C D 32. The price of food is not as low than it was last summer. A B C D II. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. (0,8 ms) 33. My hobby is making models. → I enjoy ______________________________________________________________. 34. Her picture is not like mine. → Her picture __________________________________________________________. 35. My brother loves outdoor activities. My sister loves outdoor activities. → My_________________________________________________________________. 36. My father is older than my mother. → My mother ___________________________________________________________. III. Write complete sentences with the words given.(0,8ms) 37. last year/ I/ donate/ books/ children in rural area
  14. _______________________________________________________________________ 38. How/ apples/ you/ eat/ every day? _______________________________________________________________________ -The end- TRƯỜNG TH&THCS KIM ĐỒNG ANSWER KEY FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST ENGLISH 7 School year 2022 - 2023 A. LISTENING (2,0ms) Part 1.Listen and circle the correct option A, B or C (1,0m)- 0,2ms/ a sentence 1 2 3 4 5 B C C A D
  15. Part 2.Listen again andtick T (True) or F (False) (1,0m)- 0,2ms/ a sentence 6 7 8 9 10 T F T F F B. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,0ms)- 0,2ms/ a sentence 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 D C A D B C D D A B C. READING (2,0ms) I. Read and choose the corect word to complete the passage (1,0m)- 0,2ms/ a sentence 21. included 22. countries 23. in 24. healthy 25. don’t eat II. Read the passage again and choose the correct answer (1,0m)- 0,2ms/ a sentence 26 27 28 29 30 D A B B C D. WRITING (2,0ms) I. Find a mistake A, B, C or D in each sentence below.(0,4ms)- 0,2ms/ a sentence 31- D 32 - C II. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. (0.8 ms) - 0,2ms/ a sentence 33. I enjoy making models. 34. Her picture is different from mine. 35. My brother and sister love outdoor activities. 36. My mother is younger than my father. III. Make sentences using the words and phrases given.(0,8ms) - 0,4ms/ a sentence 37. How many apples do you eat everyday? 38. Painting portraits is different from painting landscapes.
  16. *SPEAKING: I. Introduction: (0,4 ms) - Students introduce about themselves: name/ age/ class/ address … II. Interview: (1,0 m) - Students look at the pictures and: + answer the question: What is this?; + spell one word; + explain the words; + define words III. Questions and answers: (0,6 ms) - Each student answer 3 questions about one of the topics. -The end-
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