Đề thi thử THPT QG môn tiếng Anh năm 2019 lần 2 - Sở GD&ĐT Ninh Bình - Mã đề 004

Chia sẻ: Tỉ Phong | Ngày: | Loại File: PDF | Số trang:4

Thêm vào BST

Báo xấu

227
lượt xem 1
download

Download Vui lòng tải xuống để xem tài liệu đầy đủ

Hãy tham khảo Đề thi thử THPT QG môn tiếng Anh năm 2019 lần 2 - Sở GD&ĐT Ninh Bình - Mã đề 004 để giúp các bạn biết thêm cấu trúc đề thi như thế nào, rèn luyện kỹ năng giải bài tập và có thêm tư liệu tham khảo chuẩn bị cho kì thi sắp tới đạt điểm tốt hơn.

Chủ đề:

Bình luận(0) Đăng nhập để gửi bình luận!

Lưu

Nội dung Text: Đề thi thử THPT QG môn tiếng Anh năm 2019 lần 2 - Sở GD&ĐT Ninh Bình - Mã đề 004

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI THỬ TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA TỈNH NINH BÌNH LẦN THỨ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2018-2019 Môn: TIẾNG ANH ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề (Đề thi gồm có 04 trang) Mã đề thi 004 Họ tên thí sinh:...............................................................; Số báo danh:................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: The ______ of the palace in the water was very clear and dreamy. A. sight B. shadow C. reflection D. shade Question 2: In today’s paper, it ______ that the Vietnam’s national examination for high school students will take place from June 24th to 27th . A. says B. proposes C. admits D. expresses Question 3: Sharon ____ to Italy twice before she visited Rome for the first time. A. went B. had gone C. has gone D. was going Question 4: ____, I entered one of the most prestigious universities of the United States. A. To award a scholarship B. Awarding a scholarship C. Having been awarded a scholarship D. I have been awarded a scholarship Question 5: Thousands of people ____ along the roads watched the bicycle racing. A. standing B. to stand C. stood D. who stands Question 6: Many city-dwellers like to spend their weekend in the country to enjoy the fresh air and the ____ of nature. A. beautify B. beautiful C. beauty D. beautifully Question 7: We’ve got to save the rainforests ____ being destroyed. A. with B. to C. for D. from Question 8: Our magazine ____ in May if we receive all the articles on time. A. will have published B. will be published C. would be published D. will publish Question 9: At first, it’s very difficult for the judge to identify the winner because the two runners seemed to cross the finishing line ______. A. chronologically B. respectively C. spontaneously D. simultaneously Question 10: Tina would consider ____ to Finland with us this summer. A. to go B. going C. to have gone D. being gone Question 11: _____ our own interests is one of the most important factors in choosing a job. A. Pursuing B. Chasing C. Seeking D. Realizing Question 12: The accident brought him to his ______ and made him stop drinking. A. senses B. awareness C. responsibilities D. duties Question 13: “Sorry, I don’t know it exactly, but I think the Ethnology Museum is within ____ easy distance.” A. an B. the C. a D. Ø (no article) Question 14: ____ Jim likes the band, he’s too tired to go to the concert this evening. A. Because of B. Whatever C. Since D. Even though Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 15: My personal opinion doesn’t really matter. We need to decide for the good of everyone. A. If my personal opinion doesn’t really matter, we need to decide for the good of everyone. B. Though my personal opinion really matters, we need to decide for the good of everyone. C. We need to decide for the good of everyone, so my personal opinion doesn’t really matter. D. Deciding for the good of everyone makes our personal opinion not really matter at all. Question16: She phoned him early in the morning. She didn’t want him to forget to bring along the document. A. She phoned him early in the morning lest he would forget to bring along the document. B. She phoned him early in the morning so that she wanted him to bring along the document. C. She phoned him early in the morning when she didn’t want him to bring along the document. D. She phoned him early in the morning though she didn’t want him to forget to bring along the document. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Trang 1/4 - Mã đề thi 004
Question 17: - “What do you think about my idea for a new smart phone game” - “I think it’s got potential. It sounds really good.” A. it seems that it can be successful B. it is certain of success C. it’s possible, but not practical D. someone already did it Question 18: 75% of the world's population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a point masks the symptoms of sleep deprivation. A. loss B. supply C. damage D. offer Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 19: I am at a loss to know how you are going to pass your subjects without studying. All what you do is playing video games all day. A. fail to understand B. lose the game C. completely understand D. feel like a stranger Question 20: The company rejected the claim that they were responsible for these teenagers’ health problems. A. denied B. ignored C. accepted D. disagreed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 21: A. relaxed B. attracted C. distinguished D. attacked Question 22: A. green B. pioneer C. indeed D. seen Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 23 to 30. Even though most people can’t find it on a map, the small island of Sumbawa has played an important role in history. Sumbawa is situated to the east of the popular resort island of Bali and is currently home to around 1.5 million people. For these people the island is home, but Sumbawa is important for another reason as well. Mount Tambora – a volcano, 1815 volcanic eruption was the deadliest and most powerful in history – is located on its northern half. In early April of 1815, Mount Tambora changed the world. It released a blast that registered a whopping 7 on the Volcanic Explosivity Index. That is the highest in human history. Its eruption was so loud that it was heard by people who live in Sumatra – an island located more than 2,000 kilometers away. When Tambora erupted, it shot around 100 cubic kilometers of rock and ash into the air. The ash caused complete darkness on Sumbawa and its neighboring islands for several days. It destroyed all vegetation and killed an estimated 71,000 people in the area. But the damage Tambora caused did not end in Indonesia. One year later, the volcanic cloud of ash it ejected reached the northern hemisphere. There it obscured the sun and affected the climates of Europe, the eastern sections of the United States, and Canada. It created cooler temperatures and severe crop failure. Many places had snow in June and frosty nights in July, August, and September. The year of 1816 was known as “the year without summer”. The cooler temperatures resulted in a severe and extensive famine. The prices of basic foods rose sharply across the affected areas. Many people resorted to begging, stealing, and travelling long distances in search of food. Diseases caused by malnutrition became widespread. In total, over 200,000 people died of starvation and disease. The aftermath of the 1815 eruption of Mount Tambora was the worst of any volcanic eruption in recorded history. Unfortunately, volcano researchers say we can expect a similar eruption to occur within the next 1,000 years. While many people see manmade climate change as the most dangerous threat to the Earth, powerful volcanoes also threaten us with catastrophic climate disruption. Question 23: According to the passage, Sumbawa has played an important role in history because_______. A. the largest volcanic eruption in history happened there B. it has a population of 1.5 million people C. Mount Tambora’s eruption registered a 7 on the Volcanic Explosivity Index D. it is located so close to Bali Question 24: The word “blast” in paragraph 2 described a(n) __________. A. explosion B. shape C. image D. size Question 25: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ____________. A. ash B. darkness C. shot D. rock Question 26: According to the passage, why was the year of 1816 called “the year without a summer”? A. As the eruption killed 71,000 people in the summer. B. Because Mt. Tambora erupted in the summer. C. Because Mt. Tambora erupting in 1816 caused famine. D. As the cloud of ash from Mt. Tambora effected the climate. Trang 2/4 - Mã đề thi 004
Question 27: The phrase “resorted to” in paragraph 5 almost means_________. A. took the last chance B. did the worst thing C. had difficulty D. tried their best Question 28: Which of the following statements is TRUE about the eruption of Mt. Tambora? A. The volcanic cloud of ash only reached the southern hemisphere. B. It was impossible to measure it on the Volcanic Explosivity Index. C. It affected the climates of several countries in Asia and Africa. D. The cooler temperature caused severe crop failure. Question 29: Which of the following statements is NOT true about the eruption of Mt. Tambora? A. It was very cold in the summer of 1816. B. The damage was limited to Indonesia and the surrounding area. C. Many people died because they didn’t have enough food to eat. D. The eruption of Tambora was the most powerful in history. Question 30: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. The volcanoes can erupt at anytime and anywhere. B. Manmade climate change is still the most dangerous threat. C. Volcanic eruptions always result in a mass extinction. D. The survival of the human race is not guaranteed. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 31: A. reduction B. example C. penalty D. disaster Question 32: A. panda B. leopard C. parrot D. apply Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37. Dolphins have to be conscious to (33) ________. This means that they cannot go into a full deep sleep, because then they would suffocate. Dolphins have “solved” that by (34) ________ one half of their brain sleep at a time. This has been determined by doing EEG studies on dolphins. Dolphins sleep about 8 hours a day in this fashion. Recent studies confirmed that dolphins have only one eye closed (35) _______ their sleep. The state (open or closed) of one eye remains constant for an average of an hour, after (36) ________ it switches state. REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep, usually associated with dreaming has been recorded only very (37) __________. Some scientists claim dolphins do not have REM sleep at all. A dolphin’s behavior when sleeping/resting depends on the circumstances and possibly on individual preferences. They can either: swim slowly and surface every now and then for a breath; rest at the surface with their blowhole exposed; or rest on the bottom (in shallow water) and rise to the surface every now and then to breathe. Question 33: A. breathe B. breathing C. breath D. breathed Question 34: A. getting B. doing C. letting D. allowing Question 35: A. after B. when C. during D. while Question 36: A. whom B. which C. that D. who Question 37: A. often B. rarely C. widely D. never Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 38: The teacher is asking Kevin about the reason for his absence from the class. - Teacher: “Why didn’t you show up for class this morning?” - Kevin: “____. You know, I live far from the school.” A. It’s a fine day B. It’s not the case C. That’s good D. My car broke down Question 39: July and Harry are talking about their plan for the weekend. - July: “Shall we go boating tomorrow?” - Harry: “____. The weather forecast says a storm is coming.” A. That’s a deal B. I’m afraid we can’t C. Sure D. That’s a good idea Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree sending out a distress signal. But a group of scientists has heard the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are drawn to them like vulture to a dying animal. Researchers with the US Department of Agriculture’s Forest Service fastened sensors to the bark of drought-stricken trees clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the scientists, most parched trees transmit their plight in the 50-hertz to 50-kilohertz range. (The unaided human ear can detect no more than 20 kilohertz). Red oak, maple, white pine, and birch all make slightly different sounds in the form of vibrations at the surface of the wood. Trang 3/4 - Mã đề thi 004
The scientists think that the vibrations are created when the water columns inside tubes that run along the length of the tree break, a result of too little water following through them. These fractured columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because some insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the trees' vibration and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived of water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. “Water-stressed trees also smell differently from other trees, and they experience thermal changes, so insects could be responding to something other than sound”, one scientist said. Question 40: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? A. the effect of insects on trees. B. the mission of the U.S Forest Service C. the vibrations produced by insects D. the sound made by trees Question 41: The word “them” in the first paragraph refers to__________. A. insects B. scientists C. vultures D. trees Question 42: The word “parched” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________. A. recovered B. damaged C. dehydrated D. burned Question 43: All the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened trees EXCEPT__________. A. smells B. sounds C. changes in colours D. thermal changes Question 44: Which of the following could be considered a cause of the trees’ distress signals? A. torn root B. lack of water C. experiments by scientist D. attacks by insects Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 45: If you paid attention to the lesson yesterday, you could answer my questions now. A B C D Question 46: At present, advertising is one of the most strictly regulated industry in the United States. A B C D Question 47: The teacher found a great deal of mistakes in his students’ writing. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 48: “What film did you watch last night, Dave?” Dora asked. A. Dora wanted to know what film had Dave watched the night before. B. Dora asked Dave what he watched film the previous night. C. Dora wondered what film Dave watched the night before. D. Dora asked Dave what film he had watched the previous night. Question 49: Needless to say, Mike is cleverer than other students in the class. A. Needless to say, Mike is not so clever as other students in the class. B. Needless to say, other students in the class are cleverer than Mike. C. Needless to say, Mike is the cleverest student in the class. D. Needless to say, other students in the class are as clever as Mike. Question 50: It was wrong of you not to ask your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. A. You should have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. B. You might have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. C. You must have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. D. You had to have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. ----------- THE END ---------- Trang 4/4 - Mã đề thi 004