Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia lần 1 năm 2018 môn tiếng Anh - Sở GD&ĐT Nghệ An - Mã đề 409

Chia sẻ: Phan Thanh Thảo | Ngày: | Loại File: DOC | Số trang:6

Thêm vào BST

Báo xấu

33
lượt xem 0
download

Download Vui lòng tải xuống để xem tài liệu đầy đủ

Giúp học sinh đánh giá lại kiến thức đã học cũng như kinh nghiệm ra đề của giáo viên. Mời các bạn và quý thầy cô cùng tham khảo Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia lần 1 năm 2018 môn tiếng Anh - Sở GD&ĐT Nghệ An - Mã đề 409.

Chủ đề:

Bình luận(0) Đăng nhập để gửi bình luận!

Lưu

Nội dung Text: Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia lần 1 năm 2018 môn tiếng Anh - Sở GD&ĐT Nghệ An - Mã đề 409

SỞ GD&ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1 NĂM 2018 LIÊN TRƯỜNG THPT Môn thi: Anh văn Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút,không kể thời gian phát đề (Đề thi có 05 trang) Mã đề thi: 409 Họ và tên thí sinh:..................................................................... SBD: ............................. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 1: The movie bears little resemblance to the original novel. A. The movie is very similar to the original novel. B. The movie and the original novel resemble in many ways. C. The movie and the original novel differ in some ways. D. The movie is quite different from the original novel. Question 2: Under no circumstances should you phone the police. A. You should think hard before phoning the police B. If you can not control the situation, you should phone the police. C. You should phone the police as soon as possible. D. You should never phone the police. Question 3: He was suspended for two matches for swearing at the referee. A. Swearing at the referee earned him a suspension for two matches. B. If he hadn’t sworn at the referee he wouldn’t have been suspended for two matches. C. He sworn at the referee for his suspension for two matches. D. Both A and B are correct. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 4: One of the students who are being considered for the scholarship are from this university A B C D Question 5: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and the A B technological institutions if they are to preserve environment C D Question 6: Many people have found the monotonous buzzing of the vuvuzela in the 2010 World Cup A B C matches so annoyed D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 7: She didn’t want to sell her house. She borrowed a lot of money from the bank. A. Rather than selling her house, she borrowed a lot of money from the bank. B. We sold her house, but she borrowed a lot of money from the bank. C. She didn’t sell her house as she borrowed a lot of money from the bank. D. In spite of selling her house, she borrowed a lot of money from the bank. Question 8: After Jane had seen her best friend off at the air port, she came back to work A. Coming back to work, Jane had seen her best friend off at the air port. B. Seeing her best friend off at the air port, Jane came back to work. C. Having seen her best friend off at the air port, Jane came back to work. Trang 1/6 Mã đề thi 409
D. Came back to work, Jane saw her best friend off at the air port. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 9: “Did you hear that Margaret's plan is snowbound in Chicago?” “We suggested that she_____a train but she wouldn’t listen.” A. took B. take C. would take D. had taken Question 10: He drove through the town________a hundred miles an hour A. Ø B. with C. at D. in Question 11: Alan and Susie_______ an argument. They are not speaking to each other. A. might had B. must have had C. must had D. might has Question 12: The bus was crammed________students who were making________ the central park where the festival would take place. A. with/for B. with/into C. in/for D. of/out Question 13: ________little we may like it, old age comes to most of us A. As B. So C. However D. Despite Question 14: The conference was organized for all of the ________ in the state. A. teachers of mathematic B. mathematics teachers C. mathematics’ teachers D. mathematic teachers Question 15: “Where’s that _______ dress that your grandma gave you?” A. lovely pink long silk B. lovely long pink silk C. long pink silk lovely D. pink long lovely silk Question 16: She finds his behavior towards her quite ________ . He treats her like an idiot. A. ill mannered B. insulting C. offending D. crude Question 17: The rain seems to have set________for the evening A. about B. down C. upon D. in Question 18: There are five letters in the word “fresh”. One of the letters is a vowel. ________ are consonants. A. The others B. The other C. Another D. Others Question 19: Hair color is one of ________characteristics to be used in identifying people A. the most obviously B. most obvious C. obviously the most D. the most obvious Question 20: I’m not keen on________control of the project to a relative newcomer A. entrusting B. charging C. understanding D. alloting Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 21 to 25. Return to the British Seaside The British began to take trips to the seaside after the creation of bank holidays in 1871, Coastal towns such as Bournemouth and Blackpool enjoyed great popularity with families seeking the benefits of sea water bathing and (21)_____ air. However, when the airline industry started to offer low (22)_____flights to sunnier destinations in the 1970s, many British people started taking their holidays abroad. This resulted in a lack of investment into seaside resorts and before (23)_____many of them were no longer the attractive, lively places they once were. However, improved water quality, cleaner beaches and warmer British summers have all helped to attract people back to the British seaside. Also, many people are now preferring to take shorter (24)_____and don’t want to waste time queueing at airports. Trang 2/6 Mã đề thi 409
(25)_____ to say, facilities, attractions, and the quality of hotels and guesthouses in many resorts have improved dramatically Question 21: A. natural B. cool C. pure D. fresh Question 22: A. price B. money C. cost D. expense Question 23: A. while B. soon C. time D. long Question 24: A. pauses B. breaks C. stops D. intervals Question 25: A. Needless B. found C. Useless D. Unnecessary Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 26: A. financial B. popular C. reduction D. romantic Question 27: A. guidance B. involve C. future D. prospect Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 28: A. undermine B. spine C. Valentine D. feminine Question 29: A. these B. although C. thank D. without Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 36 According to recent scientific theory, it is probable that life will develop on planets that have a favorable environmentplanets similar to ours, that orbits stars like our sun. Since there are about 400 billion stars in out galaxy alone, that means there are huge number of planets like ours that could sustain life. Planets with advanced civilizations are likely to be widely scattered throughout the universe. In the past four decades, humans on Earth have begun to search for these civilizations. This search is called SETI, the Search for Extra Terrestrial Intelligence, and it has been conducted largely by searching for radio waves emitted from civilizations on other planets. In 1960, Dr. Frank Drake made the first attempt at SETI, by conducting a radio searches using an 85 foot antenna of the National Radio Astronomy Observatory in West Virginia. This search, called Project Ozma, observed two stars about 12 light years away. Since that time, more than 60 searches have been conducted by dozens of astronomers in at least eight countries. All searches, thus far, have faced many limitations: they used equipment that lack sensitivity, they did not search frequently, they covered little of the sky, or they could search for only a few types of signals or in a few directions. The searches did turn up signals of unknown origin, but data collected in these searches were often processed long after the observation. In order to be sure that a signal is from another civilizations, it has to be independently verified and shown to originate from a point beyond the solar system. Later searches for the unknown signals turned up nothing. Project Phoenix, the latest SETI effort, consists orders of magnitude more comprehensive than any of those previous experiments, and uses the world’s largest antennas. It will scrutinize the regions around 1,000 nearby Sunlike stars, and immediately test candidate signals to see if they are Project Phoenix in origin. It is important that Project Phoenix continue to operate, because radio interference from Earth sources is growing, and may soon interfere with our ability to detect possible extraterrestrial signals. In order to overcome this growing interference, ever better antenna systems are being developed Question 30: What does the passage mainly discussed? A. efforts to search for signals from extraterrestrial civilizations B. the life stories of scientists involved in SETI C. the origin of life on other planets D. possible explanations for radio signals of unknown origin Trang 3/6 Mã đề thi 409
Question 31: What subject would most likely be the topic of the paragraph following this paragraph? A. a description of the most sophisticated radio antennas B. a description of several other failed attempts to pick extraterrestrial radio signals C. what Dr. Frank Drake and other wellknown scientists think of Project Ozma D. a description of the most recent efforts of Project Phoenix Question 32: “Verified” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to______ A. received B. discovered C. checked D. underlined Question 33: It can be inferred from the passage that a major limitation of earlier searches for alien radio signals was______ A. the difficulty of obtaining government funding B. the slowness of the verification process C. the lack of scientific interest in this topic D. the limited number of signals that might be extraterrestial Question 34: Which of the following would NOT distinguish Project Phoenix from previous SETI experiments? A. It uses the world’s largest antennas B. It immediately tests candidate signals C. It can only search in a few directions D. It is comprehensive Question 35: “Scrutinize” in bold in the last paragraph is closest meaning to______ A. orbit B. examine C. process D. establish Question 36: Where is this passage most likely seen in? A. an editorial in a local newspaper B. a popular science journal C. a personal website D. a book of short stories. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 37: My parents got divorced when I was 5 _________ A .How did it happened? B. They shouldn’t do that. C. Oh, I’m sorry. D .You must have been shocked Question 38: “Goodbye,Jane!” _________ A. So so B. Yeah C. So long D. The same Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 39: In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew 25 years ago. A. firstyear students B. new counselors C. young professors D. new students Question 40: Childbearing is the women's most wonderful role. A. Bring up a child B. Giving birth to a baby C. Having no child D. Educating a child Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 41: I have lunch with a convivial group of my friend A. cold B. unsociable C. lively D. large Question 42: I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend – I’m up to my ears in work. A. very idle B. very scared C. very bored D. very busy Trang 4/6 Mã đề thi 409
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Nowadays, multiplex cinemas are a permanent and entrenched feature of shopping malls all over America and are becoming increasingly popular throughout the world. Many of the theaters are being expanded into entertainment complexes complete with virtual roller coasters, video, arcades and food courts as well as a dizzying array of movie selections. At the Sony IMAX Theater in New York City, the building’s interior is a strange merging of high tech and nostalgia. As Mary Jane Dodge, the IMAX project director for Sony Theaters explains, “This is an homage to the great theaters of the past. With the Sony IMAX Theater, we want to take the past into the future.” Walking into the complex, patrons are met by a 65foot color mural collage of the great movie palaces. Downstairs, a smaller blackandwhite mural depicts behindthescenes shots from famous films. There is even a column used as a vertical timeline which traces the major events in cinema history. Although the showcase of the complex is the IMAX Theater with its impressive 80by100foot screen, personal sound devices, 3D goggles, there are twelve additional theaters, ranging from 150 to 900 seats. They incorporate advanced technology into an architectural space designed “to create a partner in the architectural firm that designed the complex. Each theater, designed around Hindu, Chinese, Moroccan, Olympic, Egyptian and other similar themes, is replete with ornate entrance portals and interior detailing, as well as stateoftheart lighting and sound. Question 43: The word “virtual” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to ________? A. dangerous B. powerful C. illusory D. highflying Question 44: With what topic is the second paragraph mainly concerned? A. The design of the IMAX complex B. What is incorporated in the IMAX complex C. The architecture of the IMAX complex D. Advanced technology in the IMAX complex Question 45: From the passage it can be inferred that single movie theaters _______ A. provide good entertainment value B. mainly satisfy the general public C. provide a high level of nostalgia D. have an oldfashioned design Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT in the Sony IMAX Theater? A. High tech equipment B. Colored film photographs C. 65foot color collage D. Black and white mural Question 47: The word” This” in bold in paragraph 1 refers to_______. A. the IMAX Theater B. New York City C. an homage D. the building’s interior Question 48: What does Mary Jane Dodge mean when she says “we want to take the past into the future.”? A. Old films should be shown at the IMAX Theater. B. Old theaters should show modern films. C. The IMAX Theater pays respect to the old films. D. Old movie theaters should be modernized. Question 49: How is Robert Green’s movie experience primarily different from a normal visit to a movie? A. It gives the possibility of seeing unusual films. B. It demonstrates all the latest technology. C. It offers a variety of movies to choose from. D. It shows many aspects of the cinema and its history. Question 50: By building cinemas around different themes, it can be inferred that the designers wanted to______. A. add an extra dimension to movie going Trang 5/6 Mã đề thi 409
B. try out some new architectural ideas C. indicate the universality of the cinema D. demonstrate which cinemas were showing foreign films The end Trang 6/6 Mã đề thi 409