Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia lần 1 năm 2018 môn tiếng Anh - Sở GD&ĐT Nghệ An - Mã đề 417

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SỞ GD&ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1 NĂM 2018 LIÊN TRƯỜNG THPT Môn thi: Anh văn Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút,không kể thời gian phát đề (Đề thi có 05 trang) Mã đề thi: 417 Họ và tên thí sinh:..................................................................... SBD: ............................. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. popular B. romantic C. financial D. reduction Question 2: A. prospect B. future C. guidance D. involve Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. although B. without C. these D. thank Question 4: A. spine B. undermine C. feminine D. Valentine Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 5: “Goodbye,Jane!” _________ A. So long B. Yeah C. So so D. The same Question 6: My parents got divorced when I was 5 _________ A .How did it happened? B. They shouldn’t do that. C. Oh, I’m sorry. D .You must have been shocked Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 7: I’m not keen on________control of the project to a relative newcomer A. alloting B. charging C. entrusting D. understanding Question 8: ________little we may like it, old age comes to most of us A. However B. Despite C. As D. So Question 9: She finds his behavior towards her quite ________ . He treats her like an idiot. A. insulting B. crude C. ill mannered D. offending Question 10: The rain seems to have set________for the evening A. in B. about C. upon D. down Question 11: The conference was organized for all of the ________ in the state. A. teachers of mathematic B. mathematics teachers C. mathematic teachers D. mathematics’ teachers Question 12: “Did you hear that Margaret's plan is snowbound in Chicago?” “We suggested that she_____a train but she wouldn’t listen.” A. would take B. had taken C. take D. took Question 13: The bus was crammed________students who were making________ the central park where the festival would take place. A. of/out B. with/for C. with/into D. in/for Question 14: He drove through the town________a hundred miles an hour A. with B. Ø C. at D. in Question 15: Hair color is one of ________characteristics to be used in identifying people Trang 1/6 Mã đề thi 417
A. the most obviously B. the most obvious C. most obvious D. obviously the most Question 16: There are five letters in the word “fresh”. One of the letters is a vowel. ________ are consonants. A. The other B. Others C. The others D. Another Question 17: “Where’s that _______ dress that your grandma gave you?” A. pink long lovely silk B. lovely pink long silk C. long pink silk lovely D. lovely long pink silk Question 18: Alan and Susie_______ an argument. They are not speaking to each other. A. might has B. might had C. must had D. must have had Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question19: I have lunch with a convivial group of my friend A. large B. unsociable C. lively D. cold Question20: I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend – I’m up to my ears in work. A. very busy B. very scared C. very bored D. very idle Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 21: The movie bears little resemblance to the original novel. A. The movie is quite different from the original novel. B. The movie and the original novel differ in some ways. C. The movie is very similar to the original novel. D. The movie and the original novel resemble in many ways. Question22: He was suspended for two matches for swearing at the referee. A. If he hadn’t sworn at the referee he wouldn’t have been suspended for two matches. B. Swearing at the referee earned him a suspension for two matches. C. He sworn at the referee for his suspension for two matches. D. Both A and B are correct. Question 23: Under no circumstances should you phone the police. A. You should think hard before phoning the police B. You should phone the police as soon as possible. C. You should never phone the police. D. If you can not control the situation, you should phone the police. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question24: After Jane had seen her best friend off at the air port, she came back to work. A. Having seen her best friend off at the air port, Jane came back to work. B. Coming back to work, Jane had seen her best friend off at the air port. C. Came back to work, Jane saw her best friend off at the air port. D. Seing her best friend off at the air port, Jane came back to work. Question 25: She didn’t want to sell her house. She borrowed a lot of money from the bank. A. Rather than selling her house, she borrowed a lot of money from the bank. B. In spite of selling her house, she borrowed a lot of money from the bank. C. She didn’t sell her house as she borrowed a lot of money from the bank. D. We sold her house, but she borrowed a lot of money from the bank. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 26: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and A B the technological institutions if they are to preserve environment. Trang 2/6 Mã đề thi 417
C D Question 27: One of the students who are being considered for the scholarship are from this university A B C D Question 28: Many people have found the monotonous buzzing of the vuvuzela in the 2010 World Cup A B C matches so annoyed. D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 29 to 36. Nowadays, multiplex cinemas are a permanent and entrenched feature of shopping malls all over America and are becoming increasingly popular throughout the world. Many of the theaters are being expanded into entertainment complexes complete with virtual roller coasters, video, arcades and food courts as well as a dizzying array of movie selections. At the Sony IMAX Theater in New York City, the building’s interior is a strange merging of high tech and nostalgia. As Mary Jane Dodge, the IMAX project director for Sony Theaters explains, “This is an homage to the great theaters of the past. With the Sony IMAX Theater, we want to take the past into the future.” Walking into the complex, patrons are met by a 65 foot color mural collage of the great movie palaces. Downstairs, a smaller blackandwhite mural depicts behindthescenes shots from famous films. There is even a column used as a vertical timeline which traces the major events in cinema history. Although the showcase of the complex is the IMAX Theater with its impressive 80by100foot screen, personal sound devices, 3D goggles, there are twelve additional theaters, ranging from 150 to 900 seats. They incorporate advanced technology into an architectural space designed “to create a partner in the architectural firm that designed the complex. Each theater, designed around Hindu, Chinese, Moroccan, Olympic, Egyptian and other similar themes, is replete with ornate entrance portals and interior detailing, as well as stateoftheart lighting and sound. Question 29: The word “virtual” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to ________? A. dangerous B. highflying C. powerful D. illusory Question 30: With what topic is the second paragraph mainly concerned? A. The design of the IMAX complex B. What is incorporated in the IMAX complex C. The architecture of the IMAX complex D. Advanced technology in the IMAX complex Question 31: From the passage it can be inferred that single movie theaters _______ A. have an oldfashioned design B. provide good entertainment value C. mainly satisfy the general public D. provide a high level of nostalgia Question 32: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT in the Sony IMAX Theater? A. High tech equipment B. Black and white mural C. Colored film photographs D. 65foot color collage Question 33: The word” This” in bold in paragraph 1 refers to_______. A. New York City B. the IMAX Theater C. the building’s interior D. an homage Question 34: What does Mary Jane Dodge mean when she says “we want to take the past into the future.”? Trang 3/6 Mã đề thi 417
A. Old films should be shown at the IMAX Theater. B. Old theaters should show modern films. C. Old movie theaters should be modernized. D. The IMAX Theater pays respect to the old films. Question 35: How is Robert Green’s movie experience primarily different from a normal visit to a movie? A. It gives the possibility of seeing unusual films. B. It offers a variety of movies to choose from. C. It shows many aspects of the cinema and its history. D. It demonstrates all the latest technology. Question 36: By building cinemas around different themes, it can be inferred that the designers wanted to______. A. indicate the universality of the cinema B. add an extra dimension to movie going C. demonstrate which cinemas were showing foreign films D. try out some new architectural ideas Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 37 to 43. According to recent scientific theory, it is probable that life will develop on planets that have a favorable environmentplanets similar to ours, that orbits stars like our sun. Since there are about 400 billion stars in out galaxy alone, that means there are huge number of planets like ours that could sustain life. Planets with advanced civilizations are likely to be widely scattered throughout the universe. In the past four decades, humans on Earth have begun to search for these civilizations. This search is called SETI, the Search for Extra Terrestrial Intelligence, and it has been conducted largely by searching for radio waves emitted from civilizations on other planets. In 1960, Dr. Frank Drake made the first attempt at SETI, by conducting a radio searches using an 85foot antenna of the National Radio Astronomy Observatory in West Virginia. This search, called Project Ozma, observed two stars about 12 light years away. Since that time, more than 60 searches have been conducted by dozens of astronomers in at least eight countries. All searches, thus far, have faced many limitations: they used equipment that lack sensitivity, they did not search frequently, they covered little of the sky, or they could search for only a few types of signals or in a few directions. The searches did turn up signals of unknown origin, but data collected in these searches were often processed long after the observation. In order to be sure that a signal is from another civilizations, it has to be independently verified and shown to originate from a point beyond the solar system. Later searches for the unknown signals turned up nothing. Project Phoenix, the latest SETI effort, consists orders of magnitude more comprehensive than any of those previous experiments, and uses the world’s largest antennas. It will scrutinize the regions around 1,000 nearby Sunlike stars, and immediately test candidate signals to see if they are Project Phoenix in origin. It is important that Project Phoenix continue to operate, because radio interference from Earth sources is growing, and may soon interfere with our ability to detect possible extraterrestrial signals. In order to overcome this growing interference, ever better antenna systems are being developed Question 37: What does the passage mainly discussed? A. efforts to search for signals from extraterrestrial civilizations B. the origin of life on other planets C. the life stories of scientists involved in SETI D. possible explanations for radio signals of unknown origin Question 38: What subject would most likely be the topic of the paragraph following this paragraph? A. a description of the most recent efforts of Project Phoenix B. what Dr. Frank Drake and other wellknown scientists think of Project Ozma Trang 4/6 Mã đề thi 417
C. a description of several other failed attempts to pick extraterrestrial radio signals D. a description of the most sophisticated radio antennas Question 39: “Verified” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to______ A. underlined B. checked C. discovered D. received Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that a major limitation of earlier searches for alien radio signals was______ A. the difficulty of obtaining government funding B. the lack of scientific interest in this topic C. the limited number of signals that might be extraterrestial D. the slowness of the verification process Question 41: Which of the following would NOT distinguish Project Phoenix from previous SETI experiments? A. It can only search in a few directions B. It immediately tests candidate signals C. It uses the world’s largest antennas D. It is comprehensive Question 42: “Scrutinize” in bold in the last paragraph is closest meaning to______ A. orbit B. process C. examine D. establish Question 43: Where is this passage most likely seen in? A. a popular science journal B. a book of short stories. C. an editorial in a local newspaper D. a personal website Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question44: In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew 25 years ago. A. new students B. firstyear students C. new counselors D. young professors Question 45: Childbearing is the women's most wonderful role. A. Bring up a child B. Educating a child C. Giving birth to a baby D. Having no child Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 46 to 50. Return to the British Seaside The British began to take trips to the seaside after the creation of bank holidays in 1871, Coastal towns such as Bournemouth and Blackpool enjoyed great popularity with families seeking the benefits of sea water bathing and (46)_____ air. However, when the airline industry started to offer low (47)_____flights to sunnier destinations in the 1970s, many British people started taking their holidays abroad. This resulted in a lack of investment into seaside resorts and before (48)_____many of them were no longer the attractive, lively places they once were. However, improved water quality, cleaner beaches and warmer British summers have all helped to attract people back to the British seaside. Also, many people are now preferring to take shorter (49)_____and don’t want to waste time queueing at airports. (50)_____ to say, facilities, attractions, and the quality of hotels and guesthouses in many resorts have improved dramatically Question 46: A. fresh B. natural C. pure D. cool Question 47: A. expense B. price C. cost D. money Question 48: A. soon B. long C. while D. time Question 49: A. pauses B. breaks C. intervals D. stops Question 50: A. Needless B. Useless C. Unnecessary D. found THE END Trang 5/6 Mã đề thi 417
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