Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn tiếng Anh năm 2018 lần 1 - THPT Phan Đình Phùng - Mã đề 102
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Nội dung Text: Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn tiếng Anh năm 2018 lần 1 - THPT Phan Đình Phùng - Mã đề 102
- SỞ GD ĐT HÀ TĨNH Đ TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN ĐÌNH PHÙNG Ề Đề thi có 05 trang T H I T H Ử T H P T Q U Ố C G I A L Ầ N I N Ă M H Ọ C
- 2 0 1 7 2 0 1 8 M ô n t h i : T i ế n g A n h Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Mã đề 102 Họ, tên thí sinh:..................................................................... Số báo danh: ............ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. advise B. avoid C. manage D. career Question 2. A. concentrate B. appearance C. optimism D. character Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. flour B. couple C. double D. trouble Question 4. A. occurs B. destroys C. builds B. laughs
- Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5. Do you think doing the household chores is the of the women city?. A. responsible B. responsive C. responsibility D. responsibly Question 6. He was too sure of himself to pay___________to the warnings against the danger. A. notice B. attention C. respect D. recognition Question 7. I remember ________ to the zoo when I was a very small child. A. being taken B. to take C. to be taken D. taking Question 8. Nobody was absent from the meeting, ______? A. was she B. wasn't she C. were they D. weren't they Question 9. While they _________ a song, the light _________ out. A. sing/go B. sang/went C. were singing/went D. sang/was going He is going to marry a girl next month . Question 10. _________ A. tall pretty English B. pretty tall English C. pretty English tall D. tall English pretty Question 11. ________ a few more minutes, we could have finished the task. A. Unless we had B. If we had had C. If we have D. If we had Question 12. Susan was sad because she wasn’t invited to any social events. She felt __________. A. left out B. turned out C. omitted out D. gone out Question 13. Communities in remote areas are extremely _______ to famine if crops fail. A. defenseless B. helpless C. disappointed D. vulnerable Question 14. The old man to hospital early. I think they did it too late. A. must have taken B. should have taken C. must have been taken D. should have been taken Question 15. _______ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical illusion. A. The Moon B. The Moon which C. When the Moon D. That the Moon Question 16. It’s important that everyone ___________ what to do when there is a fire. A. know B. has known C. knows D. knew Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 17. The notice should be put in the most conspicuous place so that all the students can be wellinformed. A. popular B. suspicious C. easily seen D. beautiful Question 18. "What I've got to say to you now is strictly off the record and most certainly not for publication," said the government official to the reporter. A. beside the point B. not recorded C. not popular D. not yet official Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 19. You will be home and dry in the interview if you have good qualifications and wide experience. A. be unsuccessful B. be successful C. be satisfied D. be unsatisfied
- Question 20. Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court. A. paid in full B. failed to pay C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 21. Tony and Jim is talking about the exam they have just taken. Tony: “ I’ve just passed my exam.” Jim: “ _______________________” A. You’re welcome. B. Well done! C. Good luck! D. How are you getting on? Question 22. John and Laura are discussing how to protect the environment. John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” Laura: “___________ ”. A. Yes, it's an absurd idea B. There's no doubt about it. C. Of course not. You bet D. Well, that's very surprising Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27. Dining Etiquette in Japan: An honored guest sits at the center of the table furthest from the door and begins eating first. Learn to (23) ____ chopsticks – never point them, never pierce food with them, and rest them on the chopsticks – rest when breaking (24) _____ drink or chat. It is good etiquette to try a bit of everything. Dining Etiquette in Turkey: Meals are a (25) ______ affair. Conversations are friendly and loud. The head of the family of honored guest is served first. It is good etiquette to insist the most senior served first (26) ______ of you. Asking for (27) _______ food is a compliment. If taken to a restaurant, Turkish dining etiquette has strict rules that the one who extended the invitation must pay. (Source: Background to Crosscultural Communication studyres.com) Question 23. A. grasp B. use C. handle D. keep Question 24. A. on B. as C. for D. with Question 25. A. society B. socialism C. socialize D. social Question 26. A. instead B. because C. out D. regardless Question 27. A. many B. so many C. the most D. more Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. Before the midnineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cookingandsealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880,
- however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that massproduced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year. Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s. Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare. (Source: http://www.yeuanhvan.com/toeflreading) Question 28. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Causes of food spoilage B. Population movements in the nineteenth century C. Commercial production of ice D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet Question 29. The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to ____________. A. a particular time of year B. a kind of weather C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring Question 30. During the 1860’s, canned food products were __________. A. unavailable in rural areas B. available in limited quantities C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet. Question 31. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use ________. A. before 1860 B. after 1900 C. before 1890 D. after 1920 Question 32. The word” them” in line 13 refers to ________. A. refrigerator cars B. growers C. perishables D. distances. Question 33. The word” fixture” in line 18 is closest in meaning to _________. A. commonplace object B. substance C. luxury item D. mechanical device Question 34. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Drying B. Chemical additives C. Canning D. Cold storage Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions from 35 to 42. An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were
- limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions. Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities. However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm. (Source: http://www.downwindersatrisk.org/air pollution101) Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The economic impact of air pollution. B. How much harm air pollutants can cause. C. What constitutes an air pollutant. D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere. Question 36. The word "adversely" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______. A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably Question 37. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that _______. A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities Question 38. The word "These" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to__________. A. the various chemical reactions B. the pollutants from the developing Earth C. the compounds moved to the water or soil D. the components in biogeochemical cycles Question 39. For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling air pollution? A. They function as part of a purification process. B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants. C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants. D. They have existed since the Earth developed. Question 40. According to the passage, humangenerated air pollution in localized regions _______.
- A. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants Question 41. The word "detectable" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to__________. A. beneficial B. separable C. special D. measurable Question 42. Which of the following is best supported by the passage? A. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants. B. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution. C. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws. D. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 43. The student must have her assessment form fill in by the examiner during the oral exam. A B C D Question 44. A number of wild animals is in danger of extinction. A B C D Question 45. Although a doctor may be able to diagnose a problem perfectly, he still may not be able to A B C find a drug which the patient will respond. D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions: Question 46. He works better when he is pressed for time. A. The less time he has, the better he works. B. The more time he has, the better he works. C. The better he works, the less time he has. D. His work is better when he has much time. Question 47. “If you don’t pay the ransom, we’ll kill your boy” the kidnappers told us. A. The kidnappers pledged to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom. B. The kidnappers ordered to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom. C. The kidnappers threatened to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom. D. The kidnappers promised to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom. Question 48. Look out for those falling rocks. A. Let’s look for falling rocks out. B. Don’t let those falling rock hurt you. C. Look for these falling rocks. D. Look out the window at those falling rocks.
- Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. I put the phone down. The boss rang back right after that. A. I put the phone down when the boss rang back. B. Hardly had I put the phone down than the boss rang back. C. No sooner had I put the phone down when the boss rang back. D. Scarcely had I put the phone down when the boss rang back. Question 50. Everyone expected her to win the tournament. However, she didn’t win. A. Unlike everyone expected, she didn’t win the tournament B. Everyone was unexpected when she won the tournament. C. Contrary to everyone’s expectation, she lost the tournament. D. To everyone’s expectation, she won the tournament. THE END
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