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Đề thi tốt nghiệp THPT năm 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo

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Đề thi tốt nghiệp THPT năm 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo

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Mời các bạn học sinh lớp 12 cùng tham khảo Đề thi tốt nghiệp THPT năm 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo dưới đây làm tài liệu ôn tập hệ thống kiến thức chuẩn bị cho bài thi tốt nghiệp THPT sắp tới. Đề thi đi kèm đáp án giúp các em so sánh kết quả và tự đánh giá được lực học của bản thân, từ đó đặt ra hướng ôn tập phù hợp giúp các em tự tin đạt kết quả cao trong kì thi sắp tới. Chúc các em thi tốt!

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  1. KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2020 BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Bài thi: KHOA HỌC XÃ HỘI ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi thành phần: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề MÃ ĐỀ THI: 422 Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Số báo danh: ............................. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. furniture B. customer C. ambition D. balcony Question 2: A. market B. machine C. hobby D. luggage Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. warms B. starts C. reads D. rings Question 4: A. score B. fold C. phone D. close Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 5: My mother is often……..first person to get up in the family. A. a B. an C. the D. no article Question 6: The city has changed a lot since I last…….it. A. visited B. would visit C. will visit D. visit Question 7: Those boys were excited about the new game in the beginning, but now they have…..it. A. gone off B. look after C. filled in D. got on Question 8: It’s necessary to listen to opinions that are......from ours. A. differ B. differently C. difference D. different Question 9: If I....you, I wouldn’t go out in this weather. A. had been B. am C. will be D. were Question 10: You may not see how important your family is..... A. until you live far from home B. after you had lived far from home C. when you were living far from home D. as soon as you lived far from home Question 11: A fashionista herself, Helena is.......about her clothes, especially when making her appearance in public. A. particular B. feasible C. receptive D. creditable Question 12: You often walk to school,.....? A. won’t you B. didn’t you C. don’t you D. haven’t you Question 13: My daughter sometimes practises......English with her friends after school.
  2. A. to speaking B. to speak C. speaking D. speak Question 14: The football team has waited....the championships for 30 years. A. for B. to C. up D. about Question 15: The local shop deals in many kinds of hair products.....from reasonably priced shampoos rather expensive dyes. A. are ranged B. are ranging C. range D. ranging Question 16: Applications for admission to this university are not processed with a high school...... A. licence B. paper C. diploma D. resume Question 17: Fathers can......a good example to their children by helping wwith the household chores. A. hold B. set C. follow D. raise Question 18: I can’t give chapter and....., but to the best of my knowledge, it’s a line from “Romeo and Juliet” A. verse B. note C. rhyme D. scene Question 19: Polar bears are in danger of going extinct.......climate change. A. because B. despite C. because of D. although Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 20: The beautiful sandy beach with a lot of sunshine and good foods made his holiday complete. A. serious B. normal C. perfect D. terrible Question 21: The candidate was rejected as he could not meet all the requirements for this position. A. satisfy B. arrange C. establish D. produce Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The intenal structure of the ancient palace is complicated like that of a maze. A. narrow B. complex C. simple D. attractive Question 23: Everyone was secretly rehearsing a surprise performance for Alex’s proposal but annoyingly Jim let the cat out of the bag at the last minute. A. disclosed the plan B. concealed the plan C. revised the plan D. abandoned the plan Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 24: Dave is talking to Hanah after their school’s English speaking contest. - Dave: “Congratulations! You’ve given a great performance.” - Hanah: “.........” A. No, don’t worry B. It’s nice of you to say so. C. Me neither D. I’m sorry to hear that Question 25: Gini and Adrian are talking about a book they have read lately.
  3. - Gini: “That wasn’t an interesting book” - Adrian: “......I couldn’t go further than chapter 2” A. No, it was fascinating B. You can say that again C. Yes, it gave me much information D. I think it will get better and better Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: Single-use plastic products are convenient. They are detrimental to the environment. A. Convenient though single-use plastic products are, they are detrimental to the environment. B. It is their detriment to the environment that makes single-use plastic products convenient. C. Were single-use plastic products convenient, they would be detrimental to the environment. D. Not only are single-use plastic products convenient, they are also detrimental to the environment. Question 27: There was unexpected twists in the movie. It was so fascinating. A. If there had been unexpected twists in the movie, it would have been so fascinating. B. But for the unexpected twists in the movie, it wouldn’t have been so fascinating C. Suppose that there was unexpected twists in the movie, it would have been so fascinating. D. Without the unexpected twists in the movie, it wouldn’t have been so fascinating Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: The company is (A) looking for (B) a candidate who (C) is honest, hard-working and responsibility (D). Question 29: Protective (A) gear for firefighters is supposed to be made of inflamable (B) materials so as to eliminate (C) the risk (D) of fire. Question 30: It always take (A) parents a lot of (B) time and patience (C) to bing up their (D) children. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: Peter is more successful than his sister. A. Peter is less successful than his sister. B. Peter is as successful as his sister. C. Peter’s sister is more successful than he is. D. Peter’s sister is not as successful as he is. Question 32: It is compulsory for all the students to hand in their assignments on time. A. All the students needn’t hand in their assignments on time. B. All the students can’t hand in their assignments on time. C. All the students must hand in their assignments on time. D. All the students may hand in their assignments on time. Question 33: “I’m going on a picnic tomorrow” he said. A. He said that I was going on a picnic tomorrow. B. He said that he was going on a picnic tomorrow.
  4. C. He said that I am going on a picnic the following day. D. He said that he was going on a picnic the following day. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38. TEENAGERS AND DIGITAL TECHNOLOGY In many countries, there is a widespread perception that teenager’s lives nowadays are dominated by technology. However, the information (34)........was gathered in a recent study of Australian teenagers’ use of and attitude towards technology such as that this view doesn’t reflect the reality of their everyday existence. The research by academics of the University of Canberra in Australia found that, while most teenagers had ready access to home computers, mobile phones and (35).......electronic devices, they generally spent more time on traditional (36).......such as talking to family and friends, doing homework and enjoying hobbies and sports than on using technology. Accessing social media and playing computer games ranked as low as nineth and tenth respectively among the ten most common after-school activities. Fifteen-year-old Laura Edmonds is one of the teenagers surveys. She admits to being very (37).........to her smartphone and makes full use of various apps, (38).........if she needs to unwind after a hard day at school, she tends to “hang out with my friends, listen to music or chat with my mum and dad.” Question 34: A. where B. which C. when D. who Question 35: A. one B. other C. every D. another Question 36: A. pursuits B. operations C. incidents D. events Question 37: A. conformed B. enclosed C. attached D. related Question 38: A. till B. nor C. but D. Like Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 39 to 43. More and more young people are choosing to take a gap year between finishing school and starting university. Alternatively, they may decide to take a gap year between graduating from university and starting a career feeling the need for some time out before joining the rat race. Most students see the time as an opportunity to travel. The idea of travelling to as many foreign places as possible appeals greatly. A large percentage of gap-year students have wealthy parents who can easily subsidze their travel. Others have to save up before they go or look for some forms of employment while travelling. For example, they may works on local farms or in local hotels. By doing so, they not only earn some money, but they are likely to meet local people and acquire some understanding of their culture. There are some students who choose to work for the whole of their gap year. A number may decide to get work experience, either at home or abroad in an area which they hope to make their career, such as medicine or computers. A large proportion of students are now choosing to work with a charity which arranges voluntary work in various parts of the world. The project provides hands-on experience of a very varied nature, from teaching to helping build roads or dams. The gap year is not just an adventure. Young people can benefit greatly from encountering new varied experiences and from communication with a wide range of people. Perhaps most important, gap-year students have to learn to stand on their own two feet. Question 39: What could be the best title of the passage? A. Studying Overseas B. Taking Time Out C. Working for Life D. Contributing to the Community Question 40: The word “subsidize” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by.......
  5. A. pay for B. work for C. apply for D. ask for Question 41: The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers t.......... A. gap-year students B. local farms C. local people D. local hotels Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE? A. Students can take a gap year only before starting university. B. The number of students take a gap year between high school and university is falling C. Most students consider a gap year as a chance to travel D. None of the students choose to work for the whole of their gap year to get experience Question 43: According to the passage, which is perhaps the most benefit of the students’ taking a gap year? A. They receive partical training for their future careers B. They learn how to become independent C. They earn money to support their further studies D. They have an opportunity to meet local people Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 44 to 50. “I have not paid a single electricity bill since the year 1970” says Richard Perez with noticable glee. He can afford to be smug. He lives “ off-grid” – unconnected to the power grid and the water, gas and sewerage supplies that most people in the world rely on. He ganerate his own electricity, sources his own water and deals with his own waste disposal – and he prefers in that way. “There are times when the grid blacks out” he says. “I really like the security of having my own electricity company.” Perez is not alone. Once the preserve of mavericks, hippies and survivalists, there are now approximately 200,000 off-grid households in the United States of America, a figure that Perez says has been increasing by a third every year for the past decade. For all of the people who live off-grid, self-sufficency means guilt-free energy consumption and peace of mind. “It feels brilliant to make use of clean, free energy that is not from fossil fuels” says Suzanne Galant, a writer who lives off-grid in a rural area in Wales. “And if something goes wrong, we can fix it ourself”. Now even urbanites are seeing the appeal of generating some if not all of their own power needs. So is energy freedom an eco pipe-dream or the untimate good life? Well, there is only one wy to find out: begin to explore the possibilities of solar, wind or hydro-power. But unless you live on a sunny, south-facing hillsidewith access to a nearby river or stream, that might prove prohibitively expensive! There is no doubt that being off-grid has its problems, and it is not always the cheapest way to get the energy you need. Even so, pioneers like Perez have proved that it can be done, and without giving up a 21st century lifestyle: “I have got five personal computers, two laser scanners, two fridge-freezer, a microwave, a covection oven, vacuum cleaners –you name it” says Perez. There is an external beam antenna on the roof for the phone and a satellite dish for an Internet connection. I have got 70 kWh in batteries that could last me five days. I have too much electricity”. Too much electricity and no more bills. That has got to be worth aiming for. Question 44: Which is the best serves as the title for the passage? A. Unplugging from the Grid B. No water, no life! C. A Day in the Life of an “Off-Grid”
  6. D. Living without Electricity Question 45: The phrase “blacks out” in paragraph 1 mostly means............ A. fails to work B. is able to run C. has no functions D. serves many purposes Question 46: According to paragraph 1, Perez has managed to....... A. save a lot of money with his own company B. stay independent of certain public utilities C. provide energy for people in his neighbourhood D. pay off his electricity bills since 1970 Question 47: The word “pipe-dream” in paragraph 2 mostly means............ A. a promissing vision B. a terrible situation C. an impractical hope D. a real nightmare Question 48: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to............. A. being a pioneer B. getting the energy C. being off-grid D. giving up a 21st century lifestyle Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage? A. The number of “off-gridders” in the US is said to have risen by 33% over the past ten years B. Some city dwellers have shown an interest in producing their own electricity C. “Off-gridders” enjoy not doing harm to the environment D. People opting for off-grid living used to be considered quite eccentric Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Adopting an off-grid lifestyle is only suitable for low-income people B. Leading a 21st century lifestyle means consuming a great deal of electricity C. Many “off-gridders” have made a fortune selling thier own electricity D. Most people living in temperate regions are against the idea of living off-grid ----------The End----------
  7. ĐÁP ÁN 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C B B A C A A D D A 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A C C A D C B A C C 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A C B B B A B D B A 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 D C D B B A C C B A 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 C C B A A B C C A B
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