Đề thi chứng chỉ B năm 2008 đề 1 có key

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CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 1 CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 2 Điểm Số phách : PAPER ONE : READING COMPREHENSION B ( 60 minutes ) SECTION A : In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1-20 for the word or phrase you choose. (20 points) 1. The telephone was invented…………….Alexander Bell. A. with B. on C. by D. from 2. You must be…………….when doing this test. A. carefully B. care C. careful D. careless 3. We want…………….my English. A. to improve B. improving C. improved D. improve 4. We feel very…………….today. A. happy B. happiness C. happily D. happen 5. Where…………….you go if you have a car ? A. would B. have C. will D. did 6. He is the man…………….helped me yesterday. A. which B. who C. whom D. whose 7. The car…………….she has just bought is very modern. A. which B. who C. whom D. whose 8. I’m very…………….that I will go to Dalat tomorrow. A. excite B. excited C. excitedly D. exciting 9. He…………….to write to me once a week but he doesn’t write any more. A. use B. uses C. used D. using 10. These clothes need…………….immediately. A. washed B. be washed C. to wash D washing 11. Are you proud…………….your country and its traditions ? A. about B. on C. of D. for 12. One of my friends said she…………….learning English with her teacher. A. like B. has liked C. liked D. will like 13. She asked me……………. A. where did I come from ? B. where I came from ? C. where did I come from . D. where I came from. 14. The woman often writes poems or stories, …………….? A. does she B. doesn’t she C. does he D. doesn’t he 15. She remembered…………….the gas before going out. A. turning on B. turning off C. burning on D. burning 16. We haven’t met since we……………. A. left school B. leave C. have left D. had left 17. What is the…………….of your country ? - About 80 million people. A. addition B. population C. option D. choice 18. …………….do you prefer, country life or city life ?
A. What B. Where C. How D. Which 19. There were…………….flowers that I couldn’t decide what to buy. A. so many B. so few C. so little D. so much 20. She was…………….tired that she couldn’t do anything at all. A. such B. so C. very D. too SECTION B : In this section you will find after the reading passage a number of questions of unfinished statements about the passage , each with four suggested answers or ways of finishing . You must choose the one which you think fits best (10 points) Sleep is very important to human beings. An average person spends 220,000 hours of his life sleeping. Until about 30 years ago, no one knew much about sleep, although doctors and scientists have done research in sleep laboratories, they have learnt a great deal by studying people as they are sleeping, but there is still much that they don’t understand. Sleeping is a biological need, but your brain never really sleeps. It is never actually blank. The things that were on your mind during the day are still there at night. They appear as dreams which people have discussed for years. Sometimes people believed that dreams had magical powers or that they could tell the future. You may have sweet dreams or nightmares. Sleep is very important to humans. We spend one third of our life sleeping, so we need to understand everything we can about sleep. 21. How long does an average person sleep during his life time ? A. 220,000 hours B. a third of our life C. 30 years D. A and B are correct 22. Doctors and scientists……………. A. don’t know anything about sleep. B. have learnt much about sleep C. think there is still things that they don’t understand. D. B and C are correct 23. Sleeping is a…………..need. A. human B. physical C. psychological D. biological 24. When we sleep, …………….. A. our brain sleeps too. B. our brain still works. C. our brain doesn’t work any more. D. our brain is quite blank 25. Dreams are things…………….. A. that appear when we sleep. B. that never appear when we sleep C. that were on our mind during the day D. that are called nightmares PAPER TWO : USE OF ENGLISH ( 60 minutes ) SECTION A : PASSAGE FOR GAP-FILL In this section you must find a word to complete the numbered blanks in the passage below. Use only ONE word for each blank. (15 points ) I have several good friends but I suppose that my best friend is Ellen. We have been friends with each other (26)……………we were very young because she used (27) ……………live next door to me. We have always been in the same (28) ……………at school although she has always been much cleverer (29) ……………me. Anyway, I have always (30) …………… better at sport than she is. I always beat her at tennis and she does (31) ……………like that. In fact, she hates losing at anything and gets (32) ……………annoyed if she does. That’s the thing that I do not like (33)……………her. Otherwise, she has a great sense of humour and she is always making me (34) ……………We get on very well together, although sometimes we have had arguments usually about silly little things . Ellen and her family moved to another district last year (35) ……………I still see her a lot.
SECTION B : SENTENCE BUILDING Make all changes and additions necessary to produce, from the following sets of words and phrases, sentences which together make a complete letter. (10 points) Dear Sir, 36. Three months ago/ I / buy / new washing machine / your shop. ………………………………………………………………………. 37. Machine / give me / good service / since / I / buy / until yesterday. ………………………………………………………………………. 38. I/ sorry / tell you / something / go wrong / it / now. ………………………………………………………………………. 39. There / be / strange noise / come / machine/ and it / not work. ………………………………………………………………………. 40. You / please / send / engineer / look it ? ………………………………………………………………………. 41. I / be / home / mornings / all / week / until one p.m. ………………………………………………………………………. 42. I / glad / you / come / before / end / week. ………………………………………………………………………. 43. Thank/ very much. ………………………………………………………………………. Yours sincerely, SECTION C : SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5 points) 44. They have worked in that factory since 2001. They started………………………………………….. 45. “ Who puts the salt in my cup of coffee ?” asked Peter. Peter asked…………………………………………… 46. She enjoys going swimming. She is interested in…………………………………… 47. She couldn’t join us because she was busy. She was busy, so …………………………………… 58. She wants them to sing a song. She suggests they……………………………………. COMPOSITION : (10 points ) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………….………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………….……………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………….…………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………….…………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 1 CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 2 Điểm Số phách : PAPER THREE :LISTENING COMPREHENSION B (30 minutes) PART I. Listen and fill in the missing information. ( 10 points ) Tet or the Lunar new year holiday is the (1)……………important (2) ……………in Vietnam. Tet is a joyful festival (3) ……………occurs in (4) ……………January or early February. It is a time (5) ……………for families to clean and decorate their houses, wear new (6) ……………and enjoy special (7) …………… such as sticky rice (8) ……………Family members (9) ……………live apart try to be together (10) ……………Tet. PART II. Listen and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F) ( 10 points ) T F 1. ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ……… ………
KEYS TO TEST LEVEL B (INTERMIDIATE ) PAPER ONE : READING COMPREHENSION SECTION A 1. B 6. B 11. D 16.A 2. B 7. A 12. D 17. D 3. A 8. D 13. C 18. D 4. A 9. B 14. A 19. A 5. D 10.D 15. A 20. A 1 mark for each correct answer . Total : 20 SECTION B 21. D 22. A 23. D 24 C 25. B 2 marks for each correct answer. Total : 10 Total marks for paper one : 30 PAPER TWO :USE OF ENGLISH SECTION A 26. city 27. very 28. live 29. of 30. has 31. are 32. and 33. for 34. food 35. the 1.5 marks for each correct word. Total : 15 SECTION B 36. I arrived in Hanoi at 5 o’clock yesterday morning. 37. I am staying at a nice hotel. 38. It is not far from the city centre. 39. I have already seen Uncle Ho’s Mausoleum and some places of interest here. 40. Tomorrow I’m going on a trip to Ha Long bay. 41. I have never been there before. 42. I’m so excited about the trip that I cannot sleep. 43. I’ll be home on Sunday, Nov 10th. 44. I’ll tell you more about the trip when I’m in Hue. 45. I hope you are both well. 1 mark for each correct sentence. Total : 10 SECTION C 46. The date of the meeting will have to be changed again. 47. We enjoy lying on the beach all day. 48. Would you like to go for a walk ? 49. “ What’s your name ?” she asked. 49. She asked me what my name was. 50. I wish Mike were here. 1 mark for each correct sentence. Total : 5 COMPOSITION : 10 marks Total marks for paper two : 40 PAPER THREE : LISTENING COMPREHENSION PART 1 : 1. center 2. peaceful 3. vegetables 4. famous 5. fresh 6.feel 7.carpet 8.villagers 9.walk 10. flowers 1 mark for each correct answer. Total : 10 PART 2 : 1. T 2.F 3. F 4. T 5. T 6. T 7. F 8. F 9. F 10. T 1 mark for each correct answer. Total : 10 Total mark for paper three : 20 PAPER 4 : INTERVIEW : 10 marks
Total marks for the Test : 100