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Chủ đề:
Nội dung Text: Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2023-2024 - Trường THPT Quang Trung, Quảng Nam
- SỞ GDĐT TỈNH QUẢNG NAM ĐỀ THI GIỮA HỌC KỲ I – NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024
TRƯỜNG THPT QUANG TRUNG MÔN TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10
Thời gian làm bài : 60 Phút
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề có 3 trang)
Họ tên : ............................................................... Số báo danh : ................ Mã đề 102
I. LISTENING: (2.0 pts)
PART 1: For questions 1-4, listen to an interview about preparations for an International Youth Music
Festival and fill in the gaps below. You will hear the conversation twice.
Jack and his collegues are still (1) ____________ up the main stage to prepare for the festival.
Last year, the festival was (2) ____________ of charge.
This year, the tickets are sold in (3) ____________.
The festival is moved to the (4) ____________.
PART 2: For questions 5-8, listen to the recording again and mark the best option A, B, C or D for the
following questions. You will hear the conversation twice.
Question 5. The second International Youth Music Festival opens on ____________.
A. Monday B. Saturday C. Sunday D. Tuesday
Question 6. Last year the festival was ____________.
A. on the beach B. in the mountain C. at the hotel D. at the restaurant
Question 7. Jack is one of the festival organisers so he is very ____________.
A. busy B. fun C. free D.tired
Question 8. What is not mentioned in the International Youth Music Festival this year?
A. bands B. sponsors C. stage D. tickets
II. READING: (2 pts)
PART 1: Read the following passage carefully and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to fit each numbered
blank (from 9 to 12).
Gilberto Gil is a Brazilian singer and guitarist, and one of his country's most talented songwriters.
As a young (9) ____________in the 1950s, he was influenced by the style of Joao Gilberto, but he didn't
release his first album, Louvacao, until 1967. He travelled in the 1970s, recorded an album in English (10)
____________in 1980, introduced reggae to Brazil when he released his version of Bob Marley's song, 'No
woman, no cry.’ He has played (11) ____________many musicians, while continuing his career as a solo
artist. In all he has produced over 40 albums. His music appeals to people because of its rhythms and (12)
____________but people also admire him for his work in politics and for social causes.
Question 9. A. musician B. music C. musical D musically
Question 10. A. so B. and C. but D. or
Question 11. A. for B. with C. by D. to
Question 12. A. songs B. music C. melodies D. sound
PART 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions. (from 13 to 16).
The most obvious advantage of living green is that it helps reduce environmental pollution. This is
done by practising the 3Rs. The first R means choosing products very carefully to reduce waste as much as
possible. Reusing involves the repeated use of items. The third R is about separating materials that can be
recycled and later used for a new purpose.
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- There are also economic benefits to living green. Reducing the use of energy and water can help
save money on household bills. Furthermore, reusing products and materials is another way to make
saving. It helps save on production costs since creating new products wastes materials and is expensive.
Recycled products also last longer than new ones, making them a better and more eco-friendly option.
Lastly, going green offers health benefits. It reduces air pollutants by making the air we breathe
cleaner and healthier. This means fewer diseases and doctor's appointments. Another way to improve your
health is to purchase organic foods and green products for your household. They don't use harmful
chemicals that can lead to health issues. In turn, you are also supporting responsible farming methods that
protect the environment.
Question 13. What is the main idea of the text?
A. Difficulties in adopting a green lifestyle. B. The pros of a green lifestyle.
C. Trends in green living. D. The cons of a green lifestyle.
Question 14. According to the text, how can we practise the 3Rs?
A. By reducing waste as much as possible, reusing and recycling items.
B. By reducing waste as much as possible, and creating new products.
C. By reducing waste as much as possible.
D. By reusing and recycling items.
Question 15. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. creating new products B. making savings
C. reusing products D. reducing the use of energy and water
Question 16. The word “purchase” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to____________.
A. exchange B. sell C. eat D. buy
III. LANGUAGE: (3.5pts)
PART 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 17. A. enjoy B. adopt C. strengthen D. perform
Question 18. A. manner B. resource C. laundry D. single
PART 2: Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 19. Buy products that are grown using more ____________and organic methods!
A. nature B. natural C. naturally D. naturist
Question 20. Doing chores together helps ____________family bonds.
A. ruin B. destroy C. break D. strengthen
Question 21. It is said that it takes many years for plastic waste to ____________into small pieces.
A. set up B. break down C. pick up D. throw away
Question 22. She agreed ____________to the circus with Ann.
A. going B. go C. went D. to go
Question 23. Parents should encourage their children to ____________responsibility for doing household
chores in the family.
A. make B. do C. take D. have
Question 24. Judges travel all round America in search ____________the best singers.
A. in B. about C. to D. of
Question 25. I think our team ____________ the competition.
A. will win B. is going to win C. wins D. is winning
Question 26. Be quiet! My younger brother ____________ for his exam.
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- A. study B. studies C. will study D. is studying
Question 27. I tried my best in the final test, ____________the result was not as good as I expected.
A. nor B. but C. so D. for
Question 28. Modern household ____________made housework much easier.
A. chores B. routine C. appliances D. groceries
Question 29. A green lifestyle ____________by more and more people.
A. is adopting B. is adopted C. adopts D. will adopt
Question 30. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word in the following question.
Some contestants are truly talented and make relentless efforts.
A. hard-working B. incompetent C. gifted D. generous
IV. WRITING: (2,5pts)
PART 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction (0,5 pt).
Question 31. Dad promised taking us to the circus on Sunday.
A. to B. the C. taking D. on
Question 32. My father get up early to prepare breakfast for the whole family every day.
A. get B. to prepare C. for D. whole
PART 2: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. (1pt)
Question 33. The Youth Union will organise a campaign to protect the environment.
A campaign …………………………………………………….………….
Question 34. Her parents don’t allow her to watch such TV shows.
Her parents don’t let …………………………………………………….
Question 35. Her dinner is often at 7 p.m.
She often …………………………………………………….…………….
Question 36. They intend to get married next year.
They are going …………………………………………………….……….
PART 3: In about 80 - 100 words, write a paragraph about suggestions for improving the environment
in your school, following the guidelines below (1pt)
- Cleaning up regularly (For example: organizing clean-up activities at weekends)
=> This keeps the environment clean and safe for everyone.
- Planting more trees (For example: encouraging students to plant trees or flowers in the school)
=> This reduces CO2 and makes the air clean.
- Setting up more rubbish bins (For example: putting more rubbish bins in front of the school gate)
=> This makes the waste collection easier.
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