Đề thi Olympic và đáp án: Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 (Năm học 2013 - 2014)

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Nhằm giúp các bạn có thêm tài liệu tham khảo trong quá trình học tập và ôn thi môn Tiếng Anh, mời các bạn cùng tham khảo đề thi Olympic môn "Tiếng Anh lớp 7" năm học 2013 - 2014 dưới đây. Đề thi có hướng dẫn lời giải giúp các bạn củng cố lại kiến thức đã học và làm quen với dạng đề thi.

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi Olympic và đáp án: Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 (Năm học 2013 - 2014)

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC ANH LỚP 7. HUYỆN THANH OAI 8 Năm học: 2013 – 2014. Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Chú ý: Bộ đề thi này gồm có 05 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 05. Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì, kể cả từ điển. Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số Số phách 1: (Do Chủ tịch hội Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………... đồng chấm thi ghi) Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số ………………….. 2: PART ONE : LISTENING (10 0,2= 2pts). Listen and fill in the blanks the words you hear The Robinsons had a great .................. in Nha Trang. Unfortunately, the holiday soon ended and it was time to return home. They took a.................. back to Ha Noi. Liz was excited as the bus drove through the................... .She saw rice paddies for the .................. time. Everything looked calm and peaceful. At................... o’clock, the bus stopped at a .................. roadside restaurant for ...................... minutes. Mr Robinson was ........................., so Mrs Robinson ..................some peanuts and an ice cream for Liz. The bus arrived in Ha Noi at about ................... p.m. PART TWO: PHONETICS. (10 x 0,2 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 11 A. scout B. receive C. score D. comics . 12 A. looked B. walked C. washed D. wanted . 13 A. uniform B. cucumber C. public D. during . 14 A. sugar B. serious C. symptom D. second 1
. 15 A. gloves B. improve C. coveralls D. stomach . II/ Choose the word that has the strees patern differently from the others (5 x 0,2 = 1.0 pt) 16. A. informal B. provide C. problem D. supply 17. A. employment B. different C. president D. evidence 18. A. engineer B. national C. scientist D. figure 19. A. intelligent B. interest C. dependent D. computer 20. A.material B.oceanic C. aquarium D.appointment PART THREE. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0,2=2,0 pts) 21. Lan learns ………………..to use the computer. A. what B. how C. when D. why 22. When I was a boy, I………………tea to coffee. A. prefer B. prefered C. preferred D. drank 23.My parents ………..me to see HO CHI MINH’s Mausoluem last summer. A. led B. brought C. directed D. took 24. What is tall building over there ?............................. A. Yes,it’s tall. B. No, it is not tall. C. Yes, it’s the new library. D. It’s a new library. 25. Who is the……………boy in your classs? A. tall B. taller C. taller D. tallest 26. Mai cycles……………….……. She is a very……………….…… cyclist A. safe/ safely B. safely/ safe C. safety/ safe D. safe/ safeness 27. It often takes me two hours ……………….…… my homework every day. A. to do B. do C. doing D. did 28. When ……………….you born? A. were B.was C. are D. is 29. She added a little salt to the soup so it tasted………….. A. deliciously B. well C. good D. tasteful 30. Hoa tried ……………..that new dress but it didn’t fit. 2
A.on B.at C. with D. out II: Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (10 x 0,2= 2.0 pts) 31. English is an.....................................and important subject. (INTEREST) 32. In electronics they learn to repair......................... appliances. (HOUSE) 33. The most popular............................ at recess is talking. (ACT) 34. Hoa is having a ............................. check-up. (MEDICINE) 35. The nurse wanted to know Nga’s height and ................. (WEIGH) 36. Hoa is the …….......….. student in her school. ( GOOD ) 37. I’d like a nice.........................orange. ( JUICE) 38. Edison’s most famous............................was the electronic bulb. ( INVENT) 39. This dictionary is very ................ for you to learn English. (USE) 40. I have ...................... time to play than my friends. (LITTLE) III. Complete the following sentences with the correct from of the verb in the brackets.(5 x 0,2=1pt) 41. No one enjoy (go) ……..…….to hospital. 42. What you (do)…….………at the moment? - I (watch) ………….….T.V. 43. My sister gets used to (go)…………out on saturday nights. 44. A new school (build) ………………near our school now. 45. You (be) …………..angry if he refuses to help you? IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0,2=1.0 pt) 46. I’m not very fond …………….. detective stories. 47. Margarine is different ………….. butter. 48. Many people take part ………….. jogging every morning. 49. They study and listen to music …………… the same time. 50. We’d like a walk instead ……………..riding a bike. PART FOUR: READING ( 0,2 x 25 = 5,0 pts) 3
I. Read the passage and choose the best option by circling A, B, C or D. (0,2 x 10 = 2,0pts) James has two jobs. (51)………….Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday he works in a (52)……….where he helps to look after children who (53)………..ill. He goes to the hospital (54)………bus. He starts (55)………at ten o’clock and works until quarter (56)……….five. He (57)………at home on Thursday and Friday, he writes stories. In (58) ……… evening, one of his roommates cooks the meal. After dinner, they (59)…………at the newspapers to see what’s on TV or they (60) …………about the day. 51. A. At B. In C. On D. Up 52. A. school B. hospital C. office D. factory 53. A. am B. is C. are D. be 54. A. in B. on C. under D. by 55. A. job B. day C. hand D. work 56. A. to B. at C. by D. about 57. A. work B. works C. working D. to work 58. A. a B. an C. O D. the 59. A. see B. watch C. look D. meet 60. A. sing B. talk C. hear D. listen II/. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word (10 0,2=2,0 pts) Everybody knows that the hamburger is a very………(61) America food. However, people in the United States learned to make hamburgers…………(62) Germans. The Germans got the idea from Russia. In the thirteenth century the Tartar people from Central Asia………(63) to Russia and parts of Europe. They………(64) something like hamburger meat,but it was raw. This raw meat was beef, lamb, goat meat or horsemeat. Soon the Russians started to eat raw meat,………(65) Germans from Hamburg and other northern cities learned to eat this food from the Russians………… (66), they added salt, pepper, a raw egg, and then cooked it. Between 1830 and 1900 thousands………(67) Germans went to live in the United States. They took the hamburger with………… (68). People called it hamburger steak. In 1940 at the World’s Fair in St. Loui ( a city on the Mississippi River ) a man from Texas sold hamburger steak in roll. Then people could eat it …………(69) their hands, like a sandwich. This was the first real hamburger…………(70) the hamburger we eat today. 61 62 63 64 65 4
66 67 68 69 70 III. Read the passage and fill the suitable word in the blank: (10 x 0,2 = 2,0 pts) Americans like sport very much. One of the (71).................. popular kinds of sports in Autumn is football. All the high schools(72)........... …..universities have their own teams. In winter the most popular kind of sports (73)................... basketball. There is usually a match every evening in one school gymnasium or another. In some parts of the United States there is a lot of 74).............. and ice. Many people like skiing and skating. In the other two (75)................., millions of Americans enjoy baseball. The schools have their games in (76)..................., but the most important professional games are played during summer. Many people listen to the games (77) ............... the radio, watch them on television or read about them (78) .............. the newspapers. Some also play tennis or golf and others (79) ……....... fishing. They like to stay outdoors (80)................it is warm during the months of June, July and August. PART FIVE: WRITING (5pts) I. Mistake correction (5 x 0,2= 1.0 pt) 81. The public library in the city has thousand of good books. 82. What does the new student like ? -oh, she is tall and beautiful. 83. Ba is in the class 7A and he enjoys the school very much. 84. My father always has a lot of houseworks to do. 85. There is a ten-floors building in front of my house. Answer: 81. -> 82. -> 83. -> 84. -> 85. -> II. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in brackets so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Do not change the words given in any way: (5 0,4=2,0 pts) 86. Linh is eleven years old. Mai is twelve years old Mai is…………………………………………………………..... 87. Going to the cinema is better than reading books at home. I prefer…………………………………………………… 5
88. Hong Son is a very good soccer player. Hong Son plays…………………………………………………… 89. Who is the owner of this book ?  Who does……………………………………………………… 90. Mount Everest is the hihgest mountain in the world. No mountain……………………………………………………… III. Write a composition about 100 words about “What should you do to be healthy?”(2pts) (don’t show your name, your school or your village) ...................................................................................................... ........... .......................................................................................... .......................................................................................... .......................................................................................... .......................................................................................... .......................................................................................... .......................................................................................... ............................................................ ...................................................................................................... .......... .......................................................................................... .......................................................................................... .......................................................................................... .......................................................................................... .......................................................................................... .......................................................................................... .................................................. HẾT ĐÁP ÁN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7 Năm học: 2013 – 2014 Môn: Tiếng Anh PART ONE(10 0,2 = 2.0 pts) PART ONE : Listening(0,2 x 10 = 2.0 pts ) The Robinsons had a great holiday in Nha Trang. Unfortunately, the holiday soon ended and it was time to return home. They took a bus back to Ha Noi. Liz was excited as the bus drove through the countryside. She saw rice paddies for the first 6
time. Everything looked calm and peaceful. At four o’clock, the bus stopped at a small roadside restaurant for ten minutes. Mr.Robinson was asleep, so Mrs.Robinson bough some peanuts and an ice cream for Liz. The bus arrived in Ha Noi at about seven p.m PART TWO: PHONETICS. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 11 B. receive . 12 D. wanted . 13 C. public . 14 A. sugar . 15 B. improve . II/(0.2X5=1.0) 16.C 17.A 18.A 19.B 20.B III. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0,2=2,0 pts) 21 – 22- 23 – 24 – 25 – B. how C. preferred D. took D.It’s a new D.tallest library. 26 – 27 – 28 – 29 – 30 - B.safely / safe A.to do A. were C. good A.on II: Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 31.interesting 36.best 32.household 37. juicy 33.activity 38.invention 34.medical 39.useful 35.weight 40.less III. Complete the following sentences with the correct from of the verb in the brackets.(0,2 x 5 =1pt) 41.going 7
42.are …..doing, am watching 43.going 44.is being built 45.Will...be IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt) 46. of 47. from 48. in 49. at 50. of PART FOUR: READING ( 0,2 x 25 = 5,0) I. Read the passage and choose the best option by circling A, B, C or D (0,2 x 10 = 2,0pts) 51. C 52. B 53. C 54. D 55. D 56. A 57. B 58. D 59. C 60. B II/. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word(10 0,2=2,0 pts) 61. popular 63. moved 65. too 67. of 69. with 62. from 64. ate 66. However 68. them 70. like c. Read the passage then fill the suitable word in the blank: (10 x 0,2 = 2,0pts) 71. most 72. and 73.is 74. snow 75. seasons 76. spring 77.on 78. in / on 79. go 80. because PART FIVE: WRITING I. Mistake correction (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 81. thousand -> thousands 82. does -> is 83. the school -> school 84. houseworks -> housework 85. ten - floors -> ten - floor II. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in brakets so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Do not change the word given in any way: (5 0,4=2,0 pts) 86. Mai is older/ elder than Mai. 87. I prefer going to the cinema to reading book at home. 88. Hong Son plays soccer very well. 89. Who does this book belong to?.\ 8
90. No mountain in the world is higger than Mount Everest. III.Write a composition about 100 words about “What should you do to be healthy?”(2pts) (don’t show your name, your school or your village) The essay must have at least three ideas below. 1.Mở bài: nêu được chr đề của bài viết.(được 0,5 điểm) 2. Thân bài: Nêu được một số việc mà người viết làm để tốt cho sức khỏe như: có chế độ ăn uống cân đối, ăn nhiều rau và trái cây, ăn một lượng vừa phải đường và đồ ăn béo, cần tập thể dục, … ) 4. Kết luận: Tóm tắt lại các ý đã trình bày ở hai phần 9