Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường THCS Trần Hưng Đạo, Kon Tum (Hệ 10 năm)
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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường THCS Trần Hưng Đạo, Kon Tum (Hệ 10 năm)
- PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TP KON TUM TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ 2 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 8 (HỆ 10 NĂM) – THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 PHÚT Mức độ nhận thức Tổng TT Kĩ năng Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao Thời gian Thời Thời Thời gian Thời gian Tỉ lệ (phút) Tỉ lệ gian Tỉ lệ gian Tỉ lệ (phút) Tỉ lệ (%)/câu (phút) (%)/câu (%)/câu (phút) (%)/câu (phút) (%)/câu 1 Listening 12,5 % 3 7,5 % 4 20 % 7 5 câu 3 câu 8 câu 2 Language 12,5% 6 2,5 % 2 5% 4 20 % 12 5 câu 1 câu 2 câu 8 câu 3 Reading 10 % 6 5% 3 5% 4 20 % 13 4 câu 2 câu 2 câu 8 câu 4 Writing 10 % 6 10 % 7 20 % 13 4 câu 4 câu 8 câu Total (Written 35 % 15 25 % 15 20% 15 80 % 45 Test) 14 câu 10 câu 8 câu 32 câu (28 TN + 4 TL) 5 Speaking 5% 4 5% 4 10 % 7 20 % 15 Tổng 40 % 19 30 % 19 20 % 15 10 % 7 100% 60 Tỉ lệ (%) 40 30 20 10 Tỉ lệ chung 70 30 (%)
- BẢNG ĐẶC TẢ KỸ THUẬT ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ 2 - LỚP 8 TT Kĩ năng Đơn vị kiến thức/ kỹ Mức độ kiến thức, kỹ Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức Tổng năng năng cần kiểm tra đánh Nhận biết Thông Vận dụng Vận dụng giá hiểu cao TN TL TN TL TN TL T TL TN TL N I Listening 1. T/F Nhận biết: - Nghe một đoạn hội thoại / - Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết độc thoại khoảng 1.5 phút về: (khoảng 140 – 160 từ) về + số lượng liên quan đến các chủ đề: + thời gian 3 3 Unit 9 + ngữ cảnh - Học sinh trả lời câu hỏi + sự kiện bằng cách chọn phương án + nơi chốn đúng /sai + tên người / địa danh Thông hiểu: - Hiểu được nội dung chính của đoạn độc thoại / hội 1 1 thoại để chọn câu trả lời đúng sai (True / False). Vận dụng: - Từ nội dung của bài đưa ra nhận định đánh giá suy ra được nội dung. - Sử dụng được các chi tiết đúng loại trừ các chi tiết sai để chọn đáp án. 2. Gap filling/MCQs Nhận biết: - Nghe một đoạn hội thoại - Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết /độc thoại (khoảng 140 – về: vị trí, địa điểm, thời 2 2 160 từ) 1.5 phút liên quan gian… đến các chủ đề:Unit 10 Thông hiểu: - Hiểu được nội dung chính 2 2 của đoạn đọc thoại / hội
- thoại về chủ đề để điền thông tin còn thiếu vào chỗ trống (gap-filling) hoặc/và chọn thông tin đúng để trả lời câu hỏi (MCQs). Vận dụng: Trắc nghiệm khách quan 4 đáp án/ điền từ vào chỗ trống - Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để chọn đáp án đúng. (Lưu ý: 4 lựa chọn các phương án nhiễu cần khác biệt rõ ràng với đáp án đúng về âm, số...) II Language 1. Phonology Nhận biết: - Sounds /aɪ/ and /ɪ/ Nhận biết sự khác nhau của - Stress in two and three- âm /ai/ ,/i/ và trọng âm syllable words thông qua các từ vựng theo 2 2 chủ đề đã học. + Trọng âm của các từ có 2, 3 âm tiết thông qua các từ vựng quen thuộc. Thông hiểu: Kiểm tra tích hợp ở nội dung nghe Vận dụng: Kiểm tra tích hợp ở nội dung nói 2. Vocabulary Nhận biết: Dạng câu hỏi MCQs - Từ / cụm từ trong sách 1 1 Từ vựng đã học theo chủ giáo khoa. đề:( unit 7,12): reality, the following year Thông hiểu: từ trái nghĩa, đồng nghĩa: - Hiểu và phân biệt được các authentic, wonderful từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học. 1 1 - Nắm được mối liên kết và kết hợp từ trong bối cảnh và ngữ cảnh tương ứng.
- Vận dụng: - Cấu tạo từ, sử dụng từ phù hợp với văn cảnh (danh từ, 2 2 tính từ, động từ, trạng từ…); từ đồng nghĩa, trái nghĩa 3. Grammar: Nhận biết: - preposition; simple - Present continuous 2 2 present tense (unit 8,9) - Possessive pronouns Thông hiểu: - Biết cách sử dụng câu liên từ trong ngữ cảnh. - Biết cách sử dụng câu có đại từ sở hữu. Vận dụng: - Vận dụng những điểm ngữ pháp đã học vào bài viết / nói / nghe / đọc. III Reading 1. Cloze test Nhận biết: Hiểu được bài đọc có độ dài Nhận ra được các thành tố 3 3 khoảng 150-180 từ về chủ ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt điểm unit 10 và chọn đáp án văn bản đúng Thông hiểu: - Nghĩa của từ trong ngữ cảnh phù hợp. - Loại từ Vận dụng: - Phân tích mối liên kết giữa các câu trong văn bản 1 1 để chọn liên từ phù hợp. (bcause) 2. Reading Nhận biết: comprehension - Thông tin chi tiết về địa Hiểu được nội dung chính điểm, thời gian, cách 1 1 và nội dung chi tiết đoạn thức… văn bản có độ dài khoảng
- 150-180 từ, xoay quanh các Thông hiểu: chủ điểm có trong chương - Hiểu ý chính của bài đọc trình (unit 12) (tiêu đề, từ và chọn câu trả lời phù hợp. quy chiếu, từ đồng nghĩa, - Hiểu được nghĩa tham 2 2 thông tin chi tiết có trong chiếu. bài) - Loại trừ các chi tiết để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp. - Từ đồng nghĩa Vận dụng: - Đoán nghĩa của từ trong 1 1 văn cảnh. - Hiểu ngụ ý tác giả. Vận dụng cao - Thể hiện quan điểm cá nhân về nội dung bài đọc. (Tích hợp vào kiểm tra kỹ năng viết) IV Writing 1. Sentence Thông hiểu: transformation - Viết lại câu điều kiện - Viết lại câu sử dụng đại từ 4 4 sở hữu. - Viết câu với cấu trúc so sánh. 2. Sentence building Vận dụng: 4 4 Sử dụng từ/ cụm từ gợi ý - Sử dụng các cấu trúc và từ và các cấu trúc đã học để vựng đã học để viết câu viết thành câu hoàn chỉnh hoàn chỉnh Tổng bài viết 14 10 4 4 28 4 V Speaking 1. Self-introduction - Nhận biết và hiểu cách trả 5% 5% Giới thiệu bản thân lời thông tin cơ bản như tên, tuổi, lớp, sở thích cá nhân… 2. Topic speaking Vận dụng: Sử dụng từ vựng 5% 5% Trình bày 1 bài nói cá nhân và cấu trúc linh hoạt, diễn (đã có thời gian chuẩn bị tả được nội dung cần nói trước khi nói) về một trong theo những cách khác nhau. số những chủ đề liên quan Phát âm tương đối chuẩn đến bài từ 7 đến bài 11
- 3. Q&A Vận dụng cao: Hiều và trả 10% 10% lời được câu hỏi của GK và trả lời 1 cách linh hoạt. Sử dụng ngôn ngữ 1 cách tự nhiên và thuần thục Tổng phần nói 5% 5% 10% 20 % 14 10 4 4 28 4 câu (10%) (35 5% (25 5% (10 (10 (10 TN Speak (20%) Tổng %) %) %) %) %) (70 %) Tổng chung 40 30 20 10 70 30
- PHÒNG GD & ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA CUỐI KÌ II TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 -------------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 8 (HỆ 10 NĂM) (Đề này có 03 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Họ và tên: ............................................................................Lớp: ............. Mã đề 801 Scores: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2.0 marks) Part I. Listen to the instructions on what to do in an earthquake. Decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). Circle T or F. (1.0 mark) Question 1: If you are indoors, stay away from windows. T F Question 2: If you are indoors, try to run away as far as possible. T F Question 3: If you are driving, get out of the car immediately T F Question 4: If you are trapped, you should make sound on a pipe or wall so helpers T F can find you. Part II. Listen to a school teacher talking about cyber-bullying, then circle the correct answer A , B or C to fill the gaps. You will listen twice. Now listen and circle A, B or C (1.0 mark) The Internet is said to be one of the most amazing (5)____________ that humans have made. Since its appearance, the Internet has been so popular that nearly everyone uses it or knows about it. However, the Internet can be a scary place, especially because of cyber-bullying. Open any (6)____________ these days and you will see a story about this cyber-bullying. It’s a really nasty and growing problem. Cyber-bullies are real cowards. They hide behind their computers and scare people, send them hate mail or threaten them. Even worse is when they (7) ____________ pictures of their victims online. I have a friend who had a bad time at the hands of a cyber-bully. The cyber- bully (8)____________ lots of gossips and lies on the Internet. My friend’s reputation was badly damaged. You may wonder how cyber-bullying starts at school. Many schoolchildren physically bully others in class and then continue doing it online. Their victim isn’t safe anywhere. It is high time we joined hands to stop cyber-bullying. Question 5. A. inventions B. television C. collection Question 6. A. magazine B. newspaper C. book Question 7. A. import B. product C. publish Question 8. A. spreads B. say C. talk II. USE OF LANGUAGE (2.0 marks) Circle the best answers A, B, C or D. Question 9. Find the word which has a different stress pattern from the others A. station B. accent C. legend D. unique Question 10. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. radiation B. litter C. light D. visual Question 11. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence. Page 1/21
- He decided not to buy the fake watch and wait until he had more money. A. origina B. faulty C. authentic D. forger Question 12. The train __________ the railway station at 8:00 a.m every morning. A. leave B. leaves C. will leave D. leaving Question 13. I really hope my dream will become a __________ in the future A. reality B. really C. realistic D. real Question 14. They wondered if we would have any space exploration __________. A. the following year B. following year C. next year D. last year Question 15. Circle the letter A,B,C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentence. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic. A. reasonable B. acceptable C. wonderful D. pretty high Question 16. Have you ever heard __________ mudslide in mountainous area? A. of B. about C. with D. on III. READING (2.0 marks) Part I. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to complete the passage below (1.0 mark) Speech is one of the most important (17) _____ of communicating. It consists of far more than just making noises. To talk and also to be understood by other people we have to speak a language, that is, we have to use combinations of sounds that everyone agrees stand for a particular object or idea. Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own language. Learning a language properly is very (18) _____. The basic vocabulary of English is not very large, and only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite (19) _______. But the more words you know, the more ideas you can express and the more precise you can be about their exact meaning. Words are the main things we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we (20) _______ the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and shows whether we are pleased or angry, for instance. Question 17. A. rules B. ways C. tests D. reasons Question 18. A. expensive B. simple C. important D. easy Question 19. A. good B. fluent C. well D. perfect Question 20. A. tell B. say C. talk D. pass Part 2. Read the passage and answer the questions. Circle A, B, or C(1.0 mark) The Moon is approximately 384,400 kilometers from the Earth. Its diameter is 3,479 kilometers, about 1/4 the diameter of Earth. The average temperature on the surface of the Moon during the day is 107°C, hot enough to boil water on Earth. During the night, the average temperature drops to −153°C. Because of its smaller size and mass, the gravity of the Moon is about 1/6 the gravity on the Earth. That means that a person who weighs 180 pounds on Earth would only weigh 30 pounds if measured on the Moon. The force of gravity from the Moon affects Earth. Its gravity reaches Earth and pulls the oceans toward the Moon, causing the tides. The gravity from the Sun also affects the tides. The highest tides will always occur when the Moon and Sun are aligned. That is when there is a New Moon or a Full Moon. Question 21. What is the first paragraph mainly about? A. A comparison between the Moon and Earth B. Physical characteristics of the Moon C. The effect of the Moon on Earth Question 22. The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following? Page 2/21
- A. gravity’s B. the Moon’s C. Earth’s Question 23. According to the passage, which of the following is true? A. The Earth weighs six times as much as the Moon. B. A person would weigh much less on the Moon than on Earth. C. A person would lose 5/6 of their weight if they were on the Moon. Question 24. The word “aligned” is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. arranged in a line B. combined together C. affected by the other IV. WRITING (2.0 marks) Part I. Rearrange the sentences to make meaningful sentences (1.0 mark) Question 25. Non-verbal/ called/ languages/ are/ languages/ sometimes/ body. A. Non-verbal languages are called sometimes body languages. B. Non-verbal are languages sometimes called body languages. C. Non-verbal languages are sometimes called body languages. D. Non-verbal are languages called sometimes body languages. Question 26. My/ landline/ to/ grandfather/ smart phones/ prefers. A. My grandfather prefers landlines to smart phones. B. My grandfather prefers smart landlines to phones. C. My grandfather to prefers landlines smart phones. D. My grandfather prefers to landlines smart phones. Question 27. My/ cellphone/ parents/ me/ buy/ promised/ a/ to/ I’m/ when/ 18. A. My parents promised to buy a cellphone me when I’m 18. B. My parents promised buy to me a cellphone when I’m 18. C. My parents promised to buy me a cellphone when I’m 18. D. My parents promised when to buy me a cellphone I’m 18. Question 28. Thanks/ social networks, we/ can/ connect/ each other/ easily. A. Thanks to social networks, we can to connect to each other easily. B. Thanks social networks, we can to connect to each other easily. C. Thanks to social networks, we can connect to each other easily. D. Thanks social networks, we can connect to each other easily. Part II. Make complete sentences based on the given words.(1.0 mark) Question 29. A boy was trap/ for two hours under the debris / earthquake yesterday. Question 30. When the rescuers/ arrive, the whole family/ already evacuated. Question 31. If/ you/ the president/ the country/ what/ you/ do/ protect/ the environment? Question 32. One way/ save/ environment/ is/ use/ renewable/ energy/ sources. ------ THE END ------ Page 3/21
- PHÒNG GD & ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA CUỐI KÌ II TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 -------------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 8 (HỆ 10 NĂM0 (Đề này có 03 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Họ và tên: ............................................................................Lớp: ............. Mã đề 802 Scores: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2.0 marks) Part I. Listen to the instructions on what to do in an earthquake. Decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). Circle T or F. (1.0 mark) Question 1: If you are indoors, stay away from windows. T F Question 2: If you are indoors, try to run away as far as possible. T F Question 3: If you are driving, get out of the car immediately T F Question 4: If you are trapped, you should make sound on a pipe or wall so helpers T F can find you. Part II. Listen to a school teacher talking about cyber-bullying, then circle the correct answer A , B or C to fill the gaps. You will listen twice. Now listen and circle A, B or C (1.0 mark) The Internet is said to be one of the most amazing (5)____________ that humans have made. Since its appearance, the Internet has been so popular that nearly everyone uses it or knows about it. However, the Internet can be a scary place, especially because of cyber-bullying. Open any (6)____________ these days and you will see a story about this cyber-bullying. It’s a really nasty and growing problem. Cyber-bullies are real cowards. They hide behind their computers and scare people, send them hate mail or threaten them. Even worse is when they (7) ____________ pictures of their victims online. I have a friend who had a bad time at the hands of a cyber-bully. The cyber- bully (8)____________ lots of gossips and lies on the Internet. My friend’s reputation was badly damaged. You may wonder how cyber-bullying starts at school. Many schoolchildren physically bully others in class and then continue doing it online. Their victim isn’t safe anywhere. It is high time we joined hands to stop cyber-bullying. Question 5. A. television B. collection C. inventions Question 6. A. newspaper B. book C. magazine Question 7. A. publish B. product C. import Question 8. A. spreads B. say C. talk II. USE OF LANGUAGE (2.0 marks) Circle the best answers A, B, C or D. Question 9. Have you ever heard __________ mudslide in mountainous area? A. about B. of C. with D. on Question 10. Find the word which has a different stress pattern from the others A. station B. accent C. unique D. legend Question 11. The train __________ the railway station at 8:00 a.m every morning. A. leaves B. will leave C. leave D. leaving Page 4/21
- Question 12. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. light B. radiation C. visual D. litter Question 13. They wondered if we would have any space exploration __________. A. next year B. the following year C. following year D. last year Question 14. Circle the letter A,B,C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentence. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic. A. reasonable B. wonderful C. pretty high D. acceptable Question 15. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence. He decided not to buy the fake watch and wait until he had more money. A. forger B. authentic C. origina D. faulty Question 16. I really hope my dream will become a __________ in the future A. real B. realistic C. really D. reality III. READING (2.0 marks) Part I. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to complete the passage below (1.0 mark) Speech is one of the most important (17) _____ of communicating. It consists of far more than just making noises. To talk and also to be understood by other people we have to speak a language, that is, we have to use combinations of sounds that everyone agrees stand for a particular object or idea. Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own language. Learning a language properly is very (18) _____. The basic vocabulary of English is not very large, and only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite (19) _______. But the more words you know, the more ideas you can express and the more precise you can be about their exact meaning. Words are the main things we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we (20) _______ the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and shows whether we are pleased or angry, for instance. Question 17. A. tests B. ways C. reasons D. rules Question 18. A. easy B. simple C. important D. expensive Question 19. A. fluent B. well C. perfect D. good Question 20. A. say B. pass C. talk D. tell Part 2. Read the passage and answer the questions. Circle A, B, or C(1.0 mark) The Moon is approximately 384,400 kilometers from the Earth. Its diameter is 3,479 kilometers, about 1/4 the diameter of Earth. The average temperature on the surface of the Moon during the day is 107°C, hot enough to boil water on Earth. During the night, the average temperature drops to −153°C. Because of its smaller size and mass, the gravity of the Moon is about 1/6 the gravity on the Earth. That means that a person who weighs 180 pounds on Earth would only weigh 30 pounds if measured on the Moon. The force of gravity from the Moon affects Earth. Its gravity reaches Earth and pulls the oceans toward the Moon, causing the tides. The gravity from the Sun also affects the tides. The highest tides will always occur when the Moon and Sun are aligned. That is when there is a New Moon or a Full Moon. Question 21. What is the first paragraph mainly about? A. A comparison between the Moon and Earth B. Physical characteristics of the Moon C. The effect of the Moon on Earth Page 5/21
- Question 22. The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following? A. gravity’s B. the Moon’s C. Earth’s Question 23. According to the passage, which of the following is true? A. The Earth weighs six times as much as the Moon. B. A person would lose 5/6 of their weight if they were on the Moon. C. A person would weigh much less on the Moon than on Earth. Question 24. The word “aligned” is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. combined together B. arranged in a line C. affected by the other IV. WRITING (2.0 marks) Part I. Rearrange the sentences to make meaningful sentences (1.0 mark) Question 25. My/ cellphone/ parents/ me/ buy/ promised/ a/ to/ I’m/ when/ 18. A. My parents promised when to buy me a cellphone I’m 18. B. My parents promised to buy a cellphone me when I’m 18. C. My parents promised to buy me a cellphone when I’m 18. D. My parents promised buy to me a cellphone when I’m 18. Question 26. My/ landline/ to/ grandfather/ smart phones/ prefers. A. My grandfather to prefers landlines smart phones. B. My grandfather prefers smart landlines to phones. C. My grandfather prefers to landlines smart phones. D. My grandfather prefers landlines to smart phones. Question 27. Non-verbal/ called/ languages/ are/ languages/ sometimes/ body. A. Non-verbal languages are sometimes called body languages. B. Non-verbal are languages sometimes called body languages. C. Non-verbal languages are called sometimes body languages. D. Non-verbal are languages called sometimes body languages. Question 28. Thanks/ social networks, we/ can/ connect/ each other/ easily. A. Thanks social networks, we can connect to each other easily. B. Thanks to social networks, we can connect to each other easily. C. Thanks to social networks, we can to connect to each other easily. D. Thanks social networks, we can to connect to each other easily. Part II. Make complete sentences based on the given words.(1.0 mark) Question 29. A boy was trap/ for two hours under the debris / earthquake yesterday. Question 30. When the rescuers/ arrive, the whole family/ already evacuated. Question 31. If/ you/ the president/ the country/ what/ you/ do/ protect/ the environment? Question 32. One way/ save/ environment/ is/ use/ renewable/ energy/ sources. ------ THE END ------ Page 6/21
- PHÒNG GD & ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA CUỐI KÌ II TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 -------------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 8 (HỆ 10 NĂM) (Đề này có 03 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Họ và tên: ............................................................................Lớp: ............. Mã đề 803 Scores: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2.0 marks) Part I. Listen to the instructions on what to do in an earthquake. Decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). Circle T or F. (1.0 mark) Question 1: If you are indoors, stay away from windows. T F Question 2: If you are indoors, try to run away as far as possible. T F Question 3: If you are driving, get out of the car immediately T F Question 4: If you are trapped, you should make sound on a pipe or wall so helpers T F can find you. Part II. Listen to a school teacher talking about cyber-bullying, then circle the correct answer A , B or C to fill the gaps. You will listen twice. Now listen and circle A, B or C (1.0 mark) The Internet is said to be one of the most amazing (5)____________ that humans have made. Since its appearance, the Internet has been so popular that nearly everyone uses it or knows about it. However, the Internet can be a scary place, especially because of cyber-bullying. Open any (6)____________ these days and you will see a story about this cyber-bullying. It’s a really nasty and growing problem. Cyber-bullies are real cowards. They hide behind their computers and scare people, send them hate mail or threaten them. Even worse is when they (7) ____________ pictures of their victims online. I have a friend who had a bad time at the hands of a cyber-bully. The cyber- bully (8)____________ lots of gossips and lies on the Internet. My friend’s reputation was badly damaged. You may wonder how cyber-bullying starts at school. Many schoolchildren physically bully others in class and then continue doing it online. Their victim isn’t safe anywhere. It is high time we joined hands to stop cyber-bullying. Question 5. A. inventions B. television C. collection Question 6. A. newspaper B. magazine C. book Question 7. A. product B. import C. publish Question 8. A. say B. talk C. spreads II. USE OF LANGUAGE (2.0 marks) Circle the best answers A, B, C or D. Question 9. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. litter B. visual C. light D. radiation Question 10. They wondered if we would have any space exploration __________. A. the following year B. last year C. next year D. following year Page 7/21
- Question 11. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence. He decided not to buy the fake watch and wait until he had more money. A. faulty B. origina C. authentic D. forger Question 12. Have you ever heard __________ mudslide in mountainous area? A. of B. on C. with D. about Question 13. Find the word which has a different stress pattern from the others A. unique B. station C. legend D. accent Question 14. Circle the letter A,B,C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentence. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic. A. pretty high B. reasonable C. wonderful D. acceptable Question 15. I really hope my dream will become a __________ in the future A. really B. reality C. real D. realistic Question 16. The train __________ the railway station at 8:00 a.m every morning. A. will leave B. leaves C. leaving D. leave III. READING (2.0 marks) Part I. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to complete the passage below (1.0 mark) Speech is one of the most important (17) _____ of communicating. It consists of far more than just making noises. To talk and also to be understood by other people we have to speak a language, that is, we have to use combinations of sounds that everyone agrees stand for a particular object or idea. Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own language. Learning a language properly is very (18) _____. The basic vocabulary of English is not very large, and only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite (19) _______. But the more words you know, the more ideas you can express and the more precise you can be about their exact meaning. Words are the main things we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we (20) _______ the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and shows whether we are pleased or angry, for instance. Question 17. A. ways B. tests C. reasons D. rules Question 18. A. important B. expensive C. simple D. easy Question 19. A. good B. perfect C. fluent D. well Question 20. A. pass B. say C. talk D. tell Part 2. Read the passage and answer the questions. Circle A, B, or C(1.0 mark) The Moon is approximately 384,400 kilometers from the Earth. Its diameter is 3,479 kilometers, about 1/4 the diameter of Earth. The average temperature on the surface of the Moon during the day is 107°C, hot enough to boil water on Earth. During the night, the average temperature drops to −153°C. Because of its smaller size and mass, the gravity of the Moon is about 1/6 the gravity on the Earth. That means that a person who weighs 180 pounds on Earth would only weigh 30 pounds if measured on the Moon. The force of gravity from the Moon affects Earth. Its gravity reaches Earth and pulls the oceans toward the Moon, causing the tides. The gravity from the Sun also affects the tides. The highest tides will always occur when the Moon and Sun are aligned. That is when there is a New Moon or a Full Moon. Question 21. What is the first paragraph mainly about? A. The effect of the Moon on Earth B. Physical characteristics of the Moon C. A comparison between the Moon and Earth Page 8/21
- Question 22. The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following? A. the Moon’s B. gravity’s C. Earth’s Question 23. According to the passage, which of the following is true? A. A person would weigh much less on the Moon than on Earth. B. A person would lose 5/6 of their weight if they were on the Moon. C. The Earth weighs six times as much as the Moon. Question 24. The word “aligned” is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. combined together B. arranged in a line C. affected by the other IV. WRITING (2.0 marks) Part I. Rearrange the sentences to make meaningful sentences (1.0 mark) Question 25. Thanks/ social networks, we/ can/ connect/ each other/ easily. A. Thanks to social networks, we can connect to each other easily. B. Thanks to social networks, we can to connect to each other easily. C. Thanks social networks, we can connect to each other easily. D. Thanks social networks, we can to connect to each other easily. Question 26. Non-verbal/ called/ languages/ are/ languages/ sometimes/ body. A. Non-verbal are languages called sometimes body languages. B. Non-verbal languages are sometimes called body languages. C. Non-verbal languages are called sometimes body languages. D. Non-verbal are languages sometimes called body languages. Question 27. My/ cellphone/ parents/ me/ buy/ promised/ a/ to/ I’m/ when/ 18. A. My parents promised to buy me a cellphone when I’m 18. B. My parents promised to buy a cellphone me when I’m 18. C. My parents promised when to buy me a cellphone I’m 18. D. My parents promised buy to me a cellphone when I’m 18. Question 28. My/ landline/ to/ grandfather/ smart phones/ prefers. A. My grandfather prefers smart landlines to phones. B. My grandfather prefers landlines to smart phones. C. My grandfather to prefers landlines smart phones. D. My grandfather prefers to landlines smart phones. Part II. Make complete sentences based on the given words.(1.0 mark) Question 29. A boy was trap/ for two hours under the debris / earthquake yesterday. Question 30. When the rescuers/ arrive, the whole family/ already evacuated. Question 31. If/ you/ the president/ the country/ what/ you/ do/ protect/ the environment? Question 32. One way/ save/ environment/ is/ use/ renewable/ energy/ sources. ------ THE END ------ Page 9/21
- PHÒNG GD & ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA CUỐI KÌ II TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 -------------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 8 (HỆ 10 NĂM) (Đề này có 03 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Họ và tên: ............................................................................Lớp: ............. Mã đề 804 Scores: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2.0 marks) Part I. Listen to the instructions on what to do in an earthquake. Decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). Circle T or F. (1.0 mark) Question 1: If you are indoors, stay away from windows. T F Question 2: If you are indoors, try to run away as far as possible. T F Question 3: If you are driving, get out of the car immediately T F Question 4: If you are trapped, you should make sound on a pipe or wall so helpers T F can find you. Part II. Listen to a school teacher talking about cyber-bullying, then circle the correct answer A , B or C to fill the gaps. You will listen twice. Now listen and circle A, B or C (1.0 mark) The Internet is said to be one of the most amazing (5)____________ that humans have made. Since its appearance, the Internet has been so popular that nearly everyone uses it or knows about it. However, the Internet can be a scary place, especially because of cyber-bullying. Open any (6)____________ these days and you will see a story about this cyber-bullying. It’s a really nasty and growing problem. Cyber-bullies are real cowards. They hide behind their computers and scare people, send them hate mail or threaten them. Even worse is when they (7) ____________ pictures of their victims online. I have a friend who had a bad time at the hands of a cyber-bully. The cyber- bully (8)____________ lots of gossips and lies on the Internet. My friend’s reputation was badly damaged. You may wonder how cyber-bullying starts at school. Many schoolchildren physically bully others in class and then continue doing it online. Their victim isn’t safe anywhere. It is high time we joined hands to stop cyber-bullying. Question 5. A. inventions B. collection C. television Question 6. A. book B. newspaper C. magazine Question 7. A. publish B. import C. product Question 8. A. talk B. spreads C. say II. USE OF LANGUAGE (2.0 marks) Circle the best answers A, B, C or D. Question 9. Have you ever heard __________ mudslide in mountainous area? A. on B. of C. about D. with Question 10. I really hope my dream will become a __________ in the future A. real B. realistic C. reality D. really Question 11. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence. He decided not to buy the fake watch and wait until he had more money. A. authentic B. faulty C. origina D. forger Page 10/21
- Question 12. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. light B. visual C. litter D. radiation Question 13. The train __________ the railway station at 8:00 a.m every morning. A. leaves B. leaving C. leave D. will leave Question 14. Find the word which has a different stress pattern from the others A. accent B. legend C. station D. unique Question 15. They wondered if we would have any space exploration __________. A. the following year B. following year C. last year D. next year Question 16. Circle the letter A,B,C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentence. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic. A. reasonable B. acceptable C. wonderful D. pretty high III. READING (2.0 marks) Part I. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to complete the passage below (1.0 mark) Speech is one of the most important (17) _____ of communicating. It consists of far more than just making noises. To talk and also to be understood by other people we have to speak a language, that is, we have to use combinations of sounds that everyone agrees stand for a particular object or idea. Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own language. Learning a language properly is very (18) _____. The basic vocabulary of English is not very large, and only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite (19) _______. But the more words you know, the more ideas you can express and the more precise you can be about their exact meaning. Words are the main things we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we (20) _______ the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and shows whether we are pleased or angry, for instance. Question 17. A. reasons B. tests C. ways D. rules Question 18. A. simple B. easy C. important D. expensive Question 19. A. perfect B. good C. well D. fluent Question 20. A. talk B. say C. pass D. tell Part 2. Read the passage and answer the questions. Circle A, B, or C(1.0 mark) The Moon is approximately 384,400 kilometers from the Earth. Its diameter is 3,479 kilometers, about 1/4 the diameter of Earth. The average temperature on the surface of the Moon during the day is 107°C, hot enough to boil water on Earth. During the night, the average temperature drops to −153°C. Because of its smaller size and mass, the gravity of the Moon is about 1/6 the gravity on the Earth. That means that a person who weighs 180 pounds on Earth would only weigh 30 pounds if measured on the Moon. The force of gravity from the Moon affects Earth. Its gravity reaches Earth and pulls the oceans toward the Moon, causing the tides. The gravity from the Sun also affects the tides. The highest tides will always occur when the Moon and Sun are aligned. That is when there is a New Moon or a Full Moon. Question 21. What is the first paragraph mainly about? A. Physical characteristics of the Moon B. A comparison between the Moon and Earth C. The effect of the Moon on Earth Question 22. The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following? A. the Moon’s B. gravity’s C. Earth’s Page 11/21
- Question 23. According to the passage, which of the following is true? A. A person would weigh much less on the Moon than on Earth. B. The Earth weighs six times as much as the Moon. C. A person would lose 5/6 of their weight if they were on the Moon. Question 24. The word “aligned” is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. arranged in a line B. combined together C. affected by the other IV. WRITING (2.0 marks) Part I. Rearrange the sentences to make meaningful sentences (1.0 mark) Question 25. My/ cellphone/ parents/ me/ buy/ promised/ a/ to/ I’m/ when/ 18. A. My parents promised to buy me a cellphone when I’m 18. B. My parents promised buy to me a cellphone when I’m 18. C. My parents promised to buy a cellphone me when I’m 18. D. My parents promised when to buy me a cellphone I’m 18. Question 26. Thanks/ social networks, we/ can/ connect/ each other/ easily. A. Thanks social networks, we can connect to each other easily. B. Thanks social networks, we can to connect to each other easily. C. Thanks to social networks, we can to connect to each other easily. D. Thanks to social networks, we can connect to each other easily. Question 27. My/ landline/ to/ grandfather/ smart phones/ prefers. A. My grandfather to prefers landlines smart phones. B. My grandfather prefers smart landlines to phones. C. My grandfather prefers to landlines smart phones. D. My grandfather prefers landlines to smart phones. Question 28. Non-verbal/ called/ languages/ are/ languages/ sometimes/ body. A. Non-verbal are languages called sometimes body languages. B. Non-verbal languages are called sometimes body languages. C. Non-verbal languages are sometimes called body languages. D. Non-verbal are languages sometimes called body languages. Part II. Make complete sentences based on the given words.(1.0 mark) Question 29. A boy was trap/ for two hours under the debris / earthquake yesterday. Question 30. When the rescuers/ arrive, the whole family/ already evacuated. Question 31. If/ you/ the president/ the country/ what/ you/ do/ protect/ the environment? Question 32. One way/ save/ environment/ is/ use/ renewable/ energy/ sources. ------ THE END ------ Page 12/21
- V. SPEAKING: (2,0ps) (Time allowed:15 minutes/ a student) 1. Introduce yourself (at least 4 sentences: (0,5 pt) 2. Topics (0.5pt) Talking about the given topic. Topic 1:Talk about pollution Topic 2:Talk about English speaking countries Topic 3:Talk about natural disasters Topic 4:Talk about communication Topic 5:Talk about science and technology Topic 6 :Talk about life on other planets 3. Questions for topics (1.0pt) Topic 1: 1. What is the causes and effects of pollution in your area ? 2. How is the solutions for pollution in your area ? 3. How many type of pollution in your area ? 4.What will you do to reduce or prevent pollution in your city? Name some types of pollution. Topic 2: 1. Have you made any friends from English speaking countries ? 2. Do you have difficulty understanding them? 3. Which English speaking country do you like best? Why? 4. What do you like about Scotland? Why? Topic 3: 1.What should you do in the event of a natural disaster in your area? 2.What are your preparations to deal with natural disasters? 3. Which are the most common natural disacters in Kon Tum?What are they? 4. How often do they happen in Kon Tum province? Topic 4: 1. What is the communication breakdown? Give some possible reasons for communication breakdown (give examples if possible) 2. List all the different ways you have communicated so far today? 3. What way/form of communication do you like best? Why? 4. What is the main rule of netiquette? Topic 5: 1. How can scientific advances help us solve problems in the future?(travelling/homes/longevity...) 2. Do you agree or disagree with the idea that with the help of technology, students will benefit greatly from studying by themselves at home? 3. What fields are science and technology greatly changing? 4. How will anti-ageing pills help people? Topic 6: 1. Imagine you are going into space. What will you take with you? Give reason. 2. How many planets are there of the solar system? 3. Have you ever seen a UFO?What would you do if you saw it? 4. How did you feel when you saw the alien? *********THE END******** Page 13/21
- PHÒNG GD & ĐT TP KON TUM HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ II TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC: 2022-2023 Môn: Tiếng Anh 8 (Hệ 10 năm) ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM A. HƯỚNG DẪN CHUNG: Tổng cộng 10 điểm I. Listening: 2,0 điểm = 8 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.25 điểm II. Language: 2,0 điểm = 8 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.25 điểm III. Reading: 2,0 điểm = 8 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu chọn đúng từ được 0.25 điểm IV. Writing: 2,0 điểm = 8 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu chọn đúng từ được 0.25 điểm V. Speaking: 2,0 điểm - Giới thiệu bản thân: 0,5 điểm - Trình bày 1 bài nói cá nhân (đã có thời gian chuẩn bị trước khi nói) về một trong số những chủ đề liên quan đến bài từ Unit 7->Unit 11: 0,5 điểm - Hiều và trả lời được câu hỏi của GK và trả lời 1 cách linh hoạt. Sử dụng ngôn ngữ 1 cách tự nhiên và thuần thục (4 câu hỏi) 1,0 điểm B. ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 801 1T 2F 3F 4T 5A 6B 7C 8A 9D 10C 11C 12B 13A 14A 15C 16B 17B 18C 19C 20B 21B 22B 23B 24A 25C 26A 27C 28C ĐỀ 802 1T 2F 3F 4T 5C 6A 7A 8A 9A 10C 11A 12A 13B 14B 15B 16D 17B 18C 19B 20A 21B 22B 23C 24B 25C 26D 27A 28B ĐỀ 803 1T 2F 3F 4T 5A 6A 7C 8C 9C 10A 11C 12D 13A 14C 15B 16B 17A 18A 19D 20B 21B 22A 23A 24B 25A 26B 27A 28B ĐỀ 804 1T 2F 3F 4T 5A 6B 7A 8B 9C 10C 11A 12A 13A 14D 15A 16C 17C 18C 19C 20B 21A 22A 23A 24A 25A 26D 27D 28C PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (CÂU 29→32) 29 A boy was trapped for two hours under the debris in/of the earthquake yesterday. 30 When the rescuers arrived, the whole family had already evacuated. 31 If you were the president of the country, what would you do to protect the environment? 32 One way to save the environment is using (to use) renewable energy sources. BGH duyệt TCM duyệt GV ra đề Vũ Thị Hằng Nguyễn Thị Kim Phương Trần Thị Bích Thảo Page 14/21
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