intTypePromotion=1
zunia.vn Tuyển sinh 2024 dành cho Gen-Z zunia.vn zunia.vn
ADSENSE

Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường THCS Tân Lập, Thái Nguyên

Chia sẻ: _ _ | Ngày: | Loại File: PDF | Số trang:7

7
lượt xem
1
download
 
  Download Vui lòng tải xuống để xem tài liệu đầy đủ

Các bạn hãy tham khảo và tải về “Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường THCS Tân Lập, Thái Nguyên” sau đây để biết được cấu trúc đề thi cũng như những nội dung chính được đề cập trong đề thi để từ đó có kế hoạch học tập và ôn thi một cách hiệu quả hơn. Chúc các bạn thi tốt!

Chủ đề:
Lưu

Nội dung Text: Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường THCS Tân Lập, Thái Nguyên

  1. UBND THÀNH PHỐ THÁI NGUYÊN KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ II TRƯỜNG THCS TÂN LẬP NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 9 Thời gian: 45 phút MA TRẬN High Recognition Comprehension Application Total Application Questions: 4 Listening 1 1 2 10% Points: 1.0 Questions: 4 Phonology 4 10% Points: 1.0 Vocabulary, Questions: 19 Grammar, 3 10 6 47.5% Communication Points: 4.75 Questions: 10 Reading 1 5 2 2 25% Points: 2.5 Questions: 3 Writing 3 7.5% Points: 0.75 Questions: 8 Questions: 16 Questions: 12 Questions: 4 Questions: 40 Total 20% 40% 30% 10% 100% Points: 2.0 Points: 4.0 Points: 3.0 Points: 1.0 Points: 10 BAN GIÁM HIỆU TỔ CHUYÊN MÔN NGƯỜI RA ĐỀ Lê Thị Hương Giang Nguyễn Việt Hùng
  2. UBND THÀNH PHỐ THÁI NGUYÊN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 TRƯỜNG THCS TÂN LẬP MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 9 Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút Name: ............................................................................... Class: 9A....... Mark Teacher’s comments Part I. Listen and choose the best answer. 01. How many people were at the meeting? A. 3 B. 13 C. 30 02. What are they going to buy for Pam? A. a book B. a plant C. some chocolate 03. What does Joe’s father do? A. He’s a pilot. B. He’s a farmer. C. He’s a photographer. 04. What colour is Mary’s coat? A. yellow B. blue C. brown 01. 02. 03. 04. Part II. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. 05. A. limestone B. simmer C. sprinkle D. dinner 06. A. whisked B. grilled C. steamed D. drained 07. A. peels B. dips C. stirs D. spreads 08. A. other B. that C. these D. healthy 05. 06. 07. 08. Part III. Choose the best answer. 09. I want to learn English because it is _____ international language. A. ø B. the C. a D. an 10. My best friend couldn't come to the party because she was suffering from _____ after her trip to the USA. A. jet lag B. tour guide C. full board D. return ticket 11. There isn’t _____ butter in the fridge. A. some B. any C. a D. an 12. You should be careful if you _____ the red knife. A. use B. uses C. used D. using 13. We would like to remind all guests that _____ is at noon. A. touchdown B. checkout C. drawback D. stopover 14. She has worked as a doctor _____ she graduated from university. A. until B. when C. unless D. since 15. The table _____ he bought yesterday looks so nice. A. who B. which C. whom D. whose
  3. 16. Make sure you _____ a hotel before you come to our island, especially in the summer. A. book B. keep C. put D. buy 17. Tim: “Hey, don’t touch that. You have to wait for our grandparents before starting to eat.” Peter: “_____. I haven’t eaten anything this morning” A. I’m not into science B. Lucky you C. I’m starving D. Great idea 18. Dave: “Congratulations! You've given a great performance.” Hannah: “_____.” A. I'm sorry to hear that B. Me neither C. It's nice of you to say so D. Don’t worry 09. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. Part IV. Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 19. He spent the entire afternoon watching a football match. A. blue B. most C. part D. whole 20. Let’s wait here for her; I’m sure she’ll turn up before long. A. arrive B. return C. enter D. visit 19. 20. Part V. Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 21. We are working to narrow down the list of candidates from ten to three. A. reduce B. develop C. cut down D. set up 22. Peak season is the popular time of the year for holidays. A. high B. top C. red D. low 21. 22. Part VI. There is one mistake in the underlined words in these sentences. Find it. 23. If you did more exercise, your muscles will be stronger. A B C D 24. Don’t put too much garlic in the salad; two bunches are enough. A B C D 25. Tourism play an important part in the development of many nations. A B C D 26. Son Doong Cave contains some of the tallest known stalagmites in world. A B C D 27. I don’t like to eat out because it isn’t easy to find a restaurant which have good food and service. A B C D 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.
  4. Part VII. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer. Most people eat some form of animal products throughout the day. Milk, cheese, yogurt, and meat are often a staple in our diets. Unfortunately, these products are polluting our environment and increasing our risk for natural disasters. Much of the Amazon rainforest is being clear-cut to make way for cattle ranches. The removal of trees during deforestation not only leads to global warming and destroys animal habitats, but it also disrupts the water cycle. Without trees to absorb rainwater, rainfall easily causes flooding and soil erosion in these areas. Surprisingly, deforestation can also lead to severe droughts. Trees are an important part of the water cycle, bringing ground water back into the atmosphere. Less trees means less rainfall, increasing the risk for drought. In 2004, Hurricane Jeanne heavily damaged Haiti, leading to hundreds of deaths and severe damage to human communities. Scientists have shown that the damage was especially severe due to the massive deforestation in Haiti. Much of its tropical rainforests have been cut down to make way for industry. Without trees to buffer the storm, the death toll of this storm surged. (https://study.com/academy/lesson/) 28. Animal products are polluting our environment and increasing our risk for ____. A. natural disasters B. the diversity of animals C. the air pollution D. unhealthy diets 29. Which of the following is NOT the consequence that is led to by deforestation? A. global warming B. the loss of animal habitats C. the disruption of the water cycle D. the shortage of fresh water 30. What is a serious problem if there is no tree to absorb rainwater? A. There will be flooding, soil erosion and drought. B. There will be more rain and storms. C. There will be more water in lakes and rivers. D. There will be more water in the atmosphere. 31. According to the scientists, which reason was attributed to the severe damage of Hurricane Jeanne in 2004? A. The increase in deaths B. The loss in human communities C. The massive loss of forest D. The loss of deforestation 32. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Agricultural activities increase natural disasters. B. Agricultural activities should be banned to limit the risk of natural disasters. C. Human activities are not related to natural disasters. D. Human activities cause deforestation, which causes many deaths. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. Part VIII. Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the original one. 33. France is bigger than Japan. A. Japan is larger than France. B. France is smaller than Japan. C. France isn’t as big as Japan. D. Japan isn’t as big as France.
  5. 34. They built the Statue of Liberty many years ago. A. The Statue of Liberty have built many years ago. B. The Statue of Liberty was built many years ago. C. The Statue of Liberty were built many years ago. D. The Statue of Liberty have been built many years ago. 35. Because of Covid-19 pandemic, we will have to cancel the trip to the mountain. A. If there is no Covid-19 pandemic, we would not have to cancel the trip to the mountain. B. If there were no Covid-19 pandemic, we will not have to cancel the trip to the mountain. C. If there was no Covid-19 pandemic, we will have to cancel the trip to the mountain. D. If there were no Covid-19 pandemic, we would not have to cancel the trip to the mountain. 33. 34. 35. Part IX. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each gap. Teenagers having exams may feel stressed for different reasons. Their future may depend on their exam results. And many of them will probably be afraid that their performances will not be as good as their friends’ and may feel worried about being (36) ______ negatively to them. They may feel so (37) ______ by the amount of studying which they need to do. To obtain a good result, they may have to give up (38) ______ leisure activities such as doing sports and listening to music. Teenagers (39) ______ suffer from exam stress may show a variety of symptoms including loss of appetite, being unable to sleep and a lack of motivation to study. (40) ______, it is important for teachers and parents to watch out for these signs and to be as supportive and encouraging as possible. (Adapted from Complete First for Schools by Brook-Hart, Hutchison, Passmore and Uddin) 36. A. agreed B. closed C. compared D. suggested 37. A. relaxed B. exhausted C. embarrassed D. excited 38. A. much B. many C. few D. little 39. A. who B. where C. which D. when 40. A. However B. Although C. Moreover D. Therefore 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. --THE END—
  6. UBND THÀNH PHỐ THÁI NGUYÊN HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ II TRƯỜNG THCS TÂN LẬP NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 9 Part I. Listen and choose the best answer. 01. C 02. B 03. B 04. A Part II. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. 05. A 06. A 07. B 08. D Part III. Choose the best answer. 09. D 10. A 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. C Part IV. Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 19. D 20. A Part V. Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 21. B 22. D Part VI. There is one mistake in the underlined words in these sentences. Find it. 23. D 24. C 25. A 26. D 27. C Part VII. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer. 28. A 29. D 30. A 31. C 32. A Part VIII. Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the original one. 33. D 34. B 35. D Part IX. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each gap. 36. C 37. B 38. B 39.A 40. D THE END
ADSENSE

CÓ THỂ BẠN MUỐN DOWNLOAD

 

Đồng bộ tài khoản
2=>2