SỞ GD & ĐT QUẢNG NAM
TRƯỜNG PTDTNT NƯỚC OA
KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ II – NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023
MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11
Thời gian làm bài : 45 Phút
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề có 3 trang)
Họ tên : ............................................................... Số báo danh : ...................
Mã đề 302
PART A: LISTENING (2pts)
You will hear a man talking about the Asian Games.
Listen and decide which the following statements are true or false.
1. The Asian Games are held every two years.
2. Only traditional sports have been introduced and added to the Games.
3. There were 6 sports events at the first Games including basketball, cycling, football, aquatic sports,
athletics and weightlifting.
4. Squash, rugby, fencing and mountain biking were introduced for the second time at the 13th Asian
Games.
Listen again and fill in the gap
The (5)………………. Asian Games, which were held in Busan, Korea in 2002, attracted 9,919 participants
from 44 countries. The athletes competed in 38 different sports and won (6)……………. gold medals. The
Vietnamese participants participated in this event with great enthusiasm. Their efforts were much
appreciated when they won 2 gold medals in (7)……………………. and billiards, and 2 others in women’s
karatedo. It is hoped that in the near future, Vietnam will become a host country and receive more (8)
……………….. in a variety of sports events.
PART B: READING AND WRITING
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE (6pts)
Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit each numbered blank
Many people cut trees all over the world. These are people …………….do not know they are harming
themselves by their action. Recently, there was news about the destruction of lives and property in
Uttarakhand due to flash floods caused by a cloud burst. According to ecologists and ……………., one of
the main causes of this catastrophe was deforestation. Actually, people cut trees for the sake of luxury and
money. Deforestation results …………….global warming, drought and famine. People should be made
aware of the ill effects of deforestation. Organizations like WWF (World Wildlife Fund) should be
encouraged in their efforts and guided in all possible ways to help promote preservation of forest land. If
deforestation continues at the current rate, a day will come when the human …………….itself will be
endangered.
Question 9: A. who B. whom C. what D. which
Question 10: A. environment B. environmentalists C. environmentalist D. environmental
Question 11: A. from B. to C. of D. in
Question 12: A. resource B. species C. condition D. nature
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
The natural environment includes all natural resources that are necessary for life: the air, the oceans, the sun
and the land. Because they are vital for life, these resources must be protected from pollution and conserved.
Ecologists study their importance and how to use them carefully.
They often divide resources into two groups: renewable and non– renewable. When a resource is used, it
takes some time to replace it. If the resource can be replaced quickly and easily, it is called renewable. If it
cannot be replaced quickly and easily, it is non-renewable. Coal, for example, is non-renewable because it
takes millions of years to make coal. All fossil fuels are non-renewable resources. Solar energy, air, and
water are usually called renewable because there is an unlimited supply.
However, this definition may change if people are not careful with these resources. The amount of solar
energy that reaches the earth depends on the atmosphere. If the atmosphere is polluted, the solar energy that
reaches the earth may be dangerous. If humans continue to pollute the air, it will not contain the correct
amounts of these gases.
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Many resources are limited and non- renewable, and many are in danger of pollution. As a consequence,
resources must be conserved, and the environment must be protected.
Question 13: Non-renewable resources are those which ……………….
A. are used every day such as solar energy and water
B. can be replaced quickly and easily
C. are unlimited
D. take millions of the years to replace
Question 14: What will happen if the atmosphere is polluted?
A. All are correct.
B. The air won’t contain the correct amounts of natural gases
C. Renewable resources will soon become non-renewable
D. Life won’t continue as it does.
Question 15: The word consequence in the passage is closest to ………………
A. result B. problem C. cause D. reason
Question 16: Why do we have to conserve resources?
A. Because many resources are limited and non-renewable.
B. Because conservation plays an important part in everyone’s life.
C. To make natural resources renewable.
D. To keep the air from being polluted.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that best complete the following sentences:
Question 17: Thanh Ba Post Office provides customers…………….the Messenger Call Services.
A. of B. to C. with D. for
Question 18: Tom suggested …………….out for dinner.
A. to go B. having gone C. going D. go
Question 19: The energy …………….by the windmill drives all the drainage pumps.
A. that is producing B. which produces C. produced D. producing
Question 20: The girls and flowers …………….he painted were vivid.
A. which B. x (nothing) C. whom D. who
Question 21: It’s so cold! ………..… go to the café over there and get a hot drink.
A. How about B. What about C. Let’s D. Would you like
Question 22: I don't know the girl ……………… a long blue dress.
A. worn B. to be worn C. to wear D. wearing
Question 23: This is the novel …………….I’ve been expecting.
A. x (nothing) B. All are correct C. which D. that
Question 24: They are asking for public donation to protect some certain wild animals ………….dying out.
A. in B. from C. on D. up
Question 25: Killing ............... animals for fur, skin and food should be banned.
A. Endangered B. endangering C. endanger D. dangerous
Question 26: The sun, water and the wind are other…………….sources of energy.
A. replace B. electric C. alternative D. useless
Question 27: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
In our time, people depend on unlimited energy to power their everyday lives.
A. infinite B. powerful C. enormous D. potential
Question 28: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Our well-trained staff are always courteous to customers.
A. rude B. polite C. patient D. honest
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose the underlined part pronounced differently
from the others.
Question 29: A. swim B. sword C. swear D. sweet
Question 30: A. scheme B. skiing C. scan D. scene
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following
exchanges.
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Question 31: Bob is talking to a clerk at the post office near his house.
Clerk: "Good morning! …………….…………….…………….’’
Bob: "I want to have a telephone line installed at home."
A. May I come in? B. Excuse me!
C. Where do you live? D. Can I help you?
Question 32: Lan and Nga are talking about the success of Vietnamese athletes at the 14th Asian Games
held in Busan, Korea.
Lan: ‘What kinds of medals did they get?” - Nga: “ …………….…………….’’
A. Oh, they made efforts to get many medals at that Games.
B. Well, They got one gold medal and one bronze in bodybuilding
C. There were two medals in bodybuilding.
D. They took part in different kinds of sports
II. WRITING (2pts)
Combine these sentences to make a meaningful sentence, beginning as printed.. (0.5 mark for each
correct answer)
Question 1. The book is very interesting. It was written by Jane Austen
→ The book which…………………………………………………………………………………………..
Question 2. Neil Armstrong is an American. He was the first man walking on the moon.
→ Neil Armstrong, who………………………………………………………………………………...
Rewrite each of the following sentences so as not to change its original meaning. (0.5 mark for each
correct answer)
Question 3. The woman whom I am telling about teaches me English. ( Relative clause with preposition)
→ ……………………………………………………………………………………………………...
Question 4. Students who cheat in the final test will get zero mark. (Reducing Relative clause)
→ ………………………………………………………………………………................................
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