Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Công Trứ, Châu Đức

Chia sẻ: _ _ | Ngày: | Loại File: DOCX | Số trang:6

Thêm vào BST

Báo xấu

5
lượt xem 0
download

Download Vui lòng tải xuống để xem tài liệu đầy đủ

Mời các bạn cùng tham khảo "Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Công Trứ, Châu Đức" sau đây để biết được cấu trúc đề thi, cách thức làm bài thi cũng như những dạng bài chính được đưa ra trong đề thi. Từ đó, giúp các bạn học sinh có kế hoạch học tập và ôn thi hiệu quả.

Chủ đề:

Bình luận(0) Đăng nhập để gửi bình luận!

Lưu

Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Công Trứ, Châu Đức

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I - NĂM HỌC: 2022 - 2023 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút) Mức Số Số điểm độ câu Chuẩ Vận Vận Dạng n Thôn Nhận dụng dụng bài kiến g biết bậc bậc thức hiểu thấp cao TT TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL - Multi ple choic e: 4 (3 2 2 Liste I 8 2.0 ning optio 2 1 1 ns) - Gap - filling :4 II Multi - 6 3 1 10 2.5 ple Soun choic d: 1 e - (4 optio Some ns) / any: 1 - Voca bular y: 1 - Prepo sition :1 - Adv of frequ ency: 1 - Count able and uncou ntable Noun :1
- Verb form/ tense: 1 - Comp arativ e: 1 - Conv ersati on: 1 - Findi ng mista kes: 1 (unde rline d parts) A. Guide d cloze: 5 (3 Readi optio ng 2 2 1 III (2 ns) 10 2.5 passag B. 2 2 1 es) Multi . Choic e: 5 (3 optio ns) IV Writi - 1 1 2 ng Rewri 4 2.0 te: 2 - 1 1 1.0 Make questi ons: 1 - Reord er words :1 - Open
questi on: 1 Tổng số câu / Tổng điểm 15 / 4.0 11 / 3.0 6/ 2.0 1 / 1.0 33 10.0 TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN CÔNG TRỨ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I Lớp: 6A ………………. NĂM HỌC: 2022 – 2023 HỌ VÀ TÊN: …………………………. MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 Thời gian: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) ĐIỂM LỜI PHÊ CỦA THẦY ( CÔ) GIÁO I. LISTENING TASKS (2pts). Part 1. Listen and choose the correct answer (1pt). 1. Eduardo’s school is…………... A. beautiful B. not big C. very small 2. Eduardo knows all …………. at his school. A. students B. subjects C. classrooms 3. Eduardo likes……….. teacher A. Maths B. English C. History 4. Eduardo loves playing………………. A. football B. tennis C. badminton Part 2. Listen and fill in the gaps (1pt). Rosa: What are you doing at the (1) ……..…………… ? Abdulla: My team is playing on Saturday. I’m meeting my cousins and going (2) ……..…… them. After that, we might eat out. What about you? Rosa: I’m staying in on Saturday. I’ve got lots of (3) ……..…..….…. But on Sunday, I’m seeing a film with my family. Abdulla: That’s nice. I’m (4) ……..…….…. my grandparents on Sunday. II. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER (2.5pts). 1. Find the word which has a different sound in the underlined part.
A. shopping B. sugar C. sure D. summer 2. Are there ______ vegetables in the fridge? A. a B. any C. some D. an 3. Nowadays, people usually use ______ in Maths. A. rubbers B. crayons C. calculators D. pencils 4. Tim lives in New York. There are many modern buildings and offices _____ his neighborhood. A. in B. at C. on D. before 5. I love beaches. I_______ go to Vung Tau beach on holiday. A. sometimes B. usually C. never D. rarely 6. There is so much _______ on the road today. A. plasters B. homework C. islands D. snow 7. We _______ fireworks together at the moment. A. watch B. watches C. are watching D. don’t watch 8. My brother is _______than I am. He always does his homework before class. A. hard - working B. more hard - working C. the hard - working D. the more hard - working 9. Ba: Let’s go to the art gallery on Sunday. – Hung: ______. A. Thanks. B. Good idea! C. Sure. Here you are. D. Yes, I am. 10. Find the underlined part needs correcting. Minh often go to Da Lat with his family on holiday because the weather is nice. A B C D III. READING (2.5pts). A. Read the passage and CIRCLE the answer A, B or C that best fits each blank (1.25pts). In Brazil, people wear white clothes on New Year’s Eve (31 December) because it brings good luck. At midnight people go to the beach and jump over the waves seven times. Then they throw flowers into the sea and make (1) ______ for the new year. Some people light candles and there are lots of parties. One of the most usually (2) _____is in Thailand. People celebrate the Thai New Year on 13 April with “Song Klarn Day”. On this day people play games with water and throw it over each other. They also (3)_______their grandparents and ask them for good luck. In Japan most people (4)_______ New Year with their family. They eat special noodles on 31 December and at midnight they listen to the bells, which ring 108 times. On New Year’s Day everyone drinks sake, traditional Japanese rice wine, and eats a (5)_____kind of soup. The children get red envelops with money inside. 1. A. wishes B. celebrations C. decorations 2. A. wonder B. festival C. vacation 3. A. come B. wish C. visit 4. A. celebrate B. have C. prepare 5. A. good B. traditional C. special B. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B or C for each question (1.25pts). Hi friends! My name’s Sandra and I live in Hilltown. It’s a small town in the South of England. The weather here is nice. There are many shops and three supermarkets in the town. You can buy everything you need in the town. There are two banks, a post office, a police station and a library, too. You can find a big market where you can buy fruit, vegetables, meat and dairy products. I like going to the market with my mum. My town also has a park, most children like it. In our town you can find some restaurants and cafés. My favorite café is Icecave. It’s in Park Street and the ice cream is fantastic here! There are three elementary schools and two high school in Hilltown. My school is in Mill Street. Next to our school, there is a sport centre. We always play volleyball on Saturdays. I like living in Hilltown because it is a calm, neat place and people are friendly. 1. Where is Hilltown? A. North of England B. South of Scotland C. South of England 2. Who does Sandra like going to the market with? A. her mother B. her sister C. her friend
3. What’s her favorite café? A. Ice-cream B. Icecave C. Ice 4. How many elementary schools are there in Hilltown? A. three B. two C. one 5. Why does Sandra like her town? A. It’s calm and modern. B. It’s calm and neat. C. It’s quiet and neat. IV. Do as directed in brackets (3pts). 1. There are two bathrooms in that house. (Rewrite the sentence with the given words) → That house ………………………………………………………………………………………… 2. The first question is easier than the second one. (Rewrite the sentence with the given words) → The second question ……………………………………………………………………………… 3. one of/ the/ Ha Long Bay/ is/ of/ natural wonders/ the world. (Rearrange the words to make a meaningful sentence). →…………………………………………………………………………..………………..………… 4. …………………………………………………………………………..…………...….……….…? → We have Physics on Mondays. (Make a question with the underlined words). 5. Write a passage about 40 words to describe your house. →…………………………………………………………………………..………………..…………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. . ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ANSWER KEYS - ENGLISH 6 I. LISTENING TASKS (2pts). Part 1. Listen and choose the correct answer (1pt). (0.25pt / one correct answer) 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B Part 2. Listen and fill in the gaps (1pt). (0.25pt / one correct answer) 1. weekend 2. with 3. homework 4. visiting II. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER (2.5pts). (0.25pt / one correct answer) 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. A III. READING (2.5pts). A. Read the passage and CIRCLE the answer A, B or C that best fits each blank (1.25pts). (0.25pt / one correct answer) 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C B. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B or C for each question (1.25pts). (0.25pt / one correct answer) 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B IV. Do as directed in brackets (3pts). 1. That house has two bathrooms. (0.5pt) 2. The second question is more difficult than the first one. (0.5pt) 3. Ha Long Bay is one of the natural wonders of the world. (0.5pt) 4. When do you have Physics? (0.5pt)
5. Student’s answer. (1pt)