Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Thắng Lợi, Kon Tum

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Thắng Lợi, Kon Tum

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KON TUM Trường: TRƯỜNG TH-THCS THẮNG LỢI MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ I MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 – THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 PHÚT NĂM HỌC: 2024-2025 Mức độ nhận thức Tổng TT Kĩ năng Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao Tỉ lệ Thời gian Tỉ lệ Thời Tỉ lệ Thời Tỉ lệ Thời Tỉ lệ Thời (%)/câ (phút) (%)/câu gian (%)/câu gian (%)/c gian (%)/câu gian u (phút) (phút) âu (phút) (phút) 1 Listening 10 % 5 10 % 6 20 % 11 4 câu 4 câu 8 câu 2 Language 15 % 6 5% 4 20 % 10 6 câu 2 câu 8 câu 3 Reading 10 % 5 2,5 % 4 7,5 % 3 20 % 12 4 câu 3 câu 1 câu 8 câu 4 Writing 10 % 3 10 % 9 20 % 12 1 câu 7 câu 8 câu Total (Written 35 % 16 25 % 17 20% 12 80 % 45 Test) 14 câu 10 câu 8 câu 32 câu (28 TN + 4 TL) 5 Speaking 5% 2 5% 3 10 % 10 20 % 15 Tổng 40 % 18 30 % 19 20 % 13 10 % 10 100% 60 Tỉ lệ (%) 40 30 20 10 Tỉ lệ chung 70 30 (%) Kon Tum, ngày 3 tháng 12 năm 2025. Người lập Võ Thị Mỹ Phú
BẢNG ĐẶC TẢ KỸ THUẬT ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ I MÔN TIẾNG ANH- LỚP 7; 2024-2025 TT Kĩ năng Đơn vị kiến Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức Tổng thức/ kỹ năng Nhận biết Thông Vận dụng Vận dụng hiểu cao TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL I Listening1. MCQs - Nghe một 2 2 đoạn hội thoại khoảng 3 phút (khoảng120- 2 2 140 từ) về liên quan đến chủ đề đã học (My world) -Chọn câu trả lời đúng (A,B,C or D) 2. R/W 2 2 - Nghe một đoạn hội thoại 2 2 (khoảng 120- 140 từ) 3 phút liên quan đến chủ đề đã học (Arts and Music) - Xác định câu đúng/ sai. II Language 1. Phonology 2 2 - /əʊ/, /aʊ/ - stress 2. Vocabulary 2 Dạng câu hỏi 2 MCQs 2 2 Các từ vựng đã học theo chủ điểm: + My world + Fit for life
+ Arts and Music 3. Grammar 2 2 Các chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã học: - Simple future - Quantifiers III Reading 1. Cloze test Hiểu được bài 2 2 đọc có độ dài khoảng 120- 2 2 150 từ về các chủ điểm đã học: + Festival 2. Reading comprehension 2 2 Hiểu được nội dung chính và nội dung chi 2 2 tiết đoạn văn có độ dài khoảng 120 - 150 từ, xoay quanh các chủ điểm có trong nội dung đã học - Fit for life R/W IV Writing 1. Sentence transformation Chọn câu có 4 4 cùng nghĩa với câu được cho. 2. Sentence 4 4
building Sử dụng từ/ cụm từ gợi ý và các cấu trúc đã học để viết thành câu hoàn chỉnh Tổng bài viết 14 10 4 4 28 4 V Speaking 1. Self- 5% 5% introduction Giới thiệu bản thân 2. Topic 5% 5% speaking Trình bày 1 bài nói cá nhân (đã có thời gian chuẩn bị trước khi nói) về một trong số những chủ đề liên quan đến bài từ ……. 3. Q&A 10% 10% 5% 5% 10% 20 Tổng phần nói % 14 10 4 4 28 4 (35 5% (25 5% (10 (10 (10 TN câu %) %) %) %) %) (70 (10 Tổng %) %) Speak (20 %) Tổng chung 40 30 20 10 70 30
TRƯỜNG TH- THCS THẮNG LỢI KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ I TỔ: TIẾNG ANH-HĐGD NĂM HỌC 2024- 2025 Họ và tên………………………… MÔN: TIẾNG ANH-LỚP 7 Lớp………… (Thời gian làm bài 45 phút) ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC ĐỀ I (Đề có 32 câu, in trong 3 trang) Score: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2ms) Part 1: Listen to a conversation between a boy and his mother. Listen and choose the correct answer (A,B,C or D). There is one example. (1m) 0. What game did Richard play today? A. Volleyball B. Football C. Basketball D. Badminton 1. What has Richard hurt? A. His leg B. His hand C. His foot D. His head 2. Where are Richard’s football shorts? A. On the balcony B. In the bathroom C. By the door D. On the kitchen floor 3. What does Richard need for football? A. A new sweater. B. New football socks. C. A football shirt. D. A ball. 4. What is Richard going to do on Friday evening? A. Go to the cinema. B. Play games. C. Watch a football match. D. Go to his friend’s party. Part 2: Listen to a conversation between Jacky and Pete. Write R (right) or W (wrong). (1m) R/W 5. Jacky never listens to hip-hop. …………. 6. Pete likes classical music because it's relaxing. …………. 7. Pete likes rock because it's exciting. …………. 8. Jacky thinks jazz is boring. …………. II. LANGUAGE (2ms) Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) to complete the following sentences. 9. I think I …………… vanilla ice cream for dessert. It looks delicious. A. am having B. will have C. have D. am going to have 10. I don’t have ……….. kiwis, but I have …………… oranges. A. some/ any B. any/ some C. some/ some D. any/ any
11. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others. A. bow B. cow C. now D. show 12. Choose the word that has the OPPOSITE meaning to the word in bold. - I think yoga is boring. A. dangerous B. safe C. tiring D. interesting 13. Choose the word that has a stress pattern different from the others. A. festival B. collection C. tradition D. performance 14. Where are my flippers? I need them to go ………… with my classmates tomorrow. A. sailing B. snorkelling C. surfing D. jogging 15. He hates waiting for things. He is a(n) …………… person. A. unhappy B. naughty C. impatient D. bossy 16. We can’t leave the theatre yet. The …………. is full of people. A. stage B. aisle C. curtain D. balcony III. READING (2ms) Part 1: Choose the correct answer (A,B, C or D) to fill in each blank in the following passage. (1m) The Edinburg Festival is the biggest arts festival in the world. (17) .............. August, thousands of people come to the city to join the festival. It (18) ……..….. for three weeks and has a lot of activities. People enjoy music and dance performances in the streets (19) ……….… early morning until late at night. They also see artists painting pictures in the streets. One of the most interesting parts of the festival is “Fringe”. Here people enjoy comedy shows by students in small halls and cafes. At this festival, tourists also have a chance to (20) ……….. new films, plays and listen to famous musicians playing great music. Although it is the world’s largest als festival, its tickets are quite cheap. This is one of the reasons why it attracts so many people every year. 17. A. On B. At C. Every D. Between 18. A. goes B. lasts C. ends D. begins 19. A. from B. in C. between D. on 20. A. learn B. join C. create D. see Part 2: Read the passage and decide if each of the statements is rigth (R) or wrong (W) (1m) Last Saturday, my family had dinner at Orient House, a new restaurant in our city. It was on Blackwood Street, about thirty minutes by car from our house. That street was usually crowded; however, on that day, there were not many cars and lorries. We got there in fifteen minutes and could easily find a car park in front of the restaurant. When we entered the restaurant, a friendly waiter welcomed us, took us to our table, and brought us the menu. Because we arrived quite early, there were not many guests. At first, I didn't know what food to order, so my mum gave me some advice because she was a good cook. I ordered some pasta and chicken. They looked like home-cooked
dishes but tasted really different. I loved the beef steak most, and my parents loved the seafood. The dishes there were expensive, but they all were fantastic. R/W 21. The restaurant wasn't crowded when the family arrived. ………………. 22. It took them 30 minutes to drive there from their house. ………………. 23. They had trouble looking for a car park. ………………. 24. The mother advised on what to have for dinner. ………………. IV. WRITING (2ms) Part 1. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same meaning as the given one. (1m) 25. There isn’t much coffee in the bottle. A. There isn’t any coffee in the bottle. B. There is a few coffee in the bottle. C. There is a little coffee in the bottle. D. There is few coffee in the bottle. 26. He played football, but now he doesn’t play any more. A. He didn’t use to play football. B. He used to play football. C. He likes playing football now. D. He is playing football these days. 27. My mother's pancakes are really delicious. A. My mother's pancakes taste good. B. My mother cannot cook pancake. C. I want to make delicious pancakes for my mother. D. I like my mother's food. 28. Lucy eats ices all day so she has a sore throat. A. Lucy likes eating ices because her throat is not hurt. B. Lucy has a sore throat because she eats ices all day. C. Lucy doesn't eat ices so she has a sore throat. D. She has a sore throat so she eats ices all day. Part 2. Use the given words or phrases to make complete sentences. (1m) 29. David/ thin/ long hair/ black eyes. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… 30. She/ love/ music/ so/ she/ go/ music festival/ every summer. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… 31. My brothers/ very good/ play/ volleyball. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… 32. If/ you/ eat/ too /cheese/ you/ have/ stomachache. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… THE END
TRƯỜNG TH- THCS THẮNG LỢI KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ I TỔ: TIẾNG ANH-HĐGD NĂM HỌC 2024- 2025 Họ và tên………………………… MÔN: TIẾNG ANH-LỚP 7 Lớp………… (Thời gian làm bài 45 phút) ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC ĐỀ II (Đề có 32 câu, in trong 3 trang) Score: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2ms) Part 1: Listen to a conversation between a boy and his mother. Listen and choose the correct answer (A,B,C or D). There is one example. (1m) 0. What game did Richard play today? A. Volleyball B. Football C. Basketball D. Badminton 1. What has Richard hurt? A. His head B. His leg C. His hand D. His foot 2. Where are Richard’s football shorts? A. On the balcony B. In the bathroom C. On the kitchen floor D. By the door 3. What does Richard need for football? A. New football socks. B. A new sweater. C. A football shirt. D. A ball. 4. What is Richard going to do on Friday evening? A. Go to his friend’s party. B. Watch a football match. C. Go to the cinema. D. Play games. Part 2: Listen to a conversation between Jacky and Pete. Write R (right) or W (wrong). (1m) R/W 5. Jacky never listens to hip-hop. …………. 6. Pete likes classical music because it's relaxing. …………. 7. Pete likes rock because it's exciting. …………. 8. Jacky thinks jazz is boring. …………. II. READING (2ms) Part 1: Choose the correct answer (A,B, C or D) to fill in each blank in the following passage. (1m) The Edinburg Festival is the biggest arts festival in the world. (9) .............. August, thousands of people come to the city to join the festival. It (10) ……..….. for three weeks and has a lot of activities. People enjoy music and dance performances in the
streets (11) ……….… early morning until late at night. They also see artists painting pictures in the streets. One of the most interesting parts of the festival is “Fringe”. Here people enjoy comedy shows by students in small halls and cafes. At this festival, tourists also have a chance to (12) ……….. new films, plays and listen to famous musicians playing great music. Although it is the world’s largest als festival, its tickets are quite cheap. This is one of the reasons why it attracts so many people every year. 9. A. Between B. On C. At D. Every 10. A. begins B. goes C. lasts D. ends 11. A. on B. from C. in D. between 12. A. see B. learn C. join D. create Part 2: Read the passage and decide if each of the statements is rigth (R) or wrong (W) (1m) Last Saturday, my family had dinner at Orient House, a new restaurant in our city. It was on Blackwood Street, about thirty minutes by car from our house. That street was usually crowded; however, on that day, there were not many cars and lorries. We got there in fifteen minutes and could easily find a car park in front of the restaurant. When we entered the restaurant, a friendly waiter welcomed us, took us to our table, and brought us the menu. Because we arrived quite early, there were not many guests. At first, I didn't know what food to order, so my mum gave me some advice because she was a good cook. I ordered some pasta and chicken. They looked like home-cooked dishes but tasted really different. I loved the beef steak most, and my parents loved the seafood. The dishes there were expensive, but they all were fantastic. R/W 13. The restaurant wasn't crowded when the family arrived. ………………. 14. It took them 30 minutes to drive there from their house. ………………. 15. They had trouble looking for a car park. ………………. 16. The mother advised on what to have for dinner. ………………. III. LANGUAGE (2ms) Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) to complete the following sentences. 17. He hates waiting for things. He is a(n) …………… person. A. bossy B. unhappy C. naughty D. impatient 18. We can’t leave the theatre yet. The …………. is full of people. A. balcony B. stage C. aisle D. curtain 19. I think I …………… vanilla ice cream for dessert. It looks delicious. A. am going to have B. am having C. will have D. have 20. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others. A. show B. bow C. cow D. now 21. I don’t have ……….. kiwis, but I have …………… oranges.
A. any/ any B. some/ any C. any/ some D. some/ some 22. Choose the word that has the OPPOSITE meaning to the word in bold. - I think yoga is boring. A. interesting B. dangerous C. safe D. tiring 23. Choose the word that has a stress pattern different from the others. A. performance B. festival C. collection D. tradition 24. Where are my flippers? I need them to go ………… with my classmates tomorrow. A. jogging B. sailing C. snorkelling D. surfing IV. WRITING (2ms) Part 1. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same meaning as the given one. (1m) 25. Lucy eats ices all day so she has a sore throat. A. She has a sore throat so she eats ices all day. B. Lucy likes eating ices because her throat is not hurt. C. Lucy has a sore throat because she eats ices all day. D. Lucy doesn't eat ices so she has a sore throat. 26. There isn’t much coffee in the bottle. A. There is few coffee in the bottle. B. There isn’t any coffee in the bottle. C. There is a few coffee in the bottle. D. There is a little coffee in the bottle. 27. He played football, but now he doesn’t play any more. A. He is playing football these days. B. He didn’t use to play football. C. He used to play football. D. He likes playing football now. 28. My mother's pancakes are really delicious. A. I like my mother's food. B. My mother's pancakes taste good. C. My mother cannot cook pancake. D. I want to make delicious pancakes for my mother. Part 2. Use the given words/ phrases to make complete sentences. (1m) 29. If/ you/ eat/ too /cheese/ you/ have/ stomachache. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… 30. David/ thin/ long hair/ black eyes. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… 31. She/ love/ music/ so/ she/ go/ music festival/ every summer. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… 32. My brothers/ very good/ play/ volleyball. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… THE END
TRƯỜNG TH- THCS THẮNG LỢI KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ I TỔ: TIẾNG ANH-HĐGD NĂM HỌC 2024- 2025 Họ và tên………………………… MÔN: TIẾNG ANH-LỚP 7 Lớp………… (Thời gian làm bài 45 phút) ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC ĐỀ III (Đề có 32 câu, in trong 3 trang) Score: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2ms) Part 1: Listen to a conversation between a boy and his mother. Listen and choose the correct answer (A,B,C or D). There is one example. (1m) 0. What game did Richard play today? A. Volleyball B. Football C. Basketball D. Badminton 1. What has Richard hurt? A. His foot B. His head C. His leg D. His hand 2. Where are Richard’s football shorts? A. By the door B. On the kitchen floor C. On the balcony D. In the bathroom 3. What does Richard need for football? A. A football shirt. B. A ball. C. A new sweater. D. New football socks. 4. What is Richard going to do on Friday evening? A. Watch a football match. B. Go to his friend’s party. C. Go to the cinema. D. Play games. Part 2: Listen to a conversation between Jacky and Pete. Write R (right) or W (wrong). (1m) R/W 5. Jacky never listens to hip-hop. …………. 6. Pete likes classical music because it's relaxing. …………. 7. Pete likes rock because it's exciting. …………. 8. Jacky thinks jazz is boring. …………. II. LANGUAGE (2ms) Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) to complete the following sentences. 9. Choose the word that has a stress pattern different from the others. A. tradition B. performance C. festival D. collection 10. Where are my flippers? I need them to go ………… with my classmates tomorrow.
A. surfing B. jogging C. sailing D. snorkelling 11. He hates waiting for things. He is a(n) …………… person. A. impatient B. bossy C. unhappy D. naughty 12. We can’t leave the theatre yet. The …………. is full of people. A. curtain B. balcony C. stage D. aisle 13. I think I …………… vanilla ice cream for dessert. It looks delicious. A. have B. am going to have C. am having D. will have 14. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others. A. now B. show C. bow D. cow 15. I don’t have ……….. kiwis, but I have …………… oranges. A. some/ some B. any/ any C.some/ any D. any/ some 16. Choose the word that has the OPPOSITE meaning to the word in bold. - I think yoga is boring. A. tiring B. interesting C. dangerous D. safe III. READING (2ms) Part 1: Choose the correct answer (A,B, C or D) to fill in each blank in the following passage. (1m) The Edinburg Festival is the biggest arts festival in the world. (17) .............. August, thousands of people come to the city to join the festival. It (18) …..…….. for three weeks and has a lot of activities. People enjoy music and dance performances in the streets (19) ……….… early morning until late at night. They also see artists painting pictures in the streets. One of the most interesting parts of the festival is “Fringe”. Here people enjoy comedy shows by students in small halls and cafes. At this festival, tourists also have a chance to (20) ……….. new films, plays and listen to famous musicians playing great music. Although it is the world’s largest als festival, its tickets are quite cheap. This is one of the reasons why it attracts so many people every year. 17. A. Every B. Between C. On D. At 18. A. ends B. begins C. goes D. lasts 19. A. between B. on C. from D. in 20. A. create B. see C. learn D. join Part 2: Read the passage and decide if each of the statements is rigth (R) or wrong (W) (1m) Last Saturday, my family had dinner at Orient House, a new restaurant in our city. It was on Blackwood Street, about thirty minutes by car from our house. That street was usually crowded; however, on that day, there were not many cars and lorries. We got there in fifteen minutes and could easily find a car park in front of the restaurant. When we entered the restaurant, a friendly waiter welcomed us, took us to our table, and brought us the menu. Because we arrived quite early, there were not many guests. At
first, I didn't know what food to order, so my mum gave me some advice because she was a good cook. I ordered some pasta and chicken. They looked like home-cooked dishes but tasted really different. I loved the beef steak most, and my parents loved the seafood. The dishes there were expensive, but they all were fantastic. R/W 21. The restaurant wasn't crowded when the family arrived. ………………. 22. It took them 30 minutes to drive there from their house. ………………. 23. They had trouble looking for a car park. ………………. 24. The mother advised on what to have for dinner. ………………. IV. WRITING (2ms) Part 1. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same meaning as the given one. (1m) 25. My mother's pancakes are really delicious. A. I want to make delicious pancakes for my mother. B. I like my mother's food. C. My mother's pancakes taste good. D. My mother cannot cook pancake. 26. Lucy eats ices all day so she has a sore throat. A. Lucy doesn't eat ices so she has a sore throat. B. She has a sore throat so she eats ices all day. C. Lucy likes eating ices because her throat is not hurt. D. Lucy has a sore throat because she eats ices all day. 27. There isn’t much coffee in the bottle. A. There is a little coffee in the bottle. B. There is few coffee in the bottle. C. There isn’t any coffee in the bottle. D. There is a few coffee in the bottle. 28. He played football, but now he doesn’t play any more. A. He likes playing football now. B. He is playing football these days. C. He didn’t use to play football. D. He used to play football. Part 2. Use the given words/ phrases to make complete sentences. (1m) 29. My brothers/ very good/ play/ volleyball. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… 30. If/ you/ eat/ too /cheese/ you/ have/ stomachache. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… 31. David/ thin/ long hair/ black eyes. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… 32. She/ love/ music/ so/ she/ go/ music festival/ every summer. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… THE END
TRƯỜNG TH- THCS THẮNG LỢI KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ I TỔ: TIẾNG ANH-HĐGD NĂM HỌC 2024- 2025 Họ và tên………………………… MÔN: TIẾNG ANH-LỚP 7 Lớp………… (Thời gian làm bài 45 phút) ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC ĐỀ IV (Đề có 32 câu, in trong 3 trang) Score: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2ms) Part 1: Listen to a conversation between a boy and his mother. Listen and choose the correct answer (A,B,C or D). There is one example. (1m) 0. What game did Richard play today? A. Volleyball B. Football C. Basketball D. Badminton 1. What has Richard hurt? A. His hand B. His foot C. His head D. His leg 2. Where are Richard’s football shorts? A. On the balcony B. In the bathroom C. By the door D. On the kitchen floor 3. What does Richard need for football? A. A new sweater. B. New football socks. C. A football shirt. D. A ball. 4. What is Richard going to do on Friday evening? A. Go to the cinema. B. Play games. C. Watch a football match. D. Go to his friend’s party. Part 2: Listen to a conversation between Jacky and Pete. Write R (right) or W (wrong). (1m) R/W 5. Jacky never listens to hip-hop. …………. 6. Pete likes classical music because it's relaxing. …………. 7. Pete likes rock because it's exciting. …………. 8. Jacky thinks jazz is boring. …………. II. READING (2ms) Part 1: Choose the correct answer (A,B, C or D) to fill in each blank in the following passage. (1m) The Edinburg Festival is the biggest arts festival in the world. (9) .............. August, thousands of people come to the city to join the festival. It (10) …..…….. for three weeks and has a lot of activities. People enjoy music and dance performances in the
streets (11) ……….… early morning until late at night. They also see artists painting pictures in the streets. One of the most interesting parts of the festival is “Fringe”. Here people enjoy comedy shows by students in small halls and cafes. At this festival, tourists also have a chance to (12) ……….. new films, plays and listen to famous musicians playing great music. Although it is the world’s largest als festival, its tickets are quite cheap. This is one of the reasons why it attracts so many people every year. 9. A. Every B. Between C. On D. At 10. A. ends B. begins C. goes D. lasts 11. A. between B. on C. from D. in 12. A. create B. see C. learn D. join Part 2: Read the passage and decide if each of the statements is rigth (R) or wrong (W) (1m) Last Saturday, my family had dinner at Orient House, a new restaurant in our city. It was on Blackwood Street, about thirty minutes by car from our house. That street was usually crowded; however, on that day, there were not many cars and lorries. We got there in fifteen minutes and could easily find a car park in front of the restaurant. When we entered the restaurant, a friendly waiter welcomed us, took us to our table, and brought us the menu. Because we arrived quite early, there were not many guests. At first, I didn't know what food to order, so my mum gave me some advice because she was a good cook. I ordered some pasta and chicken. They looked like home-cooked dishes but tasted really different. I loved the beef steak most, and my parents loved the seafood. The dishes there were expensive, but they all were fantastic. R/W 13. The restaurant wasn't crowded when the family arrived. ………………. 14. It took them 30 minutes to drive there from their house. ………………. 15. They had trouble looking for a car park. ………………. 16. The mother advised on what to have for dinner. ………………. III. LANGUAGE (2ms) Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) to complete the following sentences. 17. I don’t have ……….. kiwis, but I have …………… oranges. A. some/ some B. any/ any C.some/ any D. any/ some 18. Choose the word that has the OPPOSITE meaning to the word in bold. - I think yoga is boring. A. tiring B. interesting C. dangerous D. safe 19. Choose the word that has a stress pattern different from the others. A. tradition B. performance C. festival D. collection 20. Where are my flippers? I need them to go ………… with my classmates tomorrow. A. surfing B. jogging C. sailing D. snorkelling 21. He hates waiting for things. He is a(n) …………… person. A. impatient B. bossy C. unhappy D. naughty
22. We can’t leave the theatre yet. The …………. is full of people. A. curtain B. balcony C. stage D. aisle 23. I think I …………… vanilla ice cream for dessert. It looks delicious. A. have B. am going to have C. am having D. will have 24. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others. A. now B. show C. bow D. cow IV. WRITING (2ms) Part 1. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same meaning as the given one. (1m) 25. He played football, but now he doesn’t play any more. A. He likes playing football now. B. He is playing football these days. C. He didn’t use to play football. D. He used to play football. 26. My mother's pancakes are really delicious. A. I want to make delicious pancakes for my mother. B. I like my mother's food. C. My mother's pancakes taste good. D. My mother cannot cook pancake. 27. Lucy eats ices all day so she has a sore throat. A. Lucy doesn't eat ices so she has a sore throat. B. She has a sore throat so she eats ices all day. C. Lucy likes eating ices because her throat is not hurt. D. Lucy has a sore throat because she eats ices all day. 28. There isn’t much coffee in the bottle. A. There is a little coffee in the bottle. B. There is few coffee in the bottle. C. There isn’t any coffee in the bottle. D. There is a few coffee in the bottle. Part 2. Use the given words/ phrases to make complete sentences. (1m) 29. She/ love/ music/ so/ she/ go/ music festival/ every summer. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… 30. My brothers/ very good/ play/ volleyball. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… 31. If/ you/ eat/ too /cheese/ you/ have/ stomachache. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… 32. David/ thin/ long hair/ black eyes. → ………………………………………………………………………………………… THE END
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ I NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 (RIGHT ON) ĐỀ I A> HƯỚNG DẪN CHUNG : Tổng cộng 8 điểm I. LISTENING: 2,0 điểm Part 1: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm II. LANGUAGE: 2,0 điểm 2.0 điểm = 0,25 x 8. Mỗi câu đúng được 0,25 điểm III. READING: 2,0 điểm Part 1: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm IV. WRITING: 2,0 điểm Part 1: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm *Trong quá trình chấm bài, nếu học sinh làm khác đáp án nhưng vẫn đúng thì giáo viên linh hoạt ghi điểm cho các em trong phạm vi số điểm qui định. B> ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM: PHÂN NỘI DUNG ĐIỂM I. LISTENING 2,0 điểm Part 1 1,0 điểm 1 B. His hand 0.25đ 2 C. By the door 0.25đ 3 A. A new sweater. 0.25đ 4 D. Go to his friend’s party. 0.25đ Part 2 1,0 điểm 5 W 0.25đ 6 R 0.25đ 7 W 0.25đ 8 R 0.25đ II. 2.0 điểm LANGUAGE: 9 B. will have 0.25đ 10 B. any/ some 0.25đ 11 D. show 0.25đ 12 D. interesting 0.25đ 13 A. festival 0.25đ 14 B. snorkelling 0.25đ 15 C. impatient 0.25đ 16 B. aisle 0.25đ
III. READING 2.0 điểm Part 1 1.0 điểm 17 C. Every 0.25đ 18 B. lasts 0.25đ 19 A. from 0.25đ 20 D. see 0.25đ Part 2 1.0 điểm 21 R 0.25đ 22 W 0.25đ 23 W 0.25đ 24 R 0.25đ IV. WRITING 2.0 điểm Part 1 1.0 điểm 25 C. There is a little coffee in the bottle. 0.25đ 26 B. He used to play football. 0.25đ 27 A. My mother's pancakes taste good. 0.25đ 28 B. Lucy has a sore throat because she eats ices all day. 0.25đ Part 2 1.0 điểm 29 David is thin with long hair and black eyes. 0.25đ 30 She loves music, so she goes to music festival every 0.25đ summer. 31 My brothers are very good at playing volleyball. 0.25đ 32 If you eat too much cheese, you will have a 0.25đ stomachache. ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ I NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 (RIGHT ON) ĐỀ II A> HƯỚNG DẪN CHUNG : Tổng cộng 8 điểm I. LISTENING: 2,0 điểm Part 1: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm II. READING: 2,0 điểm Part 1: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm III. LANGUAGE: 2,0 điểm 2.0 điểm = 0,25 x 8. Mỗi câu đúng được 0,25 điểm IV. WRITING: 2,0 điểm Part 1: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm
*Trong quá trình chấm bài, nếu học sinh làm khác đáp án nhưng vẫn đúng thì giáo viên linh hoạt ghi điểm cho các em trong phạm vi số điểm qui định. B> ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM: PHÂN NỘI DUNG ĐIỂM I. LISTENING 2,0 điểm Part 1 1,0 điểm 1 C. His hand 0.25đ 2 D. By the door 0.25đ 3 B. A new sweater. 0.25đ 4 A. Go to his friend’s party. 0.25đ Part 2 1,0 điểm 5 W 0.25đ 6 R 0.25đ 7 W 0.25đ 8 R 0.25đ II. READING 2.0 điểm Part 1 1.0 điểm 9 D. Every 0.25đ 10 C. lasts 0.25đ 11 B. from 0.25đ 12 A. see 0.25đ Part 2 1.0 điểm 13 R 0.25đ 14 W 0.25đ 15 W 0.25đ 16 R 0.25đ III. 2.0 điểm LANGUAGE: 17 D. impatient 0.25đ 18 C. aisle 0.25đ 19 C. will have 0.25đ 20 A. show 0.25đ 21 C. any/ some 0.25đ 22 A. interesting 0.25đ 23 B. festival 0.25đ 24 C. snorkelling 0.25đ IV. WRITING 2.0 điểm Part 1 1.0 điểm 25 C. Lucy has a sore throat because she eats ices all day. 0.25đ 26 D. There is a little coffee in the bottle. 0.25đ
27 C. He used to play football. 0.25đ 28 B. My mother's pancakes taste good. 0.25đ Part 2 1.0 điểm 29 If you eat too much cheese, you will have a 0.25đ stomachache. 30 David is thin with long hair and black eyes. 0.25đ 31 She loves music, so she goes to music festival every 0.25đ summer. 32 My brothers are very good at playing volleyball. 0.25đ ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ I NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 (RIGHT ON) ĐỀ III A> HƯỚNG DẪN CHUNG : Tổng cộng 8 điểm I. LISTENING: 2,0 điểm Part 1: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm II. LANGUAGE: 2,0 điểm 2.0 điểm = 0,25 x 8. Mỗi câu đúng được 0,25 điểm III. READING: 2,0 điểm Part 1: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm IV. WRITING: 2,0 điểm Part 1: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm *Trong quá trình chấm bài, nếu học sinh làm khác đáp án nhưng vẫn đúng thì giáo viên linh hoạt ghi điểm cho các em trong phạm vi số điểm qui định. B> ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM: PHÂN NỘI DUNG ĐIỂM I. LISTENING 2,0 điểm Part 1 1,0 điểm 1 D. His hand 0.25đ 2 A. By the door 0.25đ 3 C. A new sweater. 0.25đ 4 B. Go to his friend’s party. 0.25đ Part 2 1,0 điểm 5 W 0.25đ 6 R 0.25đ 7 W 0.25đ 8 R 0.25đ II. 2.0 điểm