Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Trãi, Núi Thành

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Trãi, Núi Thành

UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ I-NĂM HỌC 2024 – 2025 TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 7 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Thí sinh làm bài trên giấy riêng A. LANGUAGE COMPONENT. (2.0 pts) Task 1: Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently (0,4 pts) 1. A. visited B. donated C. picked D. collected 2. A. pot B. pork C. doctor D. hot Task 2: Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. (1.6 pts) 3. Eating _________and exercising can help you keep fit and stay healthy. A. photos B. chapped lips C. coloured vegetables D. soft drinks 4. Tom and his friends _________the plants in their neighbourhood every weekend. A. tutor B. water C. donate D. litter 5. You can see many interesting _______in that art gallery. A. paints B. colours C. portraits D. songs 6. There is _______rice left. Not much but just enough for our breakfast. A. some B. many C. lots of D. any 7. This camera is not as expensive ______I thought at first. A. as B. with C. like D. from 8. We _____English to children in a primary school last summer. A. are teaching B. taught C. teach D. will teach 9. My mum enjoys _______yoga every day to keep fit. A. do to B. do C. doing D. to doing 10. Mark _______doing judo every day. A. like B. liked C. will like D. likes B. READING: (2.0 pts) Task 1: Read the text and fill in the blank with suitable words from the box. (1.0 pt) musicians compose songs grew well-known I’m sure that you have heard the name Trinh Cong Son many times. He was one of the most famous (11) ____________ and songwriters of Viet Nam in the 20th century. He was born in 1939 in Dak Lak Province. As a child he (12) ______________ up in Hue. Later he went to Sai Gon to study. He began to write songs and became (13) _____________ in 1958. He continued to (14) ____________ music all his life. He wrote about 600 songs in all. Among his best songs are Noi vong tay lon (Circle of Unity), Ha Trang (White Summer) and Cat Bui (Dust). His (15) _____________ are mostly about love, human condition, and nature. He died in Ho Chi Minh City in 2001. His songs remain popular among the Vietnamese all over the world today. Many have been translated into English, French,Japaneseandotherlanguages. Task 2. Read the text and circle the best answer to each question below. (1.0 pts) The Temple of Literature is about 10 minutes away from Hoan Kiem Lake. It was constructed in 1070 under Ly Thanh Tong’s dynasty, first to honor Confucius and nowadays to celebrate the doctorates and high rank scholars of Vietnam. In 1076, Emperor Ly Nhan Tong continued the work and built the Imperial Academy as the first university of Vietnam. The temple is divided into five courtyards. The first courtyard is from the main gate to Dai Trung Gate. The second is with Khue Van Pavilion. The pavilion symbol is used on all street signs of Ha Noi. The third courtyard is the place where doctorate names were listed on the stone tablets above tortoise backs. The fourth courtyard is dedicated for Confucius and his 72 honoured students, as well as Chu Van An - one of the most famous teachers at the Imperial Academy. The last is also the farthest courtyard is Thai Hoc House, which was used as the Imperial Academy. Thai Hoc House holds a small collection of old- time costumes for students and scholars. 16. Where is the Temple of Literature? A. In Ha Noi B. In Quang Ninh C. In Ninh Binh D. In Quang Binh 17. When and by whom was it built? A. In 1070 under Ly Thai Tong B. In 1070 under Ly Nhan Tong
C. In 1070 under Ly Thanh Tong D. In 1070 under Tran Nhan Tong 18. How many courtyards are there in the Temple of Literature? A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Seven 19. Which courtyard dedicated for Confucius and his 72 honoured students? A. The first courtyard B. The second courtyard C.The third courtyard D. The fourth courtyard 20. What was used as the Imperial Academy? A. Khue Van pavilion B. Dai Trung gate C. Stone tablets D. Thai Hoc House C. WRITING: (2,0 pts) Task 1: Choose A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English: (0,4 pts): 21. I need any butter to make this pancake. A B C D 22. How many salt do we need to make omelette? A B C D Task 2: Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged, using the words given in brackets: (0,8 pts) 23. We avoid sweetened food. We avoid soft drinks. (Writing a simple sentence) -> We avoid____________________________________________________________________ 24. I think action films are more interesting than comedies. → I think comedies are not as _____________________________________________________ 25. Life in the city is different from life in the countryside. -> Life in the countryside is not ____________________________________________________ 26. Mai doesn’t like to watch TV in the morning. (Rewrite with “hate”) -> Mai________________________________________________________________________ Task 3. Write complete sentences from the words given: (0,8 pts): 27. We / join/ community activities/ help/ needy/ last summer. -> ____________________________________________________________________________ 28. How many/ gram/flour / we/ need/ make pancakes/ today? -> _____________________________________________________________________________ ? D. LISTENING. (2.0 pts) Task 1: Listen to the dialogue and decide if the statements below are true (T) or false (F). (1.0pts) N0 Statements T F 29 People in Minh’s area often have four meals a day. 30 Most of them have lunch at home. 31 Dinner is the main meal of the day. 32 They rarely have rice with a lot of fresh vegetables and seafood or meat for dinner 33 They have some fruit and green tea after dinner Task 2: Listen to a man talking about street paintings and circle the best answer A, B, C or D. (1.0 pts) 34. Street painting began __________. A. in the 16th century B. in the 6th century C. in 1994 D. in the 26th century 35. At a street painting event, you can ______. A. buy a painting B. become an artist C. talk to artists D. become an musician 36. The Lake Worth Street Painting Festival is one of the largest events in _____________. A. Australia B. England C. the United States D. Vietnam 37.The Lake Worth Street Painting Festival happens in ___________ every year. A. only sometimes B. every month C. every January D every February 38. About 100,000 visitors come to___________ it. A. enjoy B. paint C. draw D. see ******The end******
UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ I- NĂM HỌC 2024 – 2025 TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 7 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Thí sinh làm bài trên giấy riêng A. LANGUAGE COMPONENT. (2.0 pts) Task 1: Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently (0,4 pts) 1. A. passed B. helped C. cooked D. donated 2. A. pork B. sport C. fond D. horse Task 2: Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. (1.6 pts) 3. Children shouldn’t drink __________because they aren’t good for their health. A. orange juice B. soft drink C. lemonade D. mineral water. 4. We __________old textbooks to children in rural areas. A. litter B. tutor C. donate D. water 5. My friend Tom is very talented. He plays three __________. A. musical instruments B. classical C. the piano D. puppet shows 6. Ther are __________ cars in our city. Too many. I don’t like it. A. some B. much C. lots of D. any 7. You like folk songs ; I like pop music. Your taste is __________from mine. A. with B. as C. different D. like 8. Children __________ plastic bottles for recycling a month ago. A. are collecting B. collect C. collected D. will collect 9. My sister likes __________camping at the weekend. A. go B. going C. go to D. to going 10. I __________a drawing lesson every Tuesday. A. are having B. have C. will have D. had B. READING: (2.0 pts) Task 1: Read the text and fill in the blank with suitable words from the box. (1.0 pts) costumes listen creative instructions take In Britain children start school when they are five. Their first year - the reception - is usually a very happy one for the child. They learn to follow (11) __________ from the teachers. Lots of new skills are introduced. Communal activities, socialising with the other children, learning to (12) __________ turns are all part of the first-year experience. As they paint, draw, and do other (13) __________ activities, they interact with other children and their language skills develop. When they have music and movement lessons or gym activities, they learn to control their body movements. Children learn to cooperate with others. During music lessons, they have to (14) __________ to a rhythm and try to copy it, and sing simple tunes. In the morning students have number work and reading skills. The afternoons are more creative. They learn to have parties, make little cakes and pour cups of tea for others. They love dressing up in (15) __________ and acting like adults. Task 2. Read the text and circle the best answer to each question below. (1.0 pts) The Temple of Literature is about 10 minutes away from Hoan Kiem Lake. It was constructed in 1070 under Ly Thanh Tong’s dynasty, first to honor Confucius and nowadays to celebrate the doctorates and high rank scholars of Vietnam. In 1076, Emperor Ly Nhan Tong continued the work and built the Imperial Academy as the first university of Vietnam. The temple is divided into five courtyards. The first courtyard is from the main gate to Dai Trung Gate. The second is with Khue Van Pavilion. The pavilion symbol is used on all street signs of Ha Noi. The third courtyard is the place where doctorate names were listed on the stone tablets above tortoise backs. The fourth courtyard is dedicated for Confucius and his 72 honoured students, as well as Chu Van An - one of the most famous teachers at the Imperial Academy. The last is also the farthest courtyard is Thai Hoc House, which was used as the Imperial Academy. Thai Hoc House holds a small collection of old- time costumes for students and scholars.
16. Where is the Temple of Literature? A. In Ninh Binh B. In Quang Binh C. In Ha Noi D. In Quang Ninh 17. When and by whom was it built? A. In 1070 under Tran Nhan Tong B. In 1070 under Ly Thanh Tong C. In 1070 under Ly Nhan Tong D. In 1070 under Ly Thai Tong 18. How many courtyards are there in the Temple of Literature? A. Seven B. Six C. Four D. Five 19. Which courtyard dedicated for Confucius and his 72 honoured students? A. The fourth courtyard B. The third courtyard C.The second courtyard D. The first courtyard 20. What was used as the Imperial Academy? A. Dai Trung gate B. Khue Van pavilion C. Thai Hoc House D. Stone tablets C. WRITING: (2,0 pts) Task 1: Choose A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English: (0,4 pts): 21. Are there some oranges on the table ? A B C D 22. How much apples do we need to make this apple pie today ? A B C D Task 2: Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged, using the words given in brackets: (0,8 pts) 23. You should wear a hat. You should wear suncream. -> You should wear________________________________________________________________ 24. Our maths homework is more difficult than our history homework. →Our history homework is not as____________________________________________________ 25. Life in the city is not like in the country side. → Life in the countryside is _____________________________________________________________ 26. My sisters don’t enjoy collecting stamps. => My sisters dislike ______________________________________________________ ________ Task 3: Write complete sentences from the words given: (0,8 pts): 27. We / learn/ teamwork skills/ when/ join/ some/ clean-up activities/ last summer. -> ____________________________________________________________________________ 28. How many/ bottle/ juice/ you/ buy/ for/ party /yesterday? ->__________________________________________________________________________ ? D. LISTENING. (2.0 pts) Task 1: Listen to Minh talking about eating habit and tick true (T) or false (F) (1.0 pts ) N0 Statements T F 29 People in Minh’s area often have three meals a day. 30 Most of them go out for lunch. 31 Lunch is the main meal of the day. 32 They often have rice with a lot of fresh vegetables and seafood or meat for dinner 33 They have some fruit and mineral water after dinner Task 2: Listen to a man talking about street paintings and circle the best answer A, B, C or D. (1.0pts) 34. Street painting began __________ A. in 1994 B. in the 6th century C. in the 16th century D. in the 26th century 35. At a street painting event, you can ______ A. buy a painting B. become an musician C. talk to artists D. become an artist 36. The Lake Worth Street Painting Festival is one of the largest events in _______________ A. Australia B.the United States C. England D. Vietnam 37. The Lake Worth Street Painting Festival happens in ___________ every year A.every February B. every month C. every January D. only sometimes 38. About 100,000 visitors come to___________ it A. draw B. paint C. enjoy D. see
******The end****** UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ I TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI NĂM HỌC 2024 – 2025 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 A. LANGUAGE COMPONENT. (2.0 điểm) Task 1. (0.4 điểm) Mỗi câu chọn đúng 0.2 điểm 1. C 2. B Task 2. (1.6 điểm) Mỗi câu chọn đúng 0.2 điểm 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. D B. READING: (2.0 điểm) Task 1: (1.0 điểm) Mỗi câu điền đúng 0.2 điểm 11. musicians 12.grew 13. well known 14. compose 15. songs Task 2: (1.0 điểm) Mỗi câu chọn đúng 0.2 điểm 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. D C. WRITING: (2,0 điểm) Task 1: (0,4 điểm): Mỗi câu chọn đúng 0.2 điểm 21. B 22. A Task 2: (0,8 điểm) Mỗi câu viết đúng 0.2 điểm 23. > We avoid sweetened food and soft drinks. 24. > I think comedies are not as interesting as action films. 25. > Life in the countryside is not like/ the same as life in the city. 26. >. Mai hates watching / to watch TV in the morning. Task 3: (0,8 diểm): Mỗi câu viết đúng 0.4 điểm 27. > We joined community activities to help the needy last summer. 28. > How many grams of flour do we need to make pancakes today ? *Chú ý: Tùy theo mức độ đạt được của bài làm, giáo viên quyết định điểm cho phù hợp ở Task 2,3 D. LISTENING. (2.0 điểm) Task 1: (1.0 điểm) Mỗi câu viết đúng T hoặc F được 0.2 điểm 29. F 30. T 31. T 32. F 33. T Task 2. (1.0 pt) Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0,2 điểm
34. A 35. B 36. C 37. D 38. A …........... The end .............. UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ I TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI NĂM HỌC 2024 – 2025 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 A. LANGUAGE COMPONENT. (2.0 điểm) Task 1. (0.4 điểm) Mỗi câu chọn đúng 0.2 điểm 1. D 2. C Task 2. (1.6 điểm) Mỗi câu chọn đúng 0.2 điểm 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C 8. C 9. B 10.B B. READING: (2.0 điểm) Task 1: (1.0 điểm) Mỗi câu điền đúng 0.2 điểm 11. instructions 12. take 13. creative 14.listen 15. costumes Task 2: (1.0 điểm) Mỗi câu chọn đúng 0.2 điểm 16. C 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. C C. WRITING: (2,0 điểm) Task 1: (0,4 điểm): Mỗi câu chọn đúng 0.2 điểm 21.B 22. A Task 2: (0,8 điểm) Mỗi câu viết đúng 0.2 điểm 23. > You should wear a hat and suncream. 24. > Our history homework is not as difficult as maths homework. 25. > Life in the countryside is different from/ not the same as life in the city. 26. => My sisters dislike collecting stamps. Task 3: (0,8 diểm): Mỗi câu viết đúng 0.4 điểm 27. > We learnt/ learned teamwork skills when we joined some cleanup activities last summer. 28. > How many bottles of juice did you buy for the party yesterday ? *Chú ý: Tùy theo mức độ đạt được của bài làm, giáo viên quyết định điểm cho phù hợp ở Task 2, 3. D. LISTENING. (2.0 điểm)
Part 1: (1.0 điểm) Mỗi câu viết đúng T (đúng) hoặc F (sai) được 0.2 điểm 29. T 30. F 31. F 32. T 33. F Part 2. (1.0 pt) Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0,2 điểm 34. C 35. D 36. B 37. A 38. C …........... The end ..............
UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI MATRIX FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 7) School year: 2024-2025 N Com Low App High App PARTS Mark Task types o . o f TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL Q u e s Indicate the word whose underlined part is 2 0.4 0,4 pronounced differently form the LANGUAG others. E COMPON ENT 3 0,6 MCQs: 0,4 0,2 (2,0) Circle the best option MCQs: 5 1,0 Circle the 0,4 0,6 best option Read the text and fill in the blank 5 1,0 (with 0,8 0,2 suitable READING words from (2,0) the box) Read the text and 5 1,0 0,8 0,2 circle the best answer:
2 0,4 (Error identificatio n) Circle A, B, C or D which is not 0,4 correct in standard English 4 0,8 (Sentence transformati on) Rewrite the WRITING sentences so (2,0) as its 0,8 meaning keeps unchanged 2 0,8 (Sentence building) Write complete sentences 0,8 from the words given. 5 1.0 - Listen and 1.0 tick T or F LISTENIN G 5 1.0 - Listen and (2,0) circle the 1,0 best answer TOTAL(8,0) 3 8.0 2,2 1,6 0,8 8 2 0,4 Introduction 0,4 SPEAKIN 5 1,0 Topic 0,2 0,8 G speaking (2,0) 3 0,6 Questions 0,4 0,2 and Answer Grand Total 4 10,0 8 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0)
UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI SPECIFICATION FOR THE SECOND END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 7) School year: 2023-2024 No. of Com Low App High App PARTS Mar Re C Ques k O NT TL TN TL TN TL TN TL TN EN TS Pronunciat Indicate the LANGUA ion: word whose GE - Sent 1: underlined COMPON sounds/ t/ part is ENT and /id/ 2 0.4 pronounced 0,4 (2,0) - Sent 2: differently sounds/ɔ:/ form the &/ɔ/ others. Vocabulary : 3: a noun about food 2 0,4 0,4 4. a verb Odd one about out community service. Vocabulary 1 0,2 MCQs: 0,2 : Circle the 5: a noun best option about
music and art Grammar points: 6: a sentence about lots of/ a lot of . 2 0,4 0,4 7: a sentence about comparison s. Grammar points: 8: a sentence about the MCQs: past simple. Circle the 9: a best option sentence about verbs 3 0,6 0,6 of liking and disliking. 10: a sentence about simple present tense. READING 11: a word (Cloze test) (2,0) occupation Read the al noun text about 12: a word music and about a art and fill verb in the blank 4 0,8 0,8 13: a word (with about an suitable adjective words from 14: a word the box) about a verb 15: a word 1 0,2 0,2 about a
noun 16: Choose the best answer for a WH- question ( Where ) 17: Choose the best answer for a WH- question ( When ) ( Reading 18: Choose 4 0,8 comprehens 0,8 the best ion) Read answer for the text a WH- about The question Temple of ( How Literaturean many ) d circle the 19: Choose best answer the best answer for a WH- question ( Which ) 20: Choose the best answer for 1 0,2 0,2 a WH- question ( What ) 21: a (Error WRITING sentence identificatio (2,0) about n) Circle A, some/ any B, C or D 22: a 2 0,4 which is not sentence 0,4 correct in about How standard many / English How much. 23: a 4 0,8 (Sentence 0,8 sentence transformati about on) Rewrite
simple sentences. 24: a sentence about comparison the s sentences 25: a so as its sentence meaning about keeps comparison unchanged s. 26: a sentence about verbs of liking/ disliking. 27. a (Sentence sentence building) about the Write past simple. complete 28. a 2 0,8 0,8 sentences sentence from the about How words many/ How given. much. 29-33: T/F - Listen statement about food 5 1.0 1.0 and drink and tick T/F LISTENIN G - 34-38: - Listen (2,0) Circle the about music best answer and art and 5 1.0 1,0 (A, B, C or circle the D) best answer TOTAL (8,0) 38 8.0 3,4 2,2 1,6 0,8 SPEAKIN - Introduce 2 0,4 Introductio 0,4 G personal n (2,0) information (traffic, films, festivals
around the world, energy sources, travelling in the future.) - Randomly take one vocab topic (traffic, films, festivals around the world, energy sources, travelling in the future) - 5 minutes for preparation Topic 5 1,0 0,2 0,8 - Look at speaking the pictures and answer the question “What is this?” - two vocabs in situation - Student point the word from teacher’s explanation - Answer 3 0,6 Questions 0,4 0,2 three and questions Answers about one of the topics
(traffic, films, festivals around the world, energy sources, travelling in the future) Grand Total 46 10,0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0)