Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường THCS Quán Toan

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DISTRICT PEOPLE’S COMMITTEE OF HONG BANG ..................................................................Date of test: May..……, 2023 THE FINAL TERM TEST School year: 2022- 2023 Subject: English 6 - Time: 60’ Giám thị 1 Giám thị 2 Họ và tên ………………………............…...……. Lớp 6…..............…. SBD: ………………………. DISTRICT PEOPLE’S COMMITTEE OF HONG BANG ..................................................................Date of test: May ..……, 2023 THE FINAL TERM TEST School year: 2022- 2023 Subject: English 6 - Time: 60’ Giám thị 1 Giám thị 2 Họ và tên ………………………............…...……. Lớp 6…..............…. SBD: ………………………. DISTRICT PEOPLE’S COMMITTEE OF HONG BANG ..................................................................Date of test: May ..……, 2023 THE FINAL TERM TEST School year: 2022- 2023 Subject: English 6 - Time: 60’ Giám thị 1 Giám thị 2 Họ và tên ………………………............…...……. Lớp 6…..............…. SBD: ………………………. 1
DISTRICT PEOPLE’S COMMITTEE OF HONG BANG ..................................................................Date of test: May ..……, 2023 THE FINAL TERM TEST School year: 2022- 2023 Subject: English 6 - Time: 60’ Điểm bằng số Điểm bằng chữ Chữ ký GK1 Chữ ký GK2 Mã phách PART I: LISTENING (1,6 points) I. Listen to two students talking about what they will do if they become the presidents of the 3Rs club then choose A, B or C to best answer the questions. (0.8 pt) 1. What class is Mi in? A. 6A B. 6E C. 6A D. 6C 2. If I become the president of the Club what will she do first? A. organize some book fairs B. reuse the things C. exchange their used booksD. putting a recycling bin 3. How will Nam feel if he becomes the president of the Club? A. great B. surprised C. fun D. fine 4. Where can students can exchange used uniforms with other students? A. book fairs B. every classroom C. uniform fairs D. uniform stores II. Listen to the dialogue between two students and decide whether each statement is True or False. Write T (true) or F (false). (0.8 pt) Statements True False 5. Jack is reading the TV guide. T F 6. Animal Kingdom is Mia’s favourite TV programme. T F 7. They both watched Animal Kingdom last week. T F 8. Animal Kingdom is an educational programme and it is on every Saturday. T F PART II: LANGUAGE (2,4 points) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others. (0.4 pt) 9. A. nose B. cold C. flower D. hole 10. A. father B. without C. weather D. bath II. Choose the word that has different stress pattern.(0.4 pt) 11. A. reduce B. bedroom C. enjoy D. reuse 12. A. pollute B. palace C. picture D. modern III. Circle the best answer. (1.6 pts) 13. _______ mother is a teacher. She started _______ job fifteen years ago. A. My – hersB. Mine – hersC. Mine – herD. My - her 14. The Nile River is the _______ river in the world. A. long B. longest C. longer D. most long 15. We can _______ things like plastic bottles and cans. A. to reduce B. cook C. do D. reuse 16. Robots will do most of the housework, _______ we will have more time for our family. A. so B. but C. although D. if 17. I like this gym. _______ equipment here is new and cool. 2
A. An B. A C. The D. ø 18. If you study hard, you_______ the exam. A. pass B. will pass C. passes D. passed 19. James: “The car of the future will probably run on water.” – Steve: “_______” A. Good job! B. How fantastic! C. Good idea! D. Well done! 20. Mia _______ school last year and moved to Toronto to find a job. A. leftB. leavesC. is leavingD. leaves PART III: READING. (2 points) I. Choose the best answer to fill in the blank (1 pt) My future house will be (21) _______ an island. It will be surrounded by tall trees and blue sea. There will be a helicopter on the roof so that I can flyto school. There will be some (22) _______in the house. They will help me (23) _______ the housework, such as: cleaning the floors, cooking meals, washing clothes, and watering the flowers. I will have a super (24) _______TV in my bedroom so I can sit on my bed and watch it. The TV will help me surf the Internet, send and receive my e-mails, (25) _______contact my friends on other planets. 21. A. at B. on C. in D. of 22. A. robots B. kitchens C. bedrooms D. bathrooms 23. A. make B. play C. do D. go 24. A. new B.smart C. beautiful D. fast 25. A. and B. but C. because D. so II. choose the correct answers. Read the following passage and (1 pt) A robot cannot think or do things alone. People use a computer to control it. Today, robots are becoming useful in our lives. They can help us to save a lot of time and work. A robot can do the same work for 24 hours, and yet, it does not complain or get tired. In the US, people use robots as security guards in some important places. These robots can listen for certain noises and send signals for help if there’s trouble or danger. In Japan, people use robots in factories to build cars. In the future, scientists will design many types of intelligent robots. Their robots will help us to do many more complicated things. However, some people do not like robots. They fear that one day robots will be too powerful. 26. Why do people use a computer to control a robot? A. Because it can save time and work. B. Because it is very useful. C. Because it cannot think or do things alone. D. Because it is too expensive. 27. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the text? A. Robots cannot do the same work for 24 hours. B. Robots do not get tired of working. C. People use computers to control robots. D. People use robots as security guards in some important places in the US. 28. The word “it” in the text refers to_______. A. work B. the US C. a computer D. a robot 29. In Japan, people use robots in factories to_______. A. guard important places B. build cars C. listen to certain noises D. do many more complicated things 30. What is the best title of the passage? A. What a robot can do B. Robots in factories C. What a robot can’t do D. Home robots PART IV: WRITING (2 points) I. Choose the part that needs correcting by circling A, B, C or D (0.6 pt) 31. One day, people mightto travel to the moon for holiday. A B C D 32. She is a untidy girl because she doesn’t clean her room. A B C D 33. We didn’t boughtany bread because the baker’s was closed. A B C D II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first. (0.6 pt) 3
34. My phone didn’t work last night, so I couldn’t send you a message. → I …………………………………………………………………………………………………… 35. Don’t play with knives. You will cut yourself. → If …………………………………………………………………………………………............... 36. Maybe Peter won’t come to the party tonight. → Peter might ………………………………………………………………………………………… III. Write the sentences with the words provided. (0.8 pt) 37. That / his jacket /over there, but/ this one / mine. →……………………………………………………………………………………………………… 38. We / not win / game / yesterday, but /we/ have / lot /fun. →……………………………………………………………………………………………………… 39. If/ there / no water, /plants / die. →……………………………………………………………………………………………………… 40. Ho Chi Minh / the / big / city/ Vietnam. →……………………………………………………………………………………………………… PART V: SPEAKING (2 points) The end 4
UBND QUẬN HỒNG BÀNG ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ II ........................................................ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 .......... Năm học: 2022- 2023 PART 1: LISTENING (1.6 points – 0.2 each) I.Listen to two students talking about what they will do if they become the presidents of the 3Rs club then choose A, B or C to best answer the questions. 1. A.2. D. 3. C. 4. C. II.Listen to the dialogue between two students and decide whether each statement is True or False. Write T (true) or F (false). (0.8 pt) 5. T 6. F 7. F 8. T PART 2. LANGUAGE (2.4 points – 0.2 each) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others. 9. C 10. D II. Choose the word that has different stress pattern (0.4pt). 11. B 12. A III. Circle the best answer. (1.6 pts) 13. D 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. A PART 3: READING (2 points – 0.2 each) I. Choose the correct word A, B or C to fill each blank in the following passage. 21 – B 22 – A 23 – C 24 – B 25 – A II. Choose the correct answers. 26. C. 27. A. 28. D. 29. B. 30. A. PART 4: WRITING (2 points – 0.2 each) I. Choose the part that needs correcting by circling A, B, C or D then correct it 31. C 32. A 33. A II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first. 34. I couldn’t send you a message because my phone didn’t work last night. 35. If you play with knives, you will cut yourself. 36. Peter might not come to the party tonight. III. Write the sentences with the words provided. 37. That is his jacket over there, but this one is mine. 38. We did not/didn’t win the game yesterday, but we had a lot of fun. 39. If there is no water, plants will die. 40. Ho Chi Minh is the biggest city in Vietnam. 5
LISTENING I.Listen to two students talking about what they will do if they become the presidents of the 3Rs club then choose A, B or C to best answer the questions. Mi: I’m Mi from class 6A. If I become the president of the 3Rs Club, firstly, I’ll talk to my friends about putting a recycling bin in every classroom. Then we can reuse or sell the things we have in these bins. Secondly, if we get a lot of money from selling these things, we’ll buy energy-saving lights for every class. Finally, I’ll organize a few book fairs. There, students can swap their used books. Nam: I’m Nam from class 6E. If I become the president of the Club, I’ll encourage the students to go to school by bus. It’ll be fun and save the environment. Next, I will set up a gardening group. We can grow flowers in our school garden. Finally, I’ll organize some uniform fairs. There, students can swap their used uniforms with younger or older students. II. Listen to the dialogue between two students and decide whether each statement is True or False. Write T (true) or F (false). Here are some interesting TV programmes for you. Green Summer, a music programme, is on channel 1. It starts at eight o’clock. My Childhood is on channel 2. It’s the story of a country boy and his dog Billy. On channel 3, you will catch Harry Potter at 8.30. Children all over the world love this film. If you like to learn English, you can go to English and Fun on channel 1. It’s at nine o’clock. We hope you can choose a programme for yourself. Enjoy and have a great time. SPEAKING SUGGESTED ANSWERS Part 1: INTRODUCTION (0.5pt) - Personal information: Name, age, class, address - Hobby (hobby’s name, why you have the hobby, benefits of the hobby) Part 2: TOPIC SPEAKING (1pt) 1. Talk about your future house - place - kind of house - surroundings - appliances - number of rooms Part 3: QUESTIONS AND ANSWER (0.5pt) Answer the teacher’s questions on the topic. 1. Where will you live in the future? 2. What will it be surrounded by? 3. What will it be like? 4. How many rooms will your house have? 5. What appliances might it have? PART V: SPEAKING (2 points) I. Introduction: Talk about yourselves * Giáo viên có thể hỏi một số câu hỏi cơ bản dưới đây: - Name / middle name / family name. - Age. - Job. - Class / grade. - Hobbies - School - Home address.
II. Topic speaking 1/Describe a city you like most? - Location? - Building or tourist attractions? - Weather? - People? - Things to do 2/ Describe your dream house in the future - Location? - What does it look like? - What appliances will it have? 3/ What can you do to protect the environment? - What are environmental problems in Viet Nam nowadays? - What should people do? - What can you do as a student to help the environment? PART 5: SPEAKING This test consists of 3 parts as follow: Part 1:INTRODUCTION (0.5pt) Talk about yourself (personal information) Part 2: TOPIC SPEAKING (1pt) Talking about your future house Part 3: QUESTIONS AND ANSWER (0.5pt) Answer the teacher’s questions on the topic. 1. Where will you live in the future? 2. What will it be surrounded by? 3. What will it be like? 4. How many rooms? 5. What appliances might it have?