Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Phan Châu Trinh, Phú Ninh

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“Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Phan Châu Trinh, Phú Ninh” giúp các bạn học sinh có thêm tài liệu ôn tập, luyện tập giải đề nhằm nắm vững được những kiến thức, kĩ năng cơ bản, đồng thời vận dụng kiến thức để giải các bài tập một cách thuận lợi. Chúc các bạn thi tốt!

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Phan Châu Trinh, Phú Ninh

MA TRẬN ĐỀ THI CUỐI KỲ ANH 6 (ENGLISH 6) NĂM HỌC: 2023-2024 No. Com High App PARTS Mar Task types Re of k TL TN TL TN TL Ques TN TL TN Pronunciat LANGUA ion: GE Indicate the COMPON word whose ENT underlined (2,0) part is 2 0.4 0,4 pronounced differently form the others : /θ/, /ð/; /əʊ/, /aʊ/ Vocabulary :MCQs: Circle the 3 0,6 0,4 0,2 best option (Unit 7- Unit 11) 5 1,0 Grammar: MCQs: 0,4 0,6 Circle the best option Past simple; Question words,; conjuntion in compound sentences: and, but, so;
Imperatives ; Possessive adjectives; Possessive pronouns Read the text and fill in the blank (with 5 1,0 suitable 0,8 0,2 words from the box) READING (my future (2,0) house) Read the text and circle the 5 1,0 best answer 0,8 0,2 (The famous place 2 0,4 (Error WRITING identificatio (2,0) n) Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English 0,4 Conditional Type 1 Sentence about article 4 0,8 (Sentence transformat ion) 0,8 Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps
unchanged -conjuntion in compound sentences: so; Imperatives ; Possessive pronounsC onditional Type 1 2 0,8 (Sentence building) Write complete sentences from the words 0,8 given. -Past simple; Conditional Type 1 5 1.0 - Listen and 1.0 circle the best answer 5 1.0 - Listen LISTENIN and tick G True (T) or (2,0) Fasle (F) 1,0 (City of the world) TOTAL(8,0) 38 8.0 3,4 2,2 0,8 SPEAKIN 2 0,4 Introductio 0,4 G n (2,0) 5 1,0 Topic 0,2 0,8 speaking Unit 7: T.V Unit 8:
Sports and Games Unit 9: Cities of the World Unit 10: Our Houses in the Future Unit 11: Our Greener World 3 0,6 Unit 7: T.V Unit 8: Sports and Games Unit 9: Cities of the World Unit 10: 0,4 0,2 Our Houses in the Future Unit 11: Our Greener World Grand Total 48 10,0 4,0 3,0 1,0 (10,0) ĐẶC TẢ ĐỀ THI CUỐI KỲ 2 ANH 6 CONTE No. of Com Low App High App PARTS Mark Task Re NTS Ques types TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL
Pronunciation: -Sen 1: sounds: /θ/ and /ð/ 2 0,4 -Sen 2: sounds/au/ and /əu/ Vocabulary: -Sen 3: 1 word about, TV,TV progamme 0,4 -Sen 4: 1 word about 4 appliances -Sen 5:1 word about sport -Sen 6: 1 word about a 0,2 LANGUAGE famous place COMPONENT Grammar points: (2.0) Grammar points: -Sen 7: 1 sentence about conjunction (so,but) -Sen 8: 1 sentence about past 0.6 simple 4 0.4 -Sen 9: 1 sentence about question word -Sen 10: 1 sentence about possessive adjective / possessive pronouns -Sen 11: 1 word about to be -Sen 12: 1 word about a noun -Sen 13: 1 word about a verb -Sen 14: 1 word about an verb 5 0,8 0,2 -Sen 15: 1 word about preposition 1-Sen 16: Choose the best answer for a WH-question READING 2- Sen 17: Choose the best (2.0) answer for a WH-question 3- Sen 18: Choose the best answer for a H-question 5 0,8 0,2 4.Sen 19: Find the incorrect statement 5-Sen 20: What does the word “…” in the text refer to?
-Sen 21: 1 sentence about Conditional Type 1 2 -Sen 22: 1 sentence about 0,4 article -Sen 23: -1 sentence about conjunction “so” -Sen 24: 1 sentence about WRITING Conditional Type 1 (2.0) -Sen 25: 1 make questions 0,8 with When 4 -Sen 26: 1 sentence about possessive -Sen 27: 1 sentence about past simple 2 0.8 -Sen 28: Conditional Type 1 -Sen 29-32: Choose the best LISTENING 5 1.0 answer (2.0) -Sen 33-38: T/F statement 5 1.0 TOTAL(8,0) 38 3,4 2,2 0,8 0,8 0,8 Introductio 2 0,4 n 0,4 SPEAKIN Topic 5 1,0 G speaking 0,2 0,8 (2,0) Questions 3 0,6 and 0,4 0,2 Answer 48 TOTAL(10.0) 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0
TRƯỜNG THCS PHAN CHÂU TRINH KIỂM TRA CUỐI HK II Họ tên HS:…………………………… Năm học: 2023 - 2024 Số phách Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 6 Lớp: …….SBD: …… Phòng thi……… Ngày thi:....../…../...... ……… Thời gian: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Chữ ký GT 1: ……………. Chữ ký GT 2: ……………………. Số TT ……… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… Số TT Điểm bằng chữ: Nhận xét: ........... Số phách Điểm bằng số: ………. Số tờ: … GK 1:…………… GK 2:………… ………. MÃ ĐỀ A A. LANGUAGE COMPONENT: (2.0) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others . Circle A, B, C, or D. 1. A. anything B. both C. through D. neither 2. A.tower B. postcard C. crowded D. house II. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. (2.0pts) 3. Most children like ___________because they make them laugh a lot. A. films B. love stories C. comedies D. documentaries 4_____________can help us to wash and dry dishes A. electric cooker B. dishwasher C. fridge D.washing machine 5. Pelé is a great _____________player from Brazil. A. football B. tennis C. badminton D.volleyball 6. The Big Ben is a famous _____________ in LonDon. A. city B. palace C. landmark D. night market 7. I'm tired, __________ I'll go to bed early. A. and B. but C. or D. so 8. Where______you________ last night? A. did/went B. were/go C. did/go D. Do/go 9. Tom: - “ ______ is your favourite sport?” - Mai: - “I like tennis.” A. What B. Which C. Who D. Where 10. My house is near ______ house, so I usually go there and play badminton with her. A. her B. his C. she D. hers
Học sinh không viết vào ô này ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… B. READING: I. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from the box. (1.0 pts) from be pool help fly My future house will (11)_________ on an island. It will be surrounded by tall trees and the blue sea. There will be a swimming (12) ____________ in front of the house. There will be a helicopter on the roof. I can (13)______________ to school in it. There will be some robots in the house. They will help me to clean the floors, cook meals, wash clothes and water the flowers. They will also (14)_________me to feed the dogs and cats. There will be a super smart TV. It will help me to send and receive emails, and contact my friends on other planets. It will also help me to buy food (15)___________ the supermarket. II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, or C. (1.0 pt) Sydney Opera House The Sydney Opera House is one of the most popular landmarks in Australia. It is located on Bennelong Point in Sydney Harbour. More than 7 million tourists visit it each year. There are so many restaurants, bars, hotels that surround the Harbour. It also gives a lot of different shows and performance every year. The Sydney Opera House is known as one of the busiest and the most well-known centres not only in Australia but all over the world. 16. What is the main idea of the text? A. Television B. The famous place C. Sports 17. Where is The Sydney Opera House? A. England B. The USA C. Australia 18. How many tourists do they visit Sydney Opera House every year? A. More than 7 million B. Less 7 million C. More than 8 million 19. Which of the following sentence is NOT TRUE? A. The Sydney Opera House is one of the most popular landmarks in Australia. B. More than 7 million tourists visit it each year. C. It gives some different shows and performance every year. 20. What does “it” in line 2 in the text refer to? A. The Sydney Opera House B. Sydney Harbour C. Australia
Học sinh không viết vào ô này ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… C. WRITING I.Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English. (0.4 pt) 21. If they come there earlier, they miss the bus A B C D 22. A dolphin isa intelligent animal A B C D II. Rewrite the sentences : (0.8 pt) 23. Because he stayed up late to watch a football match, he was tired. ( Using so)  He stayed………………………………………………………………………. 24. Hung studies hard. He passes his exam ( Using If)  ………………………………………………………….. 25. My birthday will be on the first of May( Make question with When)  ………………………………………. ……….. 26. These are their maps.  These maps are…………………………………. III. Write complete sentences from the words given. (0.8 pt) 27. I / not/ watch / Tom and Jerry / TV / last night. ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 28. If/It/be/fine,/we/go/camping/tomorrow ……………………………………………………………………………………………. D. LISTENING I. Listen and circle the best answer(1.0 pts) 29. What type of house does Linda have? A. UFO B. palace C. villa 30. It has a swimming pool and a ____________ A. garden B. yard C. tree 31.Nick’s dream house is ____________
A. a palace. B. a flat. C. building. 32 Where is Nick’s dream house? A. by the sea B. in the countryside. C. in the city. 33. Nick’s dream house has a super smart TV. I can watch films from other ________ A. stars B. planets C. countries Học sinh không viết vào ô này ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… II. Listen then tick () TRUE or FALSE. (1.0 pt) STATEMENT TRUE FALSE 34. Singapore is a small island city-state. 35. A good way to see the city is by taking a car 36. The bus goes fast around the city 37. You can get off the bus anywhere, and then get on the next bus. 38. The tour costs 35 dollars, and there is a bus every 30 minutes. HỌC SINH KHUYẾT TẬT KHÔNG LÀM CÂU 23,24,25,26,27,28 Người ra đề : Người Duyệt và kiểm tra đề Ký: Ký:
TRƯỜNG THCS ………………………. KIỂM TRA CUỐI HK II Họ tên HS:…………………………… Năm học: 2023 - 2024 Số phách Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 6 Lớp: …….SBD: …… Phòng thi……… Ngày thi:....../…../...... ……… Thời gian: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Chữ ký GT 1: ……………. Chữ ký GT 2: ……………………. Số TT ……… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… Số TT Điểm bằng chữ: Nhận xét: ........... Số phách Điểm bằng số: ………. Số tờ: … GK 1:…………… GK 2:………… ………. MÃ ĐỀ B A. LANGUAGE COMPONENT: (2.0) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others . Circle A, B, C, or D. 1. A. anything B. both C. through D. neither 2. A.tower B. postcard C. crowded D. house II. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. (2.0pts) 3. Pelé is a great _____________player from Brazil. A. football B. tennis C. badminton D.volleyball 4. Most children like ___________because they make them laugh a lot. A. films B. love stories C. comedies D. documentaries 5. The Big Ben is a famous _____________ in LonDon. A. city B. palace C. landmark D. night market 6. Tom: - “ ______ is your favourite sport?” - Mai: - “I like tennis.” A. What B. Which C. Who D. Where
7_____________can help us to wash and dry dishes A. electric cooker B. dishwasher C. fridge D.washing machine 8. I'm tired, __________ I'll go to bed early. A. and B. but C. or D. so 9. My house is near ______ house, so I usually go there and play badminton with her. A. her B. his C. she D. hers 10. Where______you________ last night? A. did/went B. were/go C. did/go D. Do/go Học sinh không viết vào ô này ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… B. READING: I. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from the box. (1.0 pts) from be pool help fly My future house will (11)_________ on an island. It will be surrounded by tall trees and the blue sea. There will be a swimming (12) ____________ in front of the house. There will be a helicopter on the roof. I can (13)______________ to school in it. There will be some robots in the house. They will help me to clean the floors, cook meals, wash clothes and water the flowers. They will also (14)_________me to feed the dogs and cats. There will be a super smart TV. It will help me to send and receive emails, and contact my friends on other planets. It will also help me to buy food (15)___________ the supermarket. II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, or C. (1.0 pt) Sydney Opera House The Sydney Opera House is one of the most popular landmarks in Australia. It is located on Bennelong Point in Sydney Harbour. More than 7 million tourists visit it each year. There are so many restaurants, bars, hotels that surround the Harbour. It also gives a lot of different shows and performance every year. The Sydney Opera House is known as
one of the busiest and the most well-known centres not only in Australia but all over the world. 16. What is the main idea of the text? A. Television B. The famous place C. Sports 17. Where is The Sydney Opera House? A. England B. The USA C. Australia 18. How many tourists do they visit Sydney Opera House every year? A. More than 7 million B. Less 7 million C. More than 8 million 19. Which of the following sentence is NOT TRUE? A. The Sydney Opera House is one of the most popular landmarks in Australia. B. More than 7 million tourists visit it each year. C. It gives some different shows and performance every year. 20. What does “it” in line 2 in the text refer to? A. The Sydney Opera House B. Sydney Harbour C. Australia Học sinh không viết vào ô này ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… C. WRITING I.Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English. (0.4 pt) 21. If they come there earlier, they miss the bus A B C D 22. A dolphin isa intelligent animal A B C D II. Rewrite the sentences : (0.8 pt) 23. Because he stayed up late to watch a football match, he was tired. ( Using so)  He stayed………………………………………………………………………. 24. Hung studies hard. He passes his exam ( Using If)  ………………………………………………………….. 25. My birthday will be on the first of May( Make question with When)  ………………………………………. ……….. 26. These are their maps.  These maps are………………………………….
III. Write complete sentences from the words given. (0.8 pt) 27. I / not/ watch / Tom and Jerry / TV / last night. ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 28. If/It/be/fine,/we/go/camping/tomorrow ……………………………………………………………………………………………. D. LISTENING I. Listen and circle the best answer(1.0 pts) 29. What type of house does Linda have? A. UFO B. palace C. villa 30. It has a swimming pool and a ____________ A. garden B. yard C. tree 31.Nick’s dream house is ____________ A. a palace. B. a flat. C. building. 32 Where is Nick’s dream house? A. by the sea B. in the countryside. C. in the city. 33. Nick’s dream house has a super smart TV. I can watch films from other ________ A. stars B. planets C. countries Học sinh không viết vào ô này ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… II. Listen then tick () TRUE or FALSE. (1.0 pt) STATEMENT TRUE FALSE 34. Singapore is a small island city-state. 35. A good way to see the city is by taking a car 36. The bus goes fast around the city 37. You can get off the bus anywhere, and then get on the next bus.
38. The tour costs 35 dollars, and there is a bus every 30 minutes. HỌC SINH KHUYẾT TẬT KHÔNG LÀM CÂU 23,24,25,26,27,28 Người ra đề : Người Duyệt và kiểm tra đề Ký: Ký: ĐÁP ÁN MÃ ĐỀ A A. LANGUAGE COMPONENT: (2.0) Mỗi câu đúng 0.2 điểm I. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from that of the others. Circle A, B, C, or D. 1. D 2. B II. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. (2.0pts) 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. A.
B. READING: I. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from the box. (1.0 pts) 11. be 12. pool 13. Fly 14. help 15.from . II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, or C. (1.0 pt) 16.B 17.C 18.A 19. C 20. A C. WRITING I.Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English. (0.4 pt) 21. C 22. C II. Rewrite the sentences : (0.8 pt) 23. He stayed up late to watch a football match, so he was tired. 24. IfHung studies hard, he will pass his exam 25. When will your birthday will be ? 26. These maps are theirs III. Write complete sentences from the words given. (0.8 pt) 27. I did not watch Tom and Jerry on TV last night. 28. If It is fine,we will go camping tomorrow D. LISTENING I. Listen and circle the best answer(1.0 pts) 29. C. 30. A 31. B 32.C 33. B II. Listen then tick () TRUE or FALSE. (1.0 pt) 34. T 35. F 36. F 37. T 38. T MÃ ĐỀ B A. LANGUAGE COMPONENT: (2.0)
I. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from that of the others. Circle A, B, C, or D. 1. B 2. D II. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. (2.0pts) 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. D. 9. A. 10. C B. READING: Mỗi câu đúng 0.2 điểm I. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from the box. (1.0 pts) 11. be 12. pool 13. Fly 14. help 15.from . II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, or C. (1.0 pt) 16.B 17.C 18.A 19. C 20. A C. WRITING I.Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English. (0.4 pt) 21. C 22. C II. Rewrite the sentences : (0.8 pt) 23. He stayed up late to watch a football match, so he was tired. 24. If Hung studies hard, he will pass his exam 25. When will your birthday will be ? 26. These maps are theirs III. Write complete sentences from the words given. (0.8 pt) 27. I did not watch Tom and Jerry on TV last night. 28. If It is fine,we will go camping tomorrow D. LISTENING I. Listen and circle the best answer(1.0 pts) 29. C. 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. B II. Listen then tick () TRUE or FALSE. (1.0 pt) 34. T 35. F 36. F
37. T 38. T ĐÁP ÁN DÀNH CHO HỌC SINH KHUYẾT TẬT MÃ ĐỀ A A. LANGUAGE COMPONENT: (2.5)Mỗi câu đúng 0.25 điểm I. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from that of the others. Circle A, B, C, or D. 1. D 2. B II. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. (2.0pts) 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. A. B. READING: 2.5 điểm Mỗi câu đúng 0.25 điểm I. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from the box. 11. be 12. pool 13. Fly 14. help 15.from . II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, or C. 16.B 17.C 18.A 19. C 20. A C. WRITING I.Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English. (0.25 pt) 21. C 22. C D. LISTENING 2.5 Mỗi câu đúng 0.25 điểm I. Listen and circle the best answer 29. C. 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. B II. Listen then tick () TRUE or FALSE. 34. T 35. F 36. F
37. T 38. T MÃ ĐỀ B. A. LANGUAGE COMPONENT: (2.5) Mỗi câu đúng 0.25 điểm I. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from that of the others. Circle A, B, C, or D. 1. B 2. D II. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. D. 9. A. 10. C C. WRITING I.Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English. (0.25 pt) 21. C 22. C D. LISTENING 2.5 Mỗi câu đúng 0.25 điểm I. Listen and circle the best answer 29. C. 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. B II. Listen then tick () TRUE or FALSE. 34. T 35. F 36. F 37. T 38. T TRƯỜNG THCS PHAN CHÂU TRINH ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CKII NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 KỸ NĂNG NÓI ( Speaking) THỜI GIAN: 10 PHÚT ( Trang này chỉ dành riêng cho giám khảo) - Giám khảo gọi mỗi lượt 2 học sinh để thực hiện phần kiểm tra nói