Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Lý Thường Kiệt, Hiệp Đức

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PHÒNG GD&ĐT HIỆP ĐỨC KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II – NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 TRƯỜNG TH&THCS LÝ THƯỜNG KIỆT MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 9 Thời gian: 45 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Họ và tên học sinh: Điểm Điểm Nhận xét và chữ ký Chữ ký của bằng số bằng chữ của giám khảo giám thị ………………………………........ Lớp: ………… PART I: LISTENING (2ms) 1. From questions 1 to 5, listen to a woman talking about her vacation plan. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D. You will listen TWICE. (1m) 1. The speaker has never been to ………………..before. A. the U.S B. Asia C. Australia D. Hong Kong 2. She will be spending …………………days in Singapore. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 3. This tour doesn’t include the trip to…………….. A. Seoul B. Thailand C.Hong Kong D. Beijing 4. She ‘ll end up in Thailand for…………………days. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 5. She thinks she won’t be able to get to…………………on the trip. A. Tokyo B. Ha Noi C. Bangkok D. Sydney 2. From questions 6 to 10, listen about the benefits of tourism and fill in the blanks with ONE word.. You will listen TWICE. (1m) 6. Tourism has certainly become an important ………………. in the development of many countries. 7. It contributes greatly to……………………….. of a region or country. 8. Tourism also helps promote international understanding and ………………….. among nations. 9. Tourism can……………………. the standard of living of local or rural communities. 10.Tourism brings cultural benefits, learn about the history and …………………….. of a place. PART II: LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2ms) 1. From questions 11 to 12, choose the word which has different sound in the underlined part. (0,4m) 11. A. sun B. sea C. sand D. sugar 12 A. attended B. improved C. dedicated D. exhibited 2. From questions 13 to 20, choose the best answer to complete each sentence (1.6m) 13. Make sure you ................a hotel before you come to our island, especially in the summer. A.keep B.book C.put D.buy 14. I picked ……………………a few words of English on holiday. A. up B. in C. by D. on 15. With a………………………, you can have a great experience watching the stars. A. satellite B. rocket C. telescope D. universe 16. Thomas………………….. an experienced salesman before he decided to set up his own business. A. has been B. had been C. is D. is being 17. The United Nations, ……………. was established in 1945, has over 200 members.
A. which B. that C. what D. it 18. I am interested in ……. history, especially …..… history of Western of Europe. A. the/ the B. 0/ the C. 0/ 0 D. a/ a 19. If she……………….here, she would……………..you some advice. A. be/ give B. were/ giving C. were/ giving D. were/ give 20. The girl …………… you talked to yesterday is fluent ………. both English and Japanese. A. who/ by B. which/ by C. who/ in D. which/ in PART III. READING (2ms) 1. From questions 21 to 25, read the passage and fill in the blanks with suitable words from the box (1m) lucky on subjects are which Every year, students in many countries learn English. Some of these students (21)……………….. young children. Others are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn at school, others study by themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language in films, (22)……………… television, in the office or among their friends. But not many are (23)………………… enough to do that. Most people must work hard to learn another language. Many boys and girls learn English at school because it is one of their (24)…………………. They study their own language, mathematics, and English. In England, America, or Australia, many boys and girls study their native language, (25)…………………is English, mathematics, and another language, perhaps French, or German or Spanish. 2. From questions 26 to 30, read a passage and choose the best answers (1m) Australia is a country comprising the mainland of the Australian continent, the island of Tasmania and numerous smaller islands. It is the world’s sixth-largest country by total area. Australia’s capital is Canberra, and its largest urban area is Sydney. For about 50000 years before the first British settlement in the late 18th century, Australia was inhabited by indigenous Australians, who spoke languages classifiable into roughly 250 groups. After the European discovery of the continent by Dutch explorers in 1606, Autralia’s eastern half was claimed by Great Britain in 1770 and initially settled through penal transportation to the colony of New Wouth Wales from 26 January 1788. The population grew steadily in subsequent decades, and by the 1850s most of the continent had been explored and an additional five self-governing crown colonies established. On 1 January 1901, the six colonies federated, forming the Commonwealth of Australia. Australia has since maintained a stable liberal democratic political system. The population of 24 milion is highly urbanized and heavily concentrated on the eastern seaboard. Australia has the world’s 13th-largest economy and ninth-highest per capita income (IMF). With the second-highest human development index globally, the country ranks highly in quality of life, health, education, economic freedom, and civil liberties and political right. 26. What is the capital of Australia?
A. Tasmania B. Sydney C. Canberra D. Great Britain 27. How many groups of languages were spoken by Australians before the 18th British settlement? A. 500 B. 250 C. 240 D. 300 28. Which group of European people discovered the Australia continent? A. The Australian B. The British C. The Welsh D. The Dutch 29. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. The Australian continent, and many islands make up Australia. B. Sydney is the world’s largest urban area. C. The quality of life, health and education of Australia is good. D. The eastern seaboard is an area of dense population. 30. What is the purpose of this passage? A. To explain why Australia is a developed country B. To explain why Australia’s population is increasing C. To present overall information of Australia D. To present the history of Australia PART IV. WRITING (2ms) 1. From questions 31 to 32, circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English (0.4m) 31. Can you buy me some sticks of milk? There isn’t any milk left in the fridge. A B C D 32. By the time I had arrived at the party, everyone had already left. A B C D 2. From questions 33 to 34, rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged, using the words in brackets (0.8m) 33. They will build more flyovers to reduce traffic in the city. (be) --> More flyovers…………………………………………………………………………………………. 34. I used credit card to buy a computer game. The game is called “Mars Mystique Mission”. ( which) --> I used ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. From questions 35 to 36, write complete sentences from the words given (0.8m) 35. If/ I be/ you, / I / spend/ more time/ improve/ pronunciation. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 36. My mother/ work/ as/ teacher/ ten years / before / she / decide/ change/ careers. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
PHÒNG GD&ĐT HIỆP ĐỨC HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KT CUỐI KỲ II TRƯỜNG TH&THCS LÝ THƯỜNG KIỆT TIẾNG ANH LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 PART I: LISTENING (2ms) I. Listen and choose the best answers (1m) Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2đ 1. B 2. B 3. D 4. C 5.A II. Listen and fill in the gaps (1m) Mỗi câu đúng 0.2đ 6. factor 7. income 8. cooperation 9. improve 10. culture PART II: LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2MS) 1. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the word which has a different stress pattern from the others. (0.4 m) Mỗi câu đúng 0.2đ 11. D 12.B 2. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence. Circle the letter A, B, C or D (1.6ms) Mỗi câu đúng 0.2đ 13.B- 14.A- 15.C- 16.B- 17.A- 18.B- 19.D- 20.C PART III. READING (2ms) 1. Choose the word from the box to complete the passage(1m) 2. Mỗi câu đúng 0.2đ 21. are 22. on 23. lucky 24. subjects 25. which 2. Read the passage and choose the best answers (1m) Mỗi câu đúng 0.2đ 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. B 30. C PART IV. WRITING (2ms) 1. Which is not correct in standard English (0.4m) Mỗi câu đúng 0.2đ 31. B- 32.A 2. Rewrite the sentences (0.8m) Mỗi câu đúng 0.4 đ 33.More flyovers will be built to reduce traffic in the city. 34. I used credit card to buy a computer game which is called “Mars Mystique Mission”. 3. write complete sentences from the words given (0.8m) Mỗi câu đúng 0.4 đ
35. If I were/was you, I would spend more time to improve my/ the pronunciation. 36. My mother had worked as a teacher for ten years before she decided to change careers. TRANSCRIPTS PART 1 I'm so excited about my trip to Asia. I've never been there before. First, I'm flying to Singapore from the U.S. I'll be spending three days there, because I hear that there's a lot to see and do. I'll also be spending three days in Seoul. I hear the nightlife there is great. Then we go from there to Hong Kong. I'm planning to do lots of shopping there, so I hope two days is enough time to buy everything I need. I would really love to go to Beijing for a few days. But, unfortunately, this tour doesn't go there. After Hong Kong, we'll end up in Thailand for five days. So I guess I won't be able to get to Tokyo or Malaysia on this trip. Oh, well. I have to save a few places to visit on my next vacation. PART 2 Thanks to the widespread use of modern means of transport, people have more choice of holiday restination and can now visit even the remotest parts of the world. Tourism has certainly become an important factor in the development of many countries. An obvious benefit of tourism is that it plays a key role in economic growth. It contributes greatly to income of a region or country. It also brings job opportunities to all kinds of people, and therefore helps promote prosperity in diverse fields. Another positive aspect of tourism is that it helps promote international understanding and cooperation among nations. In addition, tourism can improve the standard of living of local or rural communities, so young people are encouraged to stay in their hometown to build a good life rather than move to big cities. Finally, tourism brings cultural benefits, learn about the history and culture of a place, and spread them around the world.In the other hand, the drawbacks of tourism can't be denied ...
PHÒNG GD & ĐT HIỆP ĐỨC TRƯỜNG TH-THCS LÝ THƯỜNG KIỆT MATRIX FOR THE SECOND END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 9) School year: 2023-2024 No. of Com High App PARTS Mark Task types Ques TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL - Listen and 5 1.0 circle the 1.0 LISTENIN best answer G - Listen and (2,0) 5 1.0 fill in the 1,0 blanks. Indicate the word which has a 2 0.4 different 0,4 stress LANGUAG pattern from E the others. COMPON MCQs: ENT 3 0,6 Circle the 0,4 0,2 (2,0) best option MCQs: 5 1,0 Circle the 0,4 0,6 best option Read the text and fill in the blank 5 1,0 (with 0,8 0,2 suitable READING words from (2,0) the box) Read the text and 5 1,0 0,8 0,2 circle the best answer: 2 0,4 (Error 0,4 WRITING identificatio (2,0) n) Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in
standard English (Sentence transformati on) Rewrite the 2 0,8 sentences so 0,8 as its meaning keeps unchanged (Sentence building) Write complete 2 0,8 0,8 sentences from the words given. TOTAL(8,0) 36 8.0 2,2 0,8 2 0,4 Introduction 0,4 SPEAKIN Topic G 5 1,0 0,2 0,8 speaking (2,0) Questions 3 0,6 0,4 0,2 and Answer Grand Total 46 10,0 3,0 1,0 (10,0) PHÒNG GD&ĐT HIỆP ĐỨC TRƯỜNG TH&THCS LÝ THƯỜNG KIỆT SPECIFICATION FOR THE SECOND END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 9) School year: 2023-2024 No. of Re Com Low App High App PARTS CONTENTS Ques TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL LISTENIN -Q 1-5: 5 1.0 - Listen to a 1.0 G Multiple woman
talking about her vacation choice plan and choose the best (2,0) answers - Listen about the -Q 6-10: benefits of 5 1.0 1,0 Gap-filling tourism and fill in the blanks Pronunciat LANGUA ion: GE -Q 11: the Indicate the COMPON difference word which ENT between 2 has a (2,0) sounds /s/ different 2 0.4 0,4 and /ɭ/ ; stress -Q12 : the pattern difference from the between 2 others. sounds /d/ and /id/ ; Vocabulary : -Q13 : 1 MCQs: noun about Circle the tourism 2 0,4 best option 0,4 -Q14: 1 word about learning English Vocabulary : MCQs: -Q 15: 1 1 0,2 Circle the 0,2 word about best option space travellling Grammar 2 0,4 points: 0,4 -Q 16: 1 sentence
about past perfect -Q17: 1 sentence about ralative clauses Grammar points: -Q18: 1 sentence about articles MCQs: --Q19: 1 Circle the sentence best option about 3 0,6 0,6 conditional sentences type 2 -Q 20: 1 sentence about relative clauses+ preposition READING -Q 21: 1 (2,0) word about verb -Q 22: 1 word about a (Cloze test) preposition 4 0,8 Read the 0,8 text and fill -Q 23: 1 in the blank word about (with an adj suitable -Q 24: 1 words from word about the box) a noun -Q 25: 1 word about 1 0,2 0,2 relative pronoun -Q 26: 4 0,8 ( Reading 0,8 Choose the comprehens
best answer for a WH- question (What) - Q 27: Choose the best answer for a WH- question (How many) ion) Read -Q 28: the passage Choose the and circle best answer the best for a WH- answer question (Which) -Q 29: Choose the NOT TRUE sentence -Q 30: Find the main 1 0,2 0,2 purpose of the text -Q 31: 1 sentence (Error WRITING identificatio (2,0) about quantifiers n) Circle A, B, C or D -Q 32: 1 2 0,4 0,4 which is not sentence correct in about past standard perfect/ English past simple -Q 33: -1 (Sentence 0,8 sentence 2 0,8 transformati about on) Rewrite future the passive sentences -Q 34: 1 so as its sentence meaning about keeps raltive unchanged clauses
-Q 35: 1 sentence about (Sentence conditional building) sentence Write type 2 complete 2 0,8 0,8 sentences - Q 36: 1 from the sentence words about past given. perfect/ past simple TOTAL(8,0) 36 3,4 2,2 1,6 0,8 SPEAKIN - Introduce G personal (2,0) information (hobby, Introductio school, 3 0,6 0,6 n houses, family, teacher, subject..) -Randomly take one topic (eating habit, tourism, the way to learn English, Topic space 4 0.8 0,8 speaking travelling, changing roles in the soceity) - Ss present their idea about the topics -Answer 3 0,6 Questions 0,4 0,2 three and questions Answers about one
of the topics (eating habit, tourism, the way to learn English, space travelling, changing roles in the soceity Grand Total 46 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0)