intTypePromotion=1
zunia.vn Tuyển sinh 2024 dành cho Gen-Z zunia.vn zunia.vn
ADSENSE

Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2023-2024 - Trường TH&THCS Đại Thạnh, Đại Lộc

Chia sẻ: _ _ | Ngày: | Loại File: DOCX | Số trang:6

7
lượt xem
2
download
 
  Download Vui lòng tải xuống để xem tài liệu đầy đủ

‘Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2023-2024 - Trường TH&THCS Đại Thạnh, Đại Lộc’ sau đây sẽ giúp bạn đọc nắm bắt được cấu trúc đề thi, từ đó có kế hoạch ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức một cách bài bản hơn, chuẩn bị tốt cho kỳ thi sắp. Mời các bạn cùng tham khảo nội dung chi tiết.

Chủ đề:
Lưu

Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2023-2024 - Trường TH&THCS Đại Thạnh, Đại Lộc

  1. Trường TH&THCS Đại Thạnh KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ II (2023-2024) Họ và Tên HS: …………………… Môn: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 9 Lớp: ………SBD: ………Phòng Thi: …… Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút Chữ ký của giám thị: Mã Phách: ……………………………………………………………………………… Điểm: Chữ ký của giám khảo: Mã phách: PART A. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word A, B, C, D whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others 1. A. package B. stalagmite C. accent D. safari II. Choose the word (A, B, C, D) whose main stress is placed differently from that of the others. 2. A. economic B. academic C. competition D. technology III. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. 3. A popular time of the year for holidays is called....................... A. check-out B. passer-by C. peak season D. bus stop 4. Christer Fulgesang said he enjoyed floating around in the ................... environment. A. homesick B. weightless C. virtual D. gravity 5. She spoke English with a(n) ................... that I couldn't understand. A. stress B. accent C. intonation D. tone 6. ……….. is a dish of small cakes of cold cooked rice, served with raw fish, avocado, etc. A. Sushi B. Mango sticky rice C. Cobb salad D. Curry 7. She ................... up some Spanish when she was living in Mexico. A. took B. looked C. picked D. learnt
  2. 8. If you...................to lose weight, you....................less rice and sweet food. A. want/ should eat B. will want/ eat C. wanted eat D. want/ eat 9. We have ................... rice, but we don’t have ................... meat. A. any - some B. some – some C. some - any D. any – any 10. The book ................... Amelie is reading now is about the Big Bang theory. A. which B. who C. where D. whose PART B. READING: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to fill in each numbered blank to complete the passage. Earth, our beautiful home planet, is the only astronomical object to accommodate life (11) ______ we know it. Scientists believe Earth was (12) ______ approximately 4.5 billion years ago. It is the fifth-largest (13) ______ in our solar system. Its equatorial diameter is about 12,074 kilometres. Earth is the third-closest planet to the sun. The distance from Earth to the sun is roughly 149,600,000 kilometres. It (14) ______ 365,3 days for Earth to orbit the sun, and 24 hours to rotate on its axis. The surface temperature ranges from -88 to 580C. Nearly 70 percent of Earth’s surface is covered by ocean, (15) ______ has an average depth of about 4 kilometres. In 2015 it was estimated that 7,3 billion humans are living on Earth. Phần phách bị cắt học sinh không làm bài vào đây 11. A. as B. so C. b 12. A. find B. formed C. f
  3. 13. A. system B. planet C. s 14. A. has B. takes C. g 15. A. what B. that C. w II. Read the following passage. Choose the correct answer. Sydney is Australia’s most exciting city. The history of Australia begins here. In 1788 Captain Arthur Philips arrived in Sydney with 11 ships and 1624 passengers from Britain (including 770 prisoners). Today there are about 3.6 million people in Sydney. It is the biggest city in Australia, the busiest port in the South Pacific and one of the most beautiful cities in the world. In Sydney, the buildings are higher, the colors are brighter and the nightlife is more exciting. There are over 20 excellent beaches close to Sydney and its warm climate and cool winter have made it a favorite city for immigrants from overseas. There are two things that make Sydney famous: its beautiful harbor, the Sydney Harbor Bridge, which was built in 1932 and the Sydney Opera House, which was opened in 1973. 16.Where did Captain Arthur Philips arrive in 1788? A. South Pacific B. Sydney Harbor C. Britain D. Sydney 17.Which of the following should be the title of the reading passage? A. Sydney’s Opera House B. The history of Sydney C. Sydney’s beaches and harbors D. An introduction of Sydney 18.Which of the following statements is NOT true about Sydney? A. Sydney is not a favorite city for immigrants from overseas. B. Sydney is one of the most beautiful cities in the world. C. Sydney is the most exciting city in Australia. D. Sydney is the biggest port in the South Pacific. 19. How many beaches are there close to Sydney? A. 11 beaches B. over 20 beaches C. nearly 20 beaches D. 770 beaches 20.When was the Sydney Harbor Bridge built? A. 1788 B. 1973 C. 1932 D. 1625 PART C. WRITING (2.0 pts) I. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C, D) that needs correcting. Then correct the mistakes. 21. If my English were good, I will confident at interviews. ………………. A B C D 22. After they finished their breakfast, they left for school. …………………
  4. A B C D II. Rewrite the sentences so that it means the same as the first. 23. The story is very interesting. My grandmother told me this story last night. The story ………….……………………………………………. 24. Don’t eat a lot of sweets or you may have problems with your teeth.  If………………………………………………………………... Phần phách bị cắt học sinh không làm bài vào đây 25. I haven’t practised my Russian for a long time. (RUSTY)  My ……………………………………………………………….…. 26. We did our homework, then we took a look around the shops  Before ……………………………………………………………….…. III. Make sentences using the words and phrases below. 27. The hotel/ will/ redecorate/ a famous designer.  ...................................................................................................................................... 28. French/ be easy to master if it/ not have/ difficult grammar. ........................................................................................................................................ PART D. LISTENING: (2.0 pts) I. Listen and tick (✔) true (T) or false (F). T F 29. Kenya was more male-dominated in the mid-twentieth century than now. 30. Women work to be financially independent.
  5. 31. The number of women attending colleges and universities has risen. 32. About one third of Kenyan females stayed at home as housewives in 1995. 33. In 2025, more than half of the student population in Kenya will be girls. II. Listen the conservation about English Club. Answer the questions by choosing A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversation twice 34. Which language is most spoken as a first language in the world? A. English B. Chinese C. Vietnamese D. Japanese 35. English has about ___________ words and technical terms. A. 500000 B. 300000 C. 100000 D. 800000 36. The ___________ of form makes English easy to learn. A. simplicity B. similarity C. openness D. flexibility 37. One of the reasons why the vocabulary of English is open is that it has _____.
  6. A. a lot of words B. many varieties C. borrowed many D. not mentioned words 38. Some English verbs are........................their nouns or adjectives. A. unlike B. the same as C. changed according to D. very different from ………. The end……..
ADSENSE

CÓ THỂ BẠN MUỐN DOWNLOAD

 

Đồng bộ tài khoản
2=>2