5 Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 năm 2017-2018 (Có Đáp Án)

5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI

MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 9

NĂM 2017-2018 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

1. Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh 9 năm 2017-2018

có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT Tam Nông

2. Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh 9 năm 2017-2018

có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT Hà Nam

3. Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh 9 năm 2017-2018

có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT Nghệ An

4. Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh 9 năm 2017-2018

có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT tỉnh Đồng Tháp

5. Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh 9 năm 2017-2018

có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT Vĩnh Phúc

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 HUYỆN TAM NÔNG CẤP HUYỆN

ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề ) (Đề thi gồm có: 06 trang)

C. innovation C. volunteer

D. communication D. engineer

B. pens

C. parks C. surprise

D. maps

B. organize B. campus

D. promise C. fade D. fashion

B. knew

C. has known

D. had known

D. was named

C. is named

B. named

D. won't she

B. does she

C. will she

D. Because

C. While

D. neither

C. either

B. but

B. procedures

C. treatments

D. measures

C. As a result of

D. Although

C. to fix

B. fixed

D. fix

B. seeing

D. to see

C. saw

D. to have been

C. have found

B. is found

II. PHONETICS (0.5 mark) A. Choose the word whose primary stress is pronounced differently from that of the others. Write your answer on the answer sheet. B. population 1. A. conservationist 2. A. Japanese B. behavior B. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. Write your answer on the answer sheet. 1. A. months 2. A. realize 3. A. interactive III. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY (3,5 marks) A. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to complete each sentence and write your answer on the answer sheet. 1. John wondered if the woman ____ him before. A. knows 2. Yesterday morning, I saw a girl Jane. A. names 3. She never goes to the market in the morning, ? A. doesn't she 4. I was waiting for a visa interview, I ate my lunch. A. Although B. Since 5. Mr. Yokohama recommended _ Mr. Yukihoro and Ms. Tamami for promotions A. both 6. Nowadays, many people still use traditional to cure some diseases. A. solutions 7. You don’t have to spend much money if you stay with your parents but you may not have much freedom. , you are very independent if you rent a room. A. In contrast B. Thus 8. I want to have someone my computer. There’s something wrong with it. A. fixing 9. Susan is looking forward to her pen pal again. A. see 10. The lost bike was expected __ last month. A. was found found B. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. There are 5 incorrect words. Write the number of the line and the incorrect word. Write your answer on the answer sheet.

Ted Robinson has been worried all the week. Last Tuesday he receives a letter from the local

police. On the letter he was asked to call at the station. Ted wondered why he was wanted

by the police but him went to the station yesterday, and now he is not worried any more. At

the station, he was told with a smiling policeman that his bicycle had been found. Ted was

most surprised when he heard the news because it was stolen twenty years ago when Ted

was a boy of fifteen!

C. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. There is an example at the beginning(0). Write your answer on the answer sheet. Email is such a painless way to write letters. I’ve never (0) found (FIND) it easy to put pen to paper, not even to say “ thank you” for presents sent by (1) ___ (THINK) relatives. They must have thought I was so ungrateful. Now there’s no stopping me! I type away endlessly on my computer, all types of messages to all types of people. Email has all the benefits of a word processor and none of the tedious (2)_ (AVANTAGE) of writing by hand. It’s better than the letters because you can edit it , quickly and (3) __ (EFFORT), and it’s instant like the phone but without the need to talk ! And sending an e-mail is so (4) (WONDER) fast: just press the button and it’s gone. By contrast, the Web is extremely overrated and sometimes so slow that it’s (5) (PRACTICE). What’s more, Web site are not updated and a lot of the information is useless. I think it’s a joke in that respect- not a very good one. D. Complete the passage with the correct form of the verb in the brackets. Write your answer on the answer sheet. Last week, I was walking home after playing tennis when it started raining very heavily. “Oh, no, I will get soaked before I (1) (reach) home,” I thought. “I wish I (2) (remember) to bring my raincoat.” But unfortunately I had left it at home. How stupid of me! I always forget bringing it with me. Luckily just then a friend of mine (3) _ (pass) in her car and offered me a lift. “Are you going home?” she said, “or do you want to go for a drink?” “I think I’d rather you took me home,” I said. “If I do not change my clothes, I know I (4) _ (fall) ill, and then I will not be able to play in the tennis tournament nest week. And I (5) _ (practise) hard for the last month.” “I will wait for you to change if you like,” she told me. “I think it’s time you relaxed for a change. You have worried too much about things lately. And people who worry too much fall ill more easily. It’s got nothing to do with the rain!” E. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your answer on the answer sheet. 0. I am looking forward to hearing from you. 1. My brother is always busy his lessons and tasks today. 2. Her parents do not approve her living away from home. 3. Jane was in a such hurry that she left one of her bags _. 4. I’m fed with waiting for the phone to ring. 5. How much do you charge postage and packing? IV. READING (4,0 marks) A. Choose the words with best completes each blank in the following passage. Write your answer on the answer sheet. What will the city of the future look like? This question has been asked so many times over the (1) 500 years and answered inconsequently an equal number of times – that we can be sure of one thing only: no one can predict accurately how cities will look 50 or 500 years from now. The reason is simple. Cities change continually. For over fifty years they have change (2) rapidly that the oldest residents will remember a time (3) their city seemed to belong not just to another era (4) to a different dimension. (5) ____ is true both of

D. next

D. but D. So

D. they

C. previous C. such D. really D. when C. as C. referring C. It C. which C. while D. however C. this D. such

A. like

D. for D. and

planned and unplanned cities. Planned cities such New York and Paris, (6) ____ are closely organized on a grid or diagram of street and avenues, have effectively burst at the seams this century, (7) , unplanned cities such as London, Tokyo and Los their centers (8) _ dramatically. Although their centers might remain much as they were many years ago, their suburbs have spread (9) the tentacles of an octopus. Some economists argue that expansion is a sign of healthy economy, (10) ____....... that expanding cities attracts international investment. 1. A. last B. few 2. A. very B. so 3. A. because B. though 4. A. according B. so as 5. A. This B. There 6. A. that B. where 7. A. but B. after 8. A. so B. as 9. B. in the way C. to C. or 10. A. so B. now B. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each. There was an example at the beginning (0). Write your answer on the answer sheet.

Lan took an examination in English as a second language at Royal English College to be admitted to the English course. The first stage (0) is the oral examination, Lan was asked a lot of questions, (1) ___ of which were quite hard for her. The examiner asked her why she was learning English and (2) _ she spoke any other languages and so on. To Lan, the hardest questions was that he wanted to know what aspect of (3) English Lan found most difficult. He also asked her to read a passage. She was (4) to answer all the questions. She hoped she would pass the oral examination (5) went on to the next stage: the written examination. She felt very self-confident. C. Read the passage, choose the best answer. Write your answer on the answer sheet. Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as Wales, Scotland or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking and diplomacy. Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two-thirds of the world's science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of nonnative users than any other language in the world. 1. What is the main topic of the passage? A. The number of nonnative users of English. B. The French influence on the English language. C. The expansion of English as an international language. D. The use of English for science and technology. 2. The word 'emerged' means __.

D. engaged

B. failed

C. frequented

B. features C. curiosities

B. Around 1350 C. Before 1600

D. customs D. After 1600

D. countries

A. prospered

D. expanded

D. media

B. drama

C. air control

D. making up

A. appeared 3. The word 'elements' is most similar to ____. A. declaration 4. Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England? A. In 1066 5. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world except . A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries D. colonization 6. The word 'enclaves' is closest in meaning to . A. communities B. organizations C. regions 7. The word 'proliferated' is closest in meaning to organized . B. organized C. disbanded 8. Which of the following is not mentioned as the field where English is the main language? A. advertising 9. The word 'constituting' is closest in meaning to _. A. looking over B. setting down C. doing in 10 . According to the passage, approximately how many nonnative users of English are there in the world today? A. a quarter million B. half a million C. 350 million D. 700 million V. WRITING (4,0 marks) A. Write the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. Write your answer on the answer sheet. 1. It is said that health is the most important in daily life.  Health _____________________________ 2. A lot of old people have to go to hospitals because of the cold weather.  Because 3. I’ll only help you if you promise to try harder.  Unless _ 4. We left quietly, so that we wouldn’t disturb the children.  So as 5. Tom has not had his hair cut for over three months.  It is _ B. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence using the word given. Write your answer on the answer sheet. 1. It isn’t necessary to finish the work today. need  We _ 2. It used to take my father half an hour to get to work by bike last lear. spend  My father 3. They managed to finish the project in time for presentation. succeeded  They 4. Doing the same work for a long time is not interesting. boring  It___________________________________ 5. That film was so interesting that we could see it twice. such

 It ______________________________________________________________________ C. What are the benefits of living in the city? Write an exposition of 140 words to express your own opinion. Write your answer on the answer sheet.

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Hướng dẫn chấm gồm có: 06 trang)

I/. LISTENING: (4.0 marks) Part 1: Listen to the CD player twice. Then decide whether these statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answer on the answer sheet. SENTENCES 1 2 3 4 5

MARKS 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2

ANSWER F T T F F Part 2: Listen to Philip talking to a friend about his photography course for questions 6-10, choose the corrcect answer A,B or C. You will hear the conversation twice. Write your answer on the answer sheet. SENTENCES 6 7 8 9 10

ANSWER C B C A C

MARKS 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2

Part 3: Listen to the recording twice and fill in the missing information with only one word in the number spaces. Write your answer on the answer sheet. SENTENCES 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

ANSWER special celebrations particular on country Teachers’ of the educator primary

MARKS 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2

II. PHONETICS (0.5 mark) A. Choose the word whose primary stress is pronounced differently from that of the others. Write your answer on the answer sheet. SENTENCES 1 2

MARKS 0,1 0,1

ANSWER D B B. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. Write the answer in the box below (0,6 mark) SENTENCES 1 2 3

MARKS 0,1 0,1 0,1

ANSWER B D C III. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY (3,5 marks)

A. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to complete each sentence and write your answer on the answer sheet. SENTENCES 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

MARKS 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1

ANSWER D B B C A C A D B D B. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. There are 5 incorrect words. Write the number of the line and the incorrect word. Write your answer on the answer sheet.

LINES 1 2 3 4 5

WORDS receives On him with were

MARKS 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1

C. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. There is an example at the beginning(0). Write your answer on the answer sheet. SENTENCES 1 2 3 4 5

ANSWER thoughtful disadvantages effortlessly wonderfully impractical

MARKS 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2

D. Complete the passage with the correct form of the verb in the brackets. Write your answer on the answer sheet. SENTENCES 1 2 3 4 5

MARKS 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1

ANSWER reach had remembered passed will fall have been practicing E. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. Write your answer on the answer sheet. SENTENCES 1 2 3 4 5

ANSWER with of behind up for

MARKS 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1

IV. READING (4,0 marks) A. Choose the words with best completes each blank in the following passage. Write your answer on the answer sheet. SENTENCES 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

ANSWER A B D D A C C B A B

MARKS 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1 0,1

B. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each. There was an example at the beginning (0). Write your answer on the answer sheet. SENTENCES 1 2 3 4 5

WORDS some if learning/ studying able and

MARKS 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2

C. Read the passage, choose the best answer. Write your answer on the answer sheet.

SENTENCES

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

ANSWER C A B D B A A B D C

MARKS 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2 0,2

ANSWER

V. WRITING (4,0 marks) A. Write the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. Write your answer on the answer sheet. SENTENCES 1 2

MARKS 0,2 0,2

Health is said to be the most important thing in daily life. Because the weather is cold a lot of old people have to go to hospitals. Unless you promise to try harder, I won't help you. So as not to disturb the children, we left quietly. It is over three months since Tom had his hair cut.

3 4 5

0,2 0,2 0,2

ANSWER

B. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence using the word given. Write your answer on the answer sheet. SENTENCES 1 2

We don't need to finish the work today. My father used to spend half an hour getting to work by

MARKS 0,2 0,2

bike last year.

0,2

4 5

They succeeded in finishing the project in time for presentation. It is boring to do the same work for a long time. It was such an interesting film that we could see it twice.

0,2 0,2

C. Write a paragragh

Tiêu chí

Chi tiết

Bố cục

Phát triển ý - nội dung

Sử dụng ngôn từ

Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả

Cấu trúc đoạn văn Câu đề dẫn Sắp xếp ý Câu kết luận Lập luận, dẫn chứng, ví dụ Phát triển ý Liên kết ý Số lượng từ Phù hợp nội dung chủ đề Phù hợp văn viết Đa dạng về cấu trúc và từ vựng Sử dụng đúng dấu câu Sử dụng thời, thể, cấu trúc đúng ngữ pháp Viết đúng chính tả Bằng số:

Thang điểm 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.25 0.25 0.25 0.25 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.1 2.0

Tổng điểm

The end.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ NAM

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút

(Đề thi gồm 08 trang, thí sinh làm bài ngay vào đề thi này)

Điểm của bài thi Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo SỐ PHÁCH

Giám khảo số 1:

Bằng số:

Giám khảo số 2:

Bằng chữ:

SECTION A: LISTENING (30 points)

Part I. Listen to Thomas Lambert talking about his life as a ballet dancer. Choose the correct answer. (10 points) 1. How did Thomas feel about doing performing arts? A. It was important to maintain a family tradition. B. It was something he was born to do. C. He wasn’t talented enough to become a pianist. D. he found it interesting and important. 2. Thomas went to different ballet schools because

A. he liked performing in different places. B. he enjoyed travelling to different countries. C. he needed to find out what suited him best. D. he wanted to get the widest range of experience.

3. What does Thomas like best about ballet?

A. It’s difficult to get it right. B. It involves more than movement. C. Each ballet tells a story and it attracts him. D. It’s fun performing in front of an audience.

4. What does Thomas like best about awards?

A. Some of them are worth more than others. B. It is very important to him. C. Dancers have to win them while they are young. D. It’s difficult to win them because dancers have a short career. 5. Thomas says that by the time he stops dancing he wants to have

A. studied more about ballet. B. started to teach ballet to new students. C. increased audiences for ballet. D. made the most of his time on stage.

Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

1

Part II. Listen and fill the information you hear in the numbered spaces. NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS OR A NUMBER for each space. (10 points) Transport from Airport to Milton

Example Answer Distance: …….147…….. miles Options * Car hire - don’t want to drive

* (1)………………………………………. - expensive * Greyhound bus

-$ 15 single , (2).………………. return - direct to the City centre - long (3)……………..................….……. * Airport (4)………………………………..

- door to door service - need to (5)………………………….…….

Part III. You will hear a conversation between a girl and her father about what she’s going to study next year. Decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. Put a () in the box under A for YES and under B for No. (10 points)

Statements Yes (A) NO (B)  0.Charlotte wants to study Spanish because she thinks Spanish is easy.

1. Chartlotte’s grandmother was born in England.

2. Charlotte’s father is sorry he can’t speak Chinese.

3. Charlotte’s father is keen on her studying in China.

4. Charlotte plans to go to China alone.

5. Charlotte and her father agree that her mother wants to visit China.

SECTION B. PHONETICS (10 points)

A. breathtaking A. spectacular A. career

Part I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest. (5 points) 1. 2. 3. 4. A. shortage C. mouth C. affordable C. pear C. teenage D. monthly D. negative D. appear D. storage B. breathe B. sandal B. peer B. carriage

B. subtle C. debtor D. probable A. climber

5. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

D. industrial D. engineer B. sensitivity C. beneficial C. economic B. information C. multicultural B. metropolitant D. spectacular D. journey C. crisis

Part II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group.(5 points) 1. A. volunteer B. understand C. temperature D. scientific 2. A. accidental 3. A. television 4. A. adolescence 5. A. swallow B. extinct Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

2

SECTION C. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (65 points)

A. although B. nevertheless C. therefore D. B or C

B. so A. but D. or

B. charge D. guilt A. fault

Part I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence. (15 points) 1. He thought the talk was fascinating. His friend, _______, fell asleep halfway through it. 2. All of the students_______ the seniors will receive their grades in two weeks. C. and 3. The press puts _____ on the police forces who were unable to cope with the crowd of savage hooligans. C. blame 4. We couldn’t stay long so we only wished Mark many happy ________ of his birthday and hurried to the airport.

A. days B. returns C. moments D. regards

5. "Did you like the novel that I gave you last week?” - “ _________ the novels that I’ve read, I enjoyed this one the most.” B. Of all A. All of C. For all D. From all

A. No, you can’t sit here. B. Yes, it is seated by a boy. C. Sorry, it is taken. D. Yes, but I don’t know so.

6. “Excuse me, is this seat free?” - “_____________” 7. Noone who was invited to the party last night came, ___________?

A. didn’t they D. was he

B. weren’t they C. did they 8. He may be shy now, but he’ll soon come out of his ______ when he meets the right girl.

A. shoe B. shell C. shed D. hole

9. “By the way, have you heard the one about the Welshman, the Irishman and the pig?” “Yes, we have. That joke’s as old as______”.

A. Solomon B. the hills C. a dinosaur D. Jupiter

A. under C. after D. in

A. canceled B. postponed C. put off D. called up

B. view C. head D. mind A. sight

10. Just think, ______ two years’ time, we’ll be 18! B. over 11. The referee called off the soccer game because of the darkness. 12. Matthew has changed his ______ several times about buying a new car. 13. We're living in an apartment for now, but soon we'll be looking for a house to buy. B. to shake hands C. for the time being D. up to now A. in a hurry

14. Playing ____ violin was to be ____ great adventure for him. He knew _______ little about it.

A. ø/a/a B. the/ ø /a C. a/a/a D. the/a/ ø

15. Of the two shirts, this one is ___________

A. the prettiest B. the most pretty C. more pretty D. the prettier

Your answers:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

0.Success 1. Wide 2. Possible Part II. Give the correct form of the words (20 points) Computer skills in the office To be (0) successfully in the bussiness market, it is vital for a company to keep up with all the latest technological development. Nowadays it is (1)_____________ accepted that running a company without computers, in particular, is virtually (2)____________ . This is why businesses are so keen to hire the best people available

3

3. employ 4. Familiar 5. Complete 6. Comfort 7. Difficult 8. Organise 9. Prepare 10. Like

for their technology departments. Apart from the needs of the technology department, it is important that almost all (3)___________ have some degree of (4) ___________ with personal or desktop computers, even if this involves no more than the (5) ____________ of a basic computer course. Like all new things, however, most people will only become (6)______________ with using computers after practical experience . Thanks to computers, today’s businesses are run and managed with far less (7)________________ than companies could hope to achieve in the past. For example, computers enable the (8)_____________ of huge amounts of information and greatly speed up the (9) _______________ of documents and reports. In short, although the average businessperson has no need to be a technology expert, they are (10)__________ to get very far without at least a basic knowledge of computers. Your answers:

1…………………………………….. 2…………………………………… 3…………………………………… 6……………………………….. 7………………………………. 8……………………………….

4…………………………………… 5……………………………………... 9…………………………………. 10……………………………….

Part III. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (20 points)

1. You must tell me the truth. I insist on ( tell ) _________the truth. 2. But for his help, her project (not complete) _________so sucessfully. 3. (Not know) _________ where the theater was, she asked for directions at the hotel reception. 4. There you are! I ( wait) _________ for two hours. Where’ve you been? 5. Under the tree (some students/ stand) now. 6. I feel as if my head (be) _________on fire now, doctor. 7. He would rather he (visit) _________Halong bay last year. 8. I'd love ( go) _________ to the party, but it was impossible. 9. One of the most urgent problems (face) _________ us now is the need to control population growth. 10. It’s high time we (do) _________ something to save the earth now. Your answers:

4…………………………………… 5……………………………………... 9…………………………………. 10……………………………….

4

0. agricultural 1. …………………. 2. …………………. 3. …………………. 4. …………………. 5. …………………. 6. …………………. 7. …………………. 8. …………………. 9. …………………. 10. ………………….

Part IV. Each of the numbered lines in the passage contains a mistake, underline and correct it. (10 points) Plants and animals hold medicinal, agriculture, ecological value. Endangered species must be protected and saved so that future generations can experience their presence and value. Plants and animals are responsible for a variety for useful medications. In fact, about forty percentage of all prescriptions written today are composed from the natural compounds of different species. These species not only save live, but they contribute to a prospering pharmaceutical industry worth over $40 billions annually. Unfortunately, only 5% of know plant species have been screened for their medicinal values, although we continue to lost up to 100 species daily. The Pacific yew, a slow-grow tree found in the ancient forests of the Pacific Northwest, was historical considered a "trash" tree. However, a substance in its bark was recently identified as one of the more promising treatments for ovarian and breast cancer. Additionally, more than 3 million American heart disease sufferers would die with 72 hours of a heart attack without digitalis, a drug derived from the purple foxglove. SECTION D. READING COMPREHENSION (50 points)

Part I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following paragraph. (20 points)

Psychologists have long been interested in ___(0) how___ we judge intelligence in strangers. Now scientists have designed tests ____(1)_____ try to discover which cues help people to judge IQ accurately, and which cause them to get _____(2)______ wrong. High school pupils were videotaped answering thought- provoking questions and the videos were____(3)_____shown to groups of judge’s who were asked to assess the students’ physical type and monitor a variety of behavioural cues. Next the judges were asked to rate the students’ intelligence. At the same time, each student was _____(4)_____ required to sit a standard IQ test.

Certain cues matched the ______(5)______ of the IQ tests more closely than others. ____(6)_____ speaking quickly, using a lot of words or displaying ease of understanding caused the judges to rate the students’ intelligence highly, and was reflected in the IQ tests _____(7)_____ cues seemed to give judges an entirely false impression of intelligence as measured by the IQ test. ____(8)_____ the cues that led judges to assess students as dull were factors ______(9)______ as using halting speech or slang. Cues that led judges to view students as bright included talking loudly and using proper English. ___(10)____ of these straits correlated with measured IQ, however. Your answers: 1…………………………………….. 2…………………………………… 3…………………………………… 4…………………………………… 5……………………………………... 6……………………………….. 7………………………………. 8………………………………. 9…………………………………. 10……………………………….

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Part II. Choose the best word A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage. (10 points)

NEW HUNT FOR LIFE IN SPACE

British space scientists are planning to join the American in the race to find evidence of life on (1)___________ planets. Alan Penny and his team at the Rutherford Appleton Laboratory have designed a telescope that is 40 times more powerful than Hubble. Known as ‘Darwin’, his telescope could tell if planets 50 (2) ___________ years away have any kind of life on them. Two days (3) ___________, NASA scientists had shown a proof that one of Jupiter’s moons could support life, Penny announced that his telescope may be included in a European Space Agency mission. The Darwin project, with a (4) ___________ of 500 million, is on a short list of two proposals. If approved it will probably be (5) ___________around 2020, its destination somewhere between Mars and Jupiter. The blueprint is actually for five telescopes positioned 50 meters apart in space, slowly circling a (6) ___________ processing station. The combined data from these telescopes would build up a full picture of a planet, picking out faint images that have never been seen before. Darwin would not be able to take detailed photographs of the planets it (7) ___________, but Penny believes a second- generation telescope could be sent up to do this. He claims it is worthwhile mapping the universe around our (8)___________ galaxy, even though these planets lie (9) ___________our reach for the moment. The European Space Agency will make its decision (10) ___________ Darwin within three years.

B. other B. lighten B. after B. schedule B. fetched B. centre B. searches B. same B. toward B. on C. others C. lightening C. next C. charge C. launched C. middle C. discovers C. one C. beyond C. about D. the other D. lighting D. later D. budget D. taken D. heart D. looks D. own D. over D. with 1. A. another 2. A. light 3. A. following 4. A. price 5. A. driven 6. A. central 7. A. invents 8. A. alone 9. A. out 10. A. of Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer. (20 points)

Water scarcity is fast becoming one of the major limiting factors in world crop production. In many areas, poor agricultural practices have led to increasing desertification and the loss of formerly arable lands. Consequently, those plant species that are well adapted to survival in dry climates are being looked at for an answer in developing more efficient crops to grow on marginally arable lands.

Plants use several mechanisms to ensure their survival in desert environments. Some involve purely mechanical and physical adaptations, such as the shape of the plant's surface, smaller leaf size, and extensive root systems. Some of the adaptations are related to chemical mechanisms. Many plants, such as cacti, have internal gums and mucilage which give them water-retaining properties. Another chemical mechanism is that of the epicuticular wax layer. This wax layer acts as an impervious cover to protect the plant. It prevents excessive loss of internal moisture. It also protects the plant from external aggression, which can come from inorganic agents such as gases, or organic agents which include bacteria and plant pests.

Researchers have proposed that synthetic waxes with similar protective abilities could be prepared based on knowledge of desert plants. If successfully developed, such a compound could be used to greatly increase a plant's ability to maintain health in such adverse situations as inadequate water supply, limited fertilizer availability, attack by pests, and poor storage after harvesting. 1. This passage deals mainly with ____.

A. desertification C. factors limiting crop production B. decreasing water supply D. developing efficient plants 2. The word “arable” in the 1st paragraph is closest in meaning to ________. A. fertile B. parched C. barren D. marsh

3. Which of the following is a mechanical or physical mechanism that desert plants use? B. The small root system D. The high water system A. The plant’s shape C. The vast leaf size

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4. The word “extensive” in the 2nd paragraph is closest in meaning to _________. A. spongy B. shallow C. widespread D. comprehensive 5. Which is one of the ways in which the epicuticular wax protects the plant?

A. It helps the plant to avoid excessive moisture intake B. It helps the plant to attack aggressors. C. It releases gases against plant pests. D. It guards against bacteria. 6. The word “It” in the 2nd paragraph refers to________.

A. another chemical mechanism C. an impervious plant like cover B. the epicuticular wax layer D. the loss of internal moisture 7. The word “aggression” in the 2nd paragraph is closest in meaning to_________. A. attack B. agitation D. surroundings

C. conditions 8. What is an example of an inorganic agent that may attack plants? B. Insects A. Bacteria C. Gas D. Pests 9. It can be inferred that synthetic stimulate waxes_____.

A. have not been developed yet B. have not succeeded C. have been determined to be impervious to organic and inorganic agents D. have the quality of causing bacteria

10. All of the following are examples of an adverse situation for crops EXCEPT________. A. inadequate water C. pest aggression B. insufficient fertilize D. proper storage

Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION E. WRITING (45 points)

terms

account

lost

disposal

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points) 1. Keith certainly can’t be held responsible for the accident. - In no way _______________________________________________________________________ 2. Melissa’s father was very busy, but he still played with her. - No matter ______________________________________________________________________ 3. “I hear you won the championship. Congratulations!” Jane said to John. - Jane congratulated ________________________________________________________________ 4. You must park your car in the right place; otherwise the police will give you a ticket. - Unless _________________________________________________________________________ 5. They have said that the police caught the man stealing my car. - The man _______________________________________________________________________ Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means the same as the given one. Use the given word in brackets. Do not change the bold word. (10points) 1. He doesn’t get on well with his colleagues. ___________________________________________________________________________________ 2. He could not explain why he was always late to work. ___________________________________________________________________________________ 3. She doesn’t see or hear from her childhood friends any more. - ___________________________________________________________________________________ 4. My boss says I can use his car whenever I want to as long as I am careful. - ___________________________________________________________________________________ 5. That man reminds me a lot of my father. bears - ___________________________________________________________________________________

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Part III. Writing (25 points) What are skills for teenagers to reduce stress and pressure ? In about 200 words, write an essay to express your point of view. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……

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THE END

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ NAM

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

ĐÁP ÁN, BIỂU ĐIỂM & HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM BÀI THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 9 THCS NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018 Môn: Tiếng Anh

................................................................................................................................................. SECTION A: LISTENING (30 points)

Part 1 : Listen to Thomas Lambert talking about his life a a ballet dancer. Choose the correct answer. (10 points) Your answers: 1. B 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. C

Part II- Listen and fill information in the numbered spaces. NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS OR A NUMBER for each space .(10 points) Transport from Airport to Milton

Example Answer Distance : …….147…….. miles

Options * Car hire - don’t want to drive

* (1) …..(A)CAB/ TAXI …… - expensive * Greyhound bus -$ 15 single , (2).… $ 27.50 ….. return

- direct to the City centre - long (3)……… WAIT……... * Airport (4)… SHUTTLE……….. - door to door service - need to (5)……… RESERVE A SEAT.…….

Part II- You will hear a conversation between a girl and her father about what she’s going to study next year. Decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. Put a () in the box under A for YES and under B for No. (10 points)

Statements Yes (A) NO (B)  0.Charlotte wants to study Spanish because she thinks Spanish is easy.

 1. Chartlotte’s grandmother was born in England.

 2 Charlotte’s father is sorry he can’t speak Chinese.

 3. Charlotte’s father is keen on her studying in China.

 4. Charlotte plans to go to China alone.

 5. Charlotte and her father agree that her mother wants to visit China.

SECTION B. PHONETICS (10 points)

Part I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.(5 points) Your answers: 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. D

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Part II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group.(5 points) Your answers: 1.C 2.D 3.A 4.D 5.B

SECTION C. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (65) points)

Part I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence. (15 points) Your answers:

1 B 2 A 3 C 5 B 6 C 7 C 8 B 9 B 10 D 11 A 12 D 13 C 14 D 15 D 4 B

Part II. Give the correct form of the words (20 points) Your answers:

6.Comfortable 7.Difficulty 8.Organisation

1. Widely 2. imPossible 3. EMPLOYEES 4.Familiarity 9.Preparation 5.Completion 10. unLikely

Part III. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (20 points) Your answers:

1.being told 2 .would not have been completed 3 . Not knowing 4. have been waiting 5. are standing some students 6. were 7.had visited 8. to have gone 9. facing 10. did

0. agricultural 1. of 2. percent 3. lives 4. billion 5. known 6. lose 7. slow-growing 8. historically 9. most 10. within Part IV: Each of the numbered lines in the passage contains a mistake, underline and correct it. (10 points) Plants and animals hold medicinal, agriculture, ecological value. Endangered species must be protected and saved so that future generations can experience their presence and value. Plants and animals are responsible for a variety for useful medications. In fact, about forty percentage of all prescriptions written today are composed from the natural compounds of different species. These species not only save live, but they contribute to a prospering pharmaceutical industry worth over $40 billions annually. Unfortunately, only 5% of know plant species have been screened for their medicinal values, although we continue to lost up to 100 species daily. The Pacific yew, a slow-grow tree found in the ancient forests of the Pacific Northwest, was historical considered a "trash" tree. However, a substance in its bark was recently identified as one of the more promising treatments for ovarian and breast cancer. Additionally, more than 3 million American heart disease sufferers would die with 72 hours of a heart attack without digitalis, a drug derived from the purple foxglove. SECTION D. READING COMPREHENSION (50 points)

Part I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following paragraph. (20 points) Your answers:

6………WHILE………….. 7………OTHER……………. 8…AMONG/AMONGST… 9……SUCH………. 1………WHICH/THAT…….. 2………IT………… 3………THEN…… 4………ALSO………………… 5………RESULT…………………... 10……NONE………….

Part II. Choose the best word A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage. (10 points)

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Your answers: 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. B

Part III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer. (20 points) Your answers: 1. D 7. A 5. D 2. A 3. A 6. B 4. C 8. C 9. A 10. D

SECTION E. WRITING (45 points)

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points) 1. Keith certainly can’t be held responsible for the accident. - In no way can Keith be held responsible for the accident. 2. Melissa’s father was very busy, but he still played with her. - No matter how busy Melissa’s father was, he still played with her. 3. 'I hear you won the championship. Congratulations!'-Jane said to John. - Jane congratulated John on having won the championship 4. You must park your car in the right place; otherwise the police will give you a ticket. - Unless you park your car in the right place, the police will give you a ticket. 5.They have said that the police caught the man stealing my car. - The man stealing my car has been said to have been caught by the police. Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means the same as the given one. Use the given word in brackets. Do not change the bold word. (10points) 1. He doesn’t get on well with his colleagues. terms - He is not on good terms with his colleagues. 2. He could not explain why he was always late to work. account - He could not account for always being late. 3. He doesn’t see or hear from her childhood friends any more. lost - She has lost touch with her childhood friends. 4. My boss says I can use his car whenever I want to as long as I am careful. disposal - My boss says his car is at my disposal as long as I am careful. 5. That man reminds me a lot of my father. bears - That man bears a great resemblance to my father. Part III. Writing (25 points) What are skills for teenagers to reduce stress and pressure ? In 200 words write an essay to express your point of view. 1. Form: essay (5 points) + Easy to read + Coherent 2. Content: (10 points) + Successful fulfillment of the task 3. Language: (10) points) + Appropriate vocabulary (3 points) + Suitable connectors (3point) + Correct grammar (3 points) + Punctuating/Spelling (1 points)

Chú ý: Tổng số điểm toàn bài là 200; kết quả làm bài thi của thí sinh được quy về thang điểm 20 THE END

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SỞ GD&ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 9 CẤP THCS NĂM HỌC 2017 – 2018 ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Môn: Tiếng Anh – Bảng A

Bài thi môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 9 – BẢNG A Thời gian làm bài 150 phút (bao gồm cả phần nghe) Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo Số phách

Điểm Bằng số: ……………………….……. Bằng chữ: ……………………………

Giám khảo 1: …………………………….……………… Giám khảo 2: …………………………….………………

SECTION A. LISTENING Part 1 (20 points). Listen to the talk and fill in the gaps. Write ONLY ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer. John Frank Kennedy and Abraham Lincoln lived in different times. Kennedy was born in (1)_____, whereas Lincoln was born more than 100 years earlier. As for their family backgrounds, Kennedy came from a rich family. He was able to attend (2)_____ private schools. He graduated from (3)_____ University. Lincoln had only one year of formal schooling. In spite of his lack of formal schooling, he became a well-known (4)_____. He was a self-educated man. In spite of these differences in their backgrounds, some interesting (5)_____ between the two men are evident. For example, take their political careers. Both of them began their political careers as a (6)_____. They went to the Congress just one hundred years apart. Another interesting coincidence is that each man was elected President of the United States in a year (7)_____ with the number 60. Furthermore, both men were presidents during the years of civil unrest in the country. Both of them were assassinated while in (8)_____. They were (9)_____ while they were sitting next to their (10)_____. Your answers: 1. 3. 2. 5. 4.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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Part 2 (20 points). Listen to the talk and indicate whether the following statements are true or false by writing T for true and F for false in the boxes below. 1. Sports play an important part in British life. 2. Sailing and rowing are more popular in winter. 3. Squash can be played all year round on outdoor courts. 4. All colleges have their own impressive sports facilities. 5. The most popular outdoor sports are football and tennis. 6. Motor racing is one of the popular sports in Britain. 7. There are many English idioms coming from the world of sports. 8. "That's not cricket" means "to be fair". 9. The most popular sport in Britain is football. 10. People support their local clubs on Sunday afternoons.

4. 3. 2. 10. 5. 7. 6. 9. 8.

Your answers: 1. Part 3 (10 points). Questions 1 - 4 You will hear a woman talking to some students about her job. Complete the notes with words from the recording. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Job: (1)_____________________________for five years.

Studied (2)_______________________________ at university.

Interested in (3)__________________________ side, not theory. Accepted for (4)____________________________ after graduating.

Questions 5 - 7 Now you will hear the next part of the talk. Choose THREE answers from A - F. What does the speaker think are the disadvantages of police work? A. danger of being attacked B. protecting the public C. not being available for family celebrations D. special training in avoiding trouble E. working difficult hours F. working with the public Your answers:

5. 6. 7.

Questions 8 - 10 Listen to the last part of the talk and answer the questions. Write no more than TWO WORDS. 8. What does the speaker think about the financial rewards of police work? 9. What kind of people do the police sometimes have to protect? 10. What does the speaker want to be in the future? Your answers:

8. 9. 10.

SECTION B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR

Part 1 (15 points). Choose the correct answer from A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. Write it in ‘Your answers’ part. 1. It says in the program that the show______ at 7:30.

A. starts B. has started C. will start D. started

2. Two students ______ at a bus-stop were kidnapped yesterday.

A. wait B. waited C. waiting D. were waiting

3. ______ anything suspicious arise, please phone me immediately.

A. Should C. Would B. If D. Could

4. Most American people don’t object ______ them by their first names.

A. that I call B. that I am called C. for calling D. to my calling

5. In my opinion, young ______ must be punished, but education is the best cure. D. criminality B. criminals C. crimes A. crime

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6. A cooperative program between two companies building a famous ancient city into a(n) ______ city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year. B. ecology-friendly A. friendly ecology

D. ecological-friendly

C. recognition D. response

C. friendly-ecological 7. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _ of his service to his country. A. gratitude B. knowledge 8. Jane: “It was really kind of you to give me a lift home.” Peter: “”

A. Oh, don’t mention it. I was coming past your house anyway. B. I’m not pleased.

C. Oh, don’t do that. I was coming past your house anyway. D. As a matter of fact, you’re pretty nice. 9. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to indicate the phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence.

I knew he was only flattering me because he wanted to borrow some money from me. A. making me impatient C. making me feel worse B. praising me too much D. elevating me

D. forbid C. control B. support

B. imagination D. imaginatively

B. in C. for D. with

B. Not really, but there’s a sign on the door I think D. When he’s not busy

C. How this D. What B. How

D. turned it down B. called it off

14. 12. 13. 10. 15. 11. 7. 3. 4. 8. 5. 6. 9.

10. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence. I think we ought to give him a free hand and let him carry out the scheme as he thinks best without any interference from us. A. permit 11. You need to be more ______ if you want to become a novelist. C. imaginative A. imaginary 12. A person who is concerned only ______ his own interests cannot be a true friend. A. about 13. Patient: “Excuse me! Could you tell me when Dr. Smith has office hours?” Nurse: “______.” A. Yes, I could C. By no means 14. “______ bad weather we are having this summer!”, said the woman. A. What a 15. The reporters thought that the football coach would be depressed by his dismissal, but he just _____. C. laughed it off A. ran it down Your answers: 2. 1. Part 2 (10 points). There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example. Example: Line (0): the  a

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0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Stress is often called the 21st century illness, but it has always been with us perhaps with different names. Those days we often consider stress is a necessary evil of modern life. However, stress is not negative and without it we will certainly not enjoy some of the highpoints in life just as the anticipation before a date or the tension leading up to an important match. All these situations produce stress, but if you can control it and not the other

situations, which are generally positive but easier to deal with, sitting in a train that is late, being stuck in a traffic jam, working to a tight deadline is much harder to manage and control. Stress is now recognized as a medical problem and as a significant factor in causing coronary heart disease, high blooded pressure

7 way round you will feel stimulated, not worn out. Like these 8 9 10 11 12 13 and high cholesterol count. The fact is that patients are often willing to 14 admit to stress problems because they feel they are a form of 15 society failure and it is important that symptoms should be identified in 16 order to avoid unnecessary sufferings. So why should we be 17 18 looking out for as danger signals? Some common signs of stress are increased tiredness, irritability and the inability to solve certain situations.

Mistakes Corrections Mistakes Corrections

Your answers: Line 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Line

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. SECTION C. READING COMPREHENSION

Part 1 (15 points). Read the passage below and decide which answer (from A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in ‘Your answers’ part. SMOKING

B. effect B. disorder B. way C. affect C. disable C. rule

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Smoking is harmful to health. This is known to many people worldwide. But men and women who began to smoke some thirty years ago or so did not have much research on how smoking can (1)______ the body and threaten health. It was known that smoking could (2)______ the teeth and fingers, dull the appetite, and be a very expensive (3)______ to maintain. But people who began to smoke did not know that smoking, (4)______ cigarette smoking, could be extremely (5)______ to their health. Medical studies have shown that smoking is a great health hazard because of its effects on the body. These studies show that the (6)______ life expectancy of a smoker is three to four years less than (7)______ of a nonsmoker. The life expectancy of a person who smokes two or more (8)______ of cigarettes a day may be as much as eight years (9)______ than that of a nonsmoker. In addition, research has shown that people who smoke are more (10)______ to develop lung cancer and other serious diseases than nonsmokers. (11)______ warnings that cigarettes are a health hazard, smoking gains (12)______ among youth. Frequently, young people tend to ignore the warnings about smoking because they plan to stop in five years or so. “I can always (13)______ before real damage is done” is the reason they give. But recent experiments prove that damage (14)______ the lungs becomes measurable almost (15)______ a person starts to smoke. 1. A. afford 2. A. discolor 3. A. custom 4. A. especially B. fundamentally C. principally D. effort D. disqualify D. habit D. generally

D. hard D. constant D. that D. plates D. smaller D. feasible

B. rid B. to

C. harsh C. common C. those C. packs C. narrower C. likely C. With respect to D. In case of D. prosperity C. respect D. quit C. drop D. with C. of D. as much as C. as long as

14 12 10 13 15 11 4 5 7 6 9 8

B. dangerous 5. A. bitter B. average 6. A. frequent B. this 7. A. these B. cases 8. A. boxes 9. A. fewer B. shorter 10. A. possible B. probable 11. A. Despite B. Though 12. A. reputation B. popularity 13. A. dismiss 14. A. for 15. A. as soon as B. as far as Your answers: 3 2 1 Part 2 (15 points). You are going to read an article in which four people describe their best teacher. For questions 1-15, choose from the people (A – D). The people may be chosen more than once.

Which person had a teacher who…

taught more than one member of the same family? 1.______

might have wished their pupils to choose a different career? 2.______

was popular with all the pupils? 3. ______

had to overcome a disadvantage when teaching? made contact after their pupils left school? 4. ______ 5. ______

taught in an unusual physical position? 6. ______

changed their pupils’ behavior? 7. ______

became their teacher as a result of a personal contact? developed their pupils’ physical and mental skills? 8. ______ 9. ______

pointed their pupils in the direction of a successful career? 10. ______

demonstrated a sense of humor? decided what to teach by responding to their pupils’ interests? 11. ______ 12. ______

showed what was necessary instead of talking about it? 13. ______

was also doing another job? 14. ______

15. ______

put an emphasis on what pupils expressed, not the way they expressed it?

MY BEST TEACHER

in giving marks A Sandy Ross

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for grammar or believe punctuation; he implied that the mechanics of writing were not important if you had something to say. When I wrote a short story for him called ‘Army’, he simply wrote across the bottom: 'You’ve just got to keep on writing.’ Those few words of support had a fantastic effect on me in Brian Earle, my English teacher was a very intense man with thick glasses, and the fact that he taught a lot of his classes standing on his head was also seen as extremely peculiar. He taught me for just one year and it was probably one of the most creative years of my life. He didn’t

terms of wanting to write and be involved in writing. Brian Earle had a love for teaching and his subject. B

Royal Shakespeare Company and playing fairly high-profile parts, I got a letter from Miss Young saying she was following my career with interest, but as far as I know, she never came to see me perform. She certainly never came to see me backstage. D

Rajah Ishtiak My mother was an editor of Pakistan’s largest newspaper and she knew and liked its librarian, Atif Burkhi. Atif was well-educated and when I was about 12, my mother decided I should learn more about the region’s history and she chose Atif as my tutor. It turned out to be an inspiring move. He would come to our house once a week to teach me, from the end of school until supper. He took me through a lot of history, but after a few lessons I got bored. ‘I know you’re being paid by my parents to teach me this stuff,’ I said, ‘but there are other things in the world.’ He burst out laughing as he so often did and asked: ‘What do you want to talk about then?’ And so we would discuss global issues and world literature. C

Sarah Parker Tae Kwon Do is a martial art which has become popular as a sporting activity in recent years. I started learning it in the Ivory Coast in Africa when I was about 13, and later became the country’s first black belt. My teacher, Park Min Ho, had been sent by the Tae Kwon Do federation in Korea to open a club. It was very successful. When he arrived he didn’t know a word of French, so he used to demonstrate rather than explain. At the time my brother and I started learning Tae Kwon Do, we were fighting like mad. But we quickly understood we had to stop fighting because we realized that fighting was about self-defense, not aggression. Tae Kwon Do teaches you to control your anger and control your body. It is very good for your memory, co- ordination and self-discipline. And you are acquiring a philosophy. Later on, Park opened a restaurant and then moved back to Korea. We had a very friendly relationship, but somehow I feel like I was a disappointment to him. He thought I had a future in the sport. But when I was 17, I decided it was not what I wanted to do.

Jennifer Pitt Everyone loved Miss Young. She taught me between the ages of 13 and 17 and was instrumental in my becoming an actress. She knew I was interested in acting, but it just wasn’t an option in my world. My father was a driving examiner and I wasn’t exposed to acting as a career. It was Miss Young who told me about the National Youth Theatre, which was an organization I was unaware of. She suggested I look into it and think about going there. About ten years after I left school, when I was with the

Page 6 of 9

Part 3 (10 points). Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. Madison Square Garden, a world-famous sporting venue in New York City, has actually been a series of buildings in varied locations rather than a single building in one spot. In 1873, P.T. Barnum built Barnum’s Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome at the corner of Madison Avenue and 26th Street, across from Madison Square Park. Two years later, the bandleader Patrick Gilmore bought the property, added statues and fountains, and renamed it Gilmore’s Gardens. When Cornelius Vanderbilt bought the property in 1879, it was renamed Madison Square Garden. A second very lavish Madison Square Garden was built at the same location in 1890, with a ballroom, a restaurant, a theater, a rooftop garden, and a main arena with seating for 15,000. However, this elaborate Madison Square Garden lasted until 1924 when it was torn down to make way for a forty-storey skyscraper. When the second Madison Square Garden had been replaced in its location across from Madison Square Park, the boxing promoter Tex Rickard raised six million dollars to build a new Madison Square Garden. This new Madison Square Garden was constructed in a different location, on 8th Avenue and 50th

A. has had a varied history in various locations C. is home to many different sporting events B. was P.T. Barnum’s major accomplishment D. was named after and adjacent park

A. The third paragraph. C. The first paragraph.

A. purchased the property at the corner of Madison Avenue and 26th Street B. made improvements to the property that he bought C. named the property that he bought Madison Square Garden D. sold the property to Cornelius Vanderbilt

D. outlandish C. elaborate A. simple

A. 11 years D. 60 years B. 34 years C. 45 years

C. A basketball game A. A balloon dance D. a tiger show

Street and quite some distance from Madison Square Park and Madison Avenue. Rickard’s Madison Square Garden served primarily as an arena for boxing prize fights and circus events until it outgrew its usefulness by the late 1950s. A new location was found for a fourth for Madison Square Garden, a top Pennsylvania Railroad Station, and plans were announced for its construction in 1960. This current edifice, which includes a huge sports arena, a bowling center, a 5,000-seat amphitheater, and a twenty-nine-storey office building, does retain the traditional name Madison Square Garden. However, the name is actually quite a misnomer. The building is not located near Madison Square, nor does it have the flowery gardens that contributed to the original name. 1. The main point of this passage is that Madison Square Garden . 2. Which paragraph discusses the third location of Madison Square Garden? B. The second paragraph. D. The last paragraph. 3. According to the passage, Patrick Gilmore did all of the following EXCEPT that he . 4. The word “lavish” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to . B. modern 5. How long did the second Madison Square garden last? 6. Which of the following would most likely have taken place at Rickard’s Madison Square Garden? B. A theater production 7. An “edifice” in paragraph 3 is most likely.

A. an address B. an association C. a competition D. a building

C. 1875 D. 1874 A. 1890

A. It is on Madison Avenue. C. It has incredible gardens. B. It is across from Madison Square Park. D. It is above a transportation center.

10 2 4 7 9 8 3 5

8. Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome was renamed Gilmore’s Gardens in ________. B. 1879 9. What can be inferred about the current Madison Square Garden? 10. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage? A. Madison Square Garden has been rebuilt for the fourth time. B. Lots of flowers have been planted inside Madison Square Garden. C. The Madison Square Garden building is far from Madison Square. D. Madison Square Garden still has its original name. Your answers: 6 1 Part 4 (15 points). Fill ONE suitable word into each numbered blank. Write your answers in ‘Your answers’ part.

NEIL ARMSTRONG

Neil Armstrong was (1) ______ on 5 August 1930, in Ohio, United States. He was (2) ______ in

In 1952, Armstrong returned to the USA to (11) ______ his studies at Purdue. He graduated from the

flying from an early age. When he was only eight years old, he (3) his first model plane. When he was ten years old, he got a part-time job mowing grass so that he could have (4) money to purchase newer and bigger planes. When Armstrong was a high school student, he continued to (5) up different part-time work. He wanted to earn more money (6) was needed to pay for his flying lessons. On his (7) birthday in 1946, Armstrong was (8) exhilarated on learning that he had gained his pilot’s license. The (9) year, 1947, Armstrong finished high school and went to Purdue University to study aeronautical engineering. (10), before he could finish his university studies, he was called up by the Navy to fight in the Korean War. university in 1955 and worked (12) a research pilot, testing new aircraft. In 1962, Armstrong was selected by National Aeronautics and (13) Administration (NASA) to be an astronaut. He and several others had to go (14)an intensive program of training to prepare (15) for America’s first mission to land on the moon. He is still famous for his saying “It’s only a small step of ours, but it is a giant leap of the human”. Your answers: 1.

2. 5. 4. 3.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 5 (10 points). Choose the most appropriate heading from the list A-H for each part (1-5) of the article. There are TWO extra headings which you do not need to use. The first has been done as an example.

Lists of Headings

F. Be organized G. Set yourself targets H. Write down the main points

A. Making friends during exams D. Vary the way you revise B. Remembering the difficult bits E. Reward yourself C. Keep calm

HOT TIPS FOR STAYING COOL AT EXAM TIME

0. _____G_____ It’s always good to know what you’re aiming for so that you know if and when you get there. By having an aim for each week, or even each day, it will help you check your progress and show you if you need to change your plans. 1. ___________ Rather than have to work through masses of notes every time you revise something, try noting down things you want to remember on a piece of paper. It doesn’t seem much to learn that way, but it makes sure you don’t miss out anything important. Once you’ve learnt the main points, rewrite them on another piece of paper without looking at your notes. 2. ___________ There is nothing worse than being confused about what you need to prepare for your coming exam. If you have a plan and stick to it, you won’t end up cramming all your revision into the last few hours! Make a list of your exams and what you need to learn beforehand, and then drew up a timetable covering all the topics. You

can then work out what you need to do on a weekly basis and when you are going to do it. 3. _____ By now you’ll probably have discovered the method of revision which suits you best. But every now and then it might be helpful to try a different method. You could try working with a group of friends, or using a different book which covers things from a new angle. Whatever it is, just try something different occasionally. 4. _ Some things are almost impossible to remember, so you may need to do something unusual to help you remember. Try writing them down in large letters and bright colors and sticking them on the fridge, on a mirror or on the bathroom door. Try recording them onto a cassette player and keep playing it back to yourself - on a personal stereo if you have got one! 5. _______ Not too many people like exams and most of us get nervous before and during exams. But if you’ve followed your plan and put the effort into revising, then there is no need to worry or panic. Hopefully these tips will have helped you. Give it your best shot - that’s all that anyone can expect from you.

SECTION D. WRITING Part 1 (10 points). Use the word in brackets, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. DO NOT change the word given. 1. The boy was about to cry when he was punished by his mother. (point)

The boy was _______________________________________ when he was punished by his mother.

2. There aren’t many other books which discuss this problem so well. (discussed)

In few other books _________________________________________________________________.

3. I thought about what had happened all those years before. (mind)

I cast ___________________________________________________________________________.

4. I’m sure it wasn’t Mrs. Smith you saw because she’s in Singapore. (been)

It ___________________________________________________because she’s in Singapore.

5. Andrew is said to be a very good cook. (reputation)

Andrew ________________________________________________a very good cook.

Part 2 (20 points). This is part of a letter you receive from an English-speaking friend, Tim, who is coming

on holiday to your country. We will be spending a day in your town during our coach tour. Do you think we must meet? If so, what should

we do? As this will be my first visit to your area, I want to give your parents a present, can you give me a

suggestion? Write your letter (about 80-100 words), suggesting how you will both spend the day together. DO NOT write

any addresses.

Dear Tim,

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………….........................

…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………

Best wishes,

Nam

Part 3 (30 points). Your English teacher has asked you to write a story (100-120 words) for your school

story writing competition. Your story MUST begin with the following sentence:

It was a contest for secondary students and I knew that was my chance to win.

……………………..………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….………

………………………………………………………………...…………………..................................................

..............................................................................................

_THE END_

SỞ GD&ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 9 CẤP THCS NĂM HỌC 2017 – 2018 HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Môn: Tiếng Anh – Bảng A

SECTION A. LISTENING

Part 1 (10 x 2 = 20 points). Listen to the talk and fill in the gaps. Write ONLY ONE WORD OR A NUMBER. 1. 1917 5. similarities 2. expensive 3. Harvard 4. lawyer

6. congressman 7. ending 8. office 9. shot 10. wives

3. F 2. F 7. T 6. T 4. F 5. F 9. T 10. F

3. practical 4. training 2. law

Part 2 (10 x 2 = 20 points). Write T for true and F for false in the boxes below. 8. F 1. T Part 3 (10 points). Questions 1 - 4 1.police officer Questions 5 - 7

5. A 6. C 7. E

Questions 8 - 10 8. well-paid

10. (a) detective 9. famous people/ celebrities SECTION B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR

11. C 10. D 12. D 13. B 4. D 9. B 2. C 5. B 8. A 6. B 3. A 7. C 14. D 15. C

Part 1 (15 points). Choose the correct answer from A, B, C or D. 1. A Part 2 (10 points). Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the numbered boxes.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Line 2 3 4 7 8 10 12 13 15 16 Mistakes is will just Like but is blooded willing society why Corrections  would such Unlike and are blood unwilling social what SECTION C. READING COMPREHENSION

12 B 10 C 13 D 4 A 7 D 3 D 2 A 8 C 9 B 5 B 14 B 15 A Part 1 (15 points). Read the passage below and decide which answer best fits each gap. 11 6 1 C A B Part 2 (15 points). For questions 1-15, choose from the people (A – D).

1. D 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. A

2 A 3 C 7 D 8 C 4 C 6 D 9 D 5 B 10 B

3. made Part 3 (10 points). Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. 1 A Part 4 (15 points). Fill ONE suitable word into each numbered blank. 1. born 6. which/that 2. interested 7. sixteenth/ 16th 8. really/ very/ 4. enough 9. next/following

12. as 14. through extremely/ absolutely 13. Space 5. take 10. However/ Nevertheless 15. themselves

11. continue Part 5 (5 x 2 = 10 points). Choose the most appropriate heading from the list A-H for each part 1. H 5. C 2. F 3. D

4. B SECTION D. WRITING

Part 1 (5 x 2 = 10 points). Use the word in brackets, complete the second sentence. 1. The boy was on the point ][ of crying when he was punished by his mother. 2. In few other books is this problem ][ discussed so well./ will we see this problem ][ so well discussed. 3. I cast my mind ][ back to what had happened all those years before. 4. It can’t have ][ been Mrs. Smith you saw because she’s in Singapore. 5. Andrew has a reputation ][ for being a very good cook. Part 2 (20 points). Write your letter (about 80-100 words), suggesting how you will both spend the day

together.

+ Cover all information: 10 + Grammar and vocabulary: 8 + Style and format: 2 points.

points. points.

Part 3 (30 points). + Style: 5 points + Content: 15 points + Grammar and vocabulary: 10 points

Total: 200/10 = 20 points.

SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 06 trang)

PART A. LISTENING

Section 1: You will hear a man telephoning a library to find out about joining. Listen and complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the recording TWICE.

LIBRARY INFORMATION

For registration, must take - two (1) _______ and - two forms of I.D. e.g. driving licence, (2) _ Cost to join per year (without current student card): (3) £_ Number of items allowed: (members of public) (4) _ Loan times: four weeks Fines start at (5) £_ Computers can be booked up to (6) _ hours in advance Library holds most national papers, all (7) _, and magazines Need (8) _______ to use photocopier Answer Creative Writing class

 

tutor is John (9) _______________ held on (10) _______________ evenings

C. It’s Sam birthday. A. It’s the last week of the course. B. It starts earlier than usual.

C. in a park A. at Henry’s College B. at the sports centre

B. have a party at the college C. celebrate on the beach

A. 12.15 B. 12.45 C. 1.20

B. bread rolls C. glasses A. drinks

Section 2: You will hear a teacher talking to a group of students. Listen and choose the best answer A, B, or C. You will hear the recording TWICE. 1. Why is tonight’s disco special? 2. Where will the football match take place? 3. After the football match, the students will _______. A. go to a pizza restaurant 4. The train to Thornton leaves at _______. 5. What should the students bring to the picnic? Section 3: You will hear a student called Shona giving a presentation on her research report. Listen and choose the best answer A, B, or C. You will hear the recording TWICE. 1. In order to set up her research programme, Shona got ________. A. advice from personal friends in other countries B. help from students in other countries C. information from her tutor’s contacts in other countries 2. What types of people were included in the research? A. young people in their first job B. men who were working C. women who were unemployed

A. to get a wide range of data B. to limit people's responses C. to guide people through interviews

A. Current concerns are misrepresented by the press. B. Financial issues are critical to the government. C. Reforms within hospitals have been unsuccessful.

3. Shona says that in her questionnaire her aim was ________. 4. What do Shona’s initial results show about medical services in Britain? 5. Shona needs to do further research in order to ________. A. present the government with her findings B. decide the level of extra funding needed C. identify the preferences of the public

PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

Section 1: Choose the correct option marked A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences.

1. ________ weak was a well-known fact. A. That their team was C. Their team was B. That their team being D. If their team was 2. Richard, my neighbour, ________ in World War II. A. says to fight B. says to have fought C. is said to fight D. is said to have fought 3. ________ the phone rang later that night did Tom remember the appointment. A. No sooner C. Not until D. Just before B. Only 4. My sister has just ________ sixteen. A. completed C. become B. turned D. had 5. Jane really loves the ________ jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present. A. wooden brown nice B. nice wooden brown C. brown wooden nice D. nice brown wooden 6. I’ve got so much spare time. Now I’m thinking of taking ________ a new hobby like stamp collecting. A. in B. off C. up D. over 7. I have always ________ my older brother for his courage and honesty. A. taken up B. taken after D. looked after C. looked up to 8. The sight of so many sweets made the children’s mouths________. A. drip B. moisten C. water D. wet 9. It was such a shock to receive a letter like that ________. A. in the red B. out of the blue C. in the pink 10. - Jane: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?” D. over the moon - Tony: “________.”

A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job C. Of course not. I still need it now B. Yes, you can use it D. Yes, it’s all right

A. let B. put C. taken D. dropped

B. didn’t miss/ would have been D. hadn’t missed/ would be A. hadn’t missed/ would have been C. hadn’t missed/ had been

A. be B. were C. was D. is

A. It used as a measurement C. The use of a measurement

A. shoulder C. finger D. wrist

11. Don’t be ________ in by his charm – he’s ruthless. 12. If Jim ________ the plane, he ________ here by now. 13. He insisted that his method ________ correct. 14. ________ in several early civilizations, a cubit was based on the length of the forearm from the tip of the middle finger to the elbow. B. A measurement was used D. Used as a measurement 15. You just never lift a ________ to help me – I have to do everything myself! B. hand 16. At the end of the match the players were ________ exhausted. C. actually D. merely A. solely B. utterly

C. In person A. On behalf B. On account D. Instead

B. term A. condition D. decree C. rule

D. discharged B. dismissed C. expelled A. exiled

C. remarkable A. subtle D. clear B. few

17. ________ of all of us who are here tonight, I would like to thank Mr. Jones for his talk. 18. He agreed to give me his car for the weekend on ________ that I helped him write his essay. 19. George was ________ from school for bad behavior. 20. The pictures are similar, but there are ________ differences between them. Section 2: Each line in the following passage contains one mistake. Find out the mistake and correct it as the example below. Line 0: because → because of

twenty-five percents of

0………………. 1………………. 2………………. 3………………. 4………………. 5………………. 6………………. 7………………. 8………………. 9………………. 10……………..

1. IMPRESS 2. SERVE 3. CONVERSE 4. ADD 5. EMPLOY 6. SPEAK 7. END 8. MECHANIC 9. ABLE 10. POSSIBLE

People have always valued elephants because their size and strength. Asian elephants has been captured and trained to work for human being for two thousand years. We have been used in battles from the 3rd century up when World War II. Because they are easily trained, they have been used to transport goods and carry huge logs from forests which was once their homes. Approximately the world’s population of Asian elephants have been caught and trained to do variety jobs, including carrying passengers and help to capture more wild elephants. Elephants are considered to be more intelligent then most animals, including domestic dogs and cats. This shows by the way they can easily learn to do tricks and perform tasks, as soon as by the playful behavior of young elephants, who energetically play games of hide and seek, tug of war and tag. Section 3: Supply the correct form of the word provided to the right of each blank. When computers appeared in the 1950s, many people thought that it would not be long before these (1) _______ machines started talking, thinking for themselves and taking over the world. People predicted all kinds of things, from robot (2) _______ to computerized houses. None of it happened. Despite the billions of dollars and years of research given to developing artificial intelligence, computers are still unable to hold a normal (3) _______ with a human being. In fact, although computers today can process information thousands of times faster than they could fifty years ago, they are only two or three times better at using human language than they were back then. In (4)________, the huge increase in computer use has proved that today’s computers, with their windows, mice, icons and commands, do not operate in the same way as the human brain. If this were not true, there would be no need for the thousands of tech support staff (5) _______ by all centres. The trouble is that, even though computers can turn (6) _______ into text, recognise objects by using cameras, search through (7) _______ amounts of data and even use robot (8) _______ to move like human beings, they are unable to put all these (9) _______ together and actually think and function like human beings. One of the reasons for this is that scientists still do not know much about how the human brain works, so it is (10) _______ to program computers to copy the brain’s processes. PART 3. READING Section 1: Read the following passage and think of a word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word for each space. Getting from place to place has been a challenge for humans (1) ______ the beginning of man’s existence. Not only (2) ______ people struggle with the actually physical problems of travel, but they also need to know the right direction to go. In one’s own little part of the world, this may have been relatively easy, but, as humans expanded further and further, it became necessary to determine how to get from one 3

place to (3) ______ and back again. Paths, roads, and trails made journeys easier, and the creation of maps transmitted this knowledge to others. (4) ______, once humans pushed onto the vast oceans, there were (5)______ roads or accurate maps. The compass, showing the magnetic north, was a great, yet imperfect, aid. Latitude could be measured by sun angles, but (6) ______ the perfection of timepieces in the 19th century, it was almost impossible to measure longitude. Fortunately, today there is a device which allows people easily to find their position no matter (7) ______ they are: the Global Positioning System (GPS). The Global Positioning System (8) ______ of a series of twenty-four satellites in geosynchronous orbit around Earth at an altitude of 12,500 miles. These satellites are in fixed positions, so, by reading the (9) ______ from three of them, a person holding a GPS receiver can know exactly where he is. The GPS receiver synchronizes its clock with (10) ______ of the satellites’ atomic clocks. Section 2: Read the following passage and choose the best option marked A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. What is ‘extreme’ weather? Why are people talking about it these days? ‘Extreme’ weather is an unusual weather event such as rainfall, a drought or a heat wave in the wrong place or at the wrong time. In theory, they are very rare. But these days, our TV screens are constantly showing such extreme weather events. Take just three news stories from 2010: 28 centimetres of rain fell on Riode Janeiro in 24 hours, Nashville, USA, had 33 centimetres of rain in two days and there was record rainfall in Pakistan.

The effects of this kind of rainfall are dramatic and lethal. In Rio de Janeiro, landslides followed, burying hundreds of people. In Pakistan, the floods affected 20 million people. Meanwhile, other parts of the world suffer devastating droughts. Australia, Russia and East Africa have been hit in the last ten years. And then there are unexpected heat waves, such as in 2003 in Europe. That summer, 35.000 deaths were said to be heat-related.

So, what is happening to our weather? Are these extreme events part of a natural cycle? Or are they caused by human activity and its effects on the Earth’s climate? Peter Miller says it’s probably a mixture of both of these things. On the one hand, the most important influences on weather events are natural cycles in the climate. Two of the most famous weather cycles, El Niño and La Niña, originate in the Pacific Ocean. The heat from the warm ocean rises high into the atmosphere and affects weather all around the world. On the other hand, the temperature of the Earth’s oceans is slowly but steadily going up. And this is a result of human activity. We are producing greenhouse gases that trap heat in the Earth’s atmosphere. This heat warms up the atmosphere, land and oceans. Warmer oceans produce more water vapor - think of heating a pan of water in your kitchen. Turn up the heat, it produces steam more quickly. Satellite data tells US that the water vapor in the atmosphere has gone up by four percent in 25 years. This warm, wet air turns into the rain, storms, hurricanes and typhoons that we are increasingly experiencing. Climate scientist, Michael Oppenheimer, says that we need to face the reality of climate change. And we also need to act now to save lives and money in the future. (Source: © 2015 National Geographic Learning, www.ngllife.com/wild-weather)

1. It is stated in the passage that extreme weather is ______. A. becoming more common C. difficult for scientists to understand B. not a natural occurrence D. killing more people than ever before 2. Which of these things is the basis of normal weather patterns? A. greenhouse gases B. human activity C. El Niño and La Niña D. water vapour 3. What caused thousands of deaths in 2003?

A. a period of hot weather C. a long spell of heavy rain B. floods after a bad summer D. large-scale landslides 4. According to the passage, extreme weather is a problem because ______.

A. we can never predict it C. it’s often very destructive B. it only affects crowded places D. its causes are completely unknown

5. Which statement is NOT supported by the information in the passage? A. Extreme weather is substantially influenced by human activity. B. Unusual weather events are part of natural cycles. C. We can limit the bad effects of extreme weather. D. Such extreme weather is hardly the consequence of human activity.

Section 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

FENG SHUI – POSITIVE FEELINGS CHINESE STYLE

Recently, the Feng Shui business has been booming as more and more people (1) _______ an interest in Asian culture and lifestyles. Whether people are (2) _______ Feng Shui experts or simply buying books and trying it out for themselves, there is no doubt that, in the West, in the last few years the idea of Feng Shui has really (3) _______ off. So what exactly is Feng Shui? Well, it is a Chinese art form that is concerned (4) _______ the way you arrange the rooms and the furniture in your house. It is believed that organising these things correctly will (5) ______ you happiness and good luck. In the UK there are currently about 300 Feng Shui consultants. They will come to your house or office and give you advice (6) _______ on your lifestyle and date of birth. According to one such expert, I (7) _______ install an aquarium with six black and one red goldfish in my living room in order to absorb bad vibes. He also told me to (8) _______ attention to one of my windows. He advised me to put plants on the window sill to prevent the loss of positive energy. The real ‘weak spot’ in my house, however, was the cooker. He reassured me that hanging some dried vegetables above it would solve the (9) _______.Whether you believe in the power of Feng Shui or not, it is certainly having a major (10) _______ on the way thousands of people organize their homes.

1. A. take 2. A. requesting 3. A. made 4. A. with 5. A. carry 6. A. based 7. A. ought 8. A. give 9. A. fault 10. A. affect B. do B. asking B. driven B. of B. give B. put B. need B. pay B. error B. impact C. make C. consulting C. taken C. in C. make C. held C. have C. have C. mistake C. consequence D. give D. advising D. started D. through D. bring D. carried D. must D. put D. problem D. power

Section 4: You are going to read an article about treasure in the mud. Five sentences have been removed from the article. Choose the sentences from A-F the one which best fits gaps 1-5. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use.

TREASURE IN THE MUD Ian Smith likes to spend his free time looking for ancient objects

Mudlark was the nineteenth-century name for someone who searched in river mud at low tide, on the lookout for objects that other people had lost or thrown into the water. For the original mudlarks it was a way of making a living. But for Ian Smith it’s a hobby, because he’s looking for objects of historical interest. Ian heads down to the River Thames at low tide with his electronic metal-detector and a spade. Working around fast and sometimes dangerous tides, he hunts for ancient everyday objects from cups and coins to buttons and badges. Anyone can have a go, as long as they have permission. There are currently about 300 licensed mudlarks in Britain. But Ian, who is an antique dealer by profession, is not an ordinary one. After thirty years, there’s barely a patch of wet mud on any tidal river in the UK that he doesn’t know. 1. __________ ‘You’re not likely to find a chest of gold on a foreshore and the spectacular stuff in museums is there because it is extremely rare,’ Ian tells me when I meet him under London’s Tower Bridge shortly after breakfast. Here it’s more likely to be the everyday possessions of ordinary families. In other words, they are objects that tell us how such people used to live centuries ago. It’s mostly rubbish – literally, from a time when unwanted things were simply thrown into the river. Mudlarking involves working with a metal detector, but also using your eyes – studying the surface, picking it over and knowing what you’re looking at when you see it. Mudlarking, says Ian, is an activity that tends to attract solitary characters. 2. __________

‘But,’ he adds, ‘it’s also very tranquil. You may be in the middle of the city but the lapping of the water takes you away from the hustle.’ We quickly make our first find, the sole from a sixteenth-century shoe. Then, much to my dismay, Ian casually tosses aside our find: ‘You get to see a lot of those over the years,’ he says. 3. __________ That piece of shoe leather, for example, is a give-away that the patch of mud around it is likely to have been eroded by the tides to the sixteenth-century layer. Several oyster shells – an expensive shellfish now, but common workman’s food then – support the theory. Conscious that the tide is against us, we dig a little deeper. An item is often better preserved in the mud that it would be if exposed to the air. 4. __________ ‘While mudlarking is ultimately about the love of history, it is also a race to capture and record what we can before it’s gone,’ says Ian. ‘The water erodes layers, and property developments push further and further out into the river.’ Sifting the mud in his surgeon’s gloves, Ian picks up what the untrained eye would see as a lump of stone. 5. _________ Next, what looks to be a bit of grit reveals itself to be a tiny silver penny bearing the image of Queen Elizabeth I. ‘People ask fishermen what they get out of staring out over a river for hours on end and, unless you’re a fisherman, it’s hard to explain,’ says Ian. ‘It’s the same with mudlarking. Like fishing, it’s very easy to become obsessive about it. But unlike fishing, you also have the pure excitement of seeing something that’s been buried for centuries. It’s still amazing to me that this stuff is there.’

SENTENCES

A. Long, disused sets of steps that descend into the mud are another such clue. B. But finding such objects can point towards more interesting things nearby. C. It turns out to be part of a sword. D. Because of this wide experience, he has special permission to dig deep in search of antiquities. E. This scientific fact means the muddy shoreline is a sort of time capsule. F. You have to be that sort of person to want to poke about in the mud for thirty years. PART 4. WRITING

Section 1: Write the sentence beginning with the word(s) given so that it has the closest meaning to the original one. Write the answers on your answer sheet. 1. While I strongly disapprove of your behavior, I will help you this time. → Despite my ____________________________________________________. 2. I only realised that I had forgotten to close the door when she told me. → Only when ____________________________________________________. 3. Despite Jack’s strange clothes, everybody ignored him. → Nobody took __________________________________________________. 4. We will not delay our voyage whether there is a rain or not. → Regardless ____________________________________________________. 5. To pass the time, I looked through some magazines. → I whiled ______________________________________________________. Section 2: Write an essay within 250 words on the following topic:

Classmates are a more important influence than parents on a child’s success in school.

- Do you agree or disagree with the above statement? - Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge and experiences. _____THE END_____

SỞ SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2017-20182- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Gồm 02 trang)

PART A. LISTENING (4 points) Section 1: You will hear a man telephoning a library to find out about joining. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the recording TWICE. 2 points (0.2pt/item) 1. (passport) photos/ (passport) photographs 6. 48 3. 125 (per year) 8. (a) card/ cards 4. 8 9. Grantingham 5. 1.50 10. Friday 2. (a) bank statement 7. local papers/ local newspapers

3. C 4. B 2. C 5. A

2. B 4. A 3. A 5. C

8. C 18. A 4. B 14. D 3. C 13. A 7. C 17. A 10. A 20. A 2. D 12. D 6. C 16. B 9. B 19. C 5. D 15. C

Section 2: You will hear a teacher talking to a group of students. 1 point (0.2pt/item) 1. C Section 3: You will hear a student called Shona giving a presentation on her research report. Listen and choose the best answer A, B, or C. 1 point (0.2pt/item) 1. B PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5 points) Section 1: Choose the correct option marked A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. 2 points (0.1pt/ item) 1. A 11. C Section 2: Each line in the following passage contains one mistake. Find out the mistake and correct it as the example below. 1 point (0.1pt/ item) - Tìm đúng nhưng không sửa được cho 0,05 điểm

has We when was percents Correction have They until/to were percent variety help then shows soon Correction various/a variety of helping than is shown well Line Mistake 1 2 3 4 5 Line Mistake 6 7 8 9 10

Section 3: Supply the correct form of the word provided to the right of each blank. 2 points (0.2pt/ item) 1. impressive 6. speech 3. conversation 8. mechanisms 5. employed 10. impossible 2. servants 7. endless 4. addition 9. abilities

PART C. READING (6 points) https://nguyenthienhuongvp77.violet.vn

Section 1: Read the following passage and think of a word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word for each space. 2 points (0.2pt/ item) 5. no 1. since 2. do 3. another

4. However/Nevertheless Nonetheless 9. signal 10. that 7. where 8. consists

2. C 4. C 3. A 5. D

8. B 3. C 2. C 5. D 7. D 4. A 9. D 6. A 10. B

2. F 3. B 5. C 4. E

ideas, supporting

items and grammatical lexical

6. until/till/til Section 2: Read the following passage and choose the best option marked A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer of each of the questions. 1 point (0.2pt/item) 1. A Section 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 2 points (0.2pt/item) 1. A Section 4: Choose the sentences from A-F the one which best fits gaps 1-5. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. 1 point (0.2pt/ item) 1. D PART D. WRITING (5 points) Section 1: Write the sentence beginning with the word given so that it has the closest meaning to the original one. Write the answers on your answer sheet. 1 point (0.2 pt/ sentence) 1. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time. 2. Only when she told me did I realise that I had forgotten to close the door. 3. Nobody took notice of Jack despite his strange clothes. 4. Regardless of the rain, we will not delay our voyage. 5. I whiled away the time looking through some magazines. Section 2: Essay writing. 4 points Candidates’ essays are evaluated based on the following criteria: Content: 40% (1.6 pts): Arguments are adequately supported (with main ideas and relevant examples etc.). Language: 30% (1.2 pts): Demonstrate a diverse range of structures. Presentation: 30% (1.2 pts): Write with suitable style, cohesion, coherence. Appropriate word count.

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