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S GDT BẮC GIANG
TRƯỜNG THPT BHẠ
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI VĂN HOÁ CẤP TRƯỜNG
NĂM HỌC 2024-2025
MÔN THI: Tiếng Anh - LỚP 11 Phổ thông
Ngày thi: 27/2/2025
Thời gian làm bài 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.
LƯU Ý:
- Đề thi gồm 08 trang, thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi.
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu nào.
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I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (70 PTS)
SECTION 1. LISTENING (15 PTS)
Part I: You will hear eight short recordings. For each question, choose the correct answer. You
will hear each recording TWICE.
Question 1: What do the students need to bring tomorrow?
A. food B. a water bottle C. money
Question 2: What time does the girl’s school start?
A. 8.30 B. 8.50 C. 9.10
Question 3: Where does the boy live?
A. near a pizza place B. near a pool C. near the cinema
Question 4: Where did the boy find his football boots?
A. in the kitchen B. in the cupboard C. in the bag
Question 5: What did the girl eat before she came home?
A. a sandwich B. a cake C. a burger
Question 6: What are the two friends going to buy Paul for his birthday?
A. a book about a band B. a book about surfing C. a thriller book
Question 7: What is the weather forecast for tomorrow?
A. cloudy B. rainy C. sunny
Question 8: What sorts of TV programmes does the girl like watching?
A. sports B. comedy C. wildlife documentary
Part 2: You will hear an interview with Elizabeth Holmes about her experience working in
Africa. Listen and choose the best answer. You will hear the recording TWICE.
Question 9: Before she went to Africa, Elizabeth worked for a ______.
A. security company B. travel agency C. dental clinic
Question 10: The training course in London that Elizabeth attended was called ______.
A. Chases B. Changes C. Change it
Question 11: Elizabeth’s job in Africa was to teach local farmers how to ______.
A. market their produce B. do different things C. nurse others
Question 12: To travel short distances in Africa, Elizabeth used a ______.
A. motorbike B. truck C. car
Question 13: In the area of Africa where she lived, Elizabeth feels that she got on best with _____.
A. the men B. the women C. the children
Question 14: Back in England, Elizabeth found that she was disturbed by ______ in the city.
A. the markets B. the food C. the traffic
Question 15: Nowadays, what does Elizabeth spend more time on ______.
A. jogging B. working C. gardening
SECTION 2. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (38 PTS)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 16: Mr. Brown is a very generous old man. He has given most of his wealth to a charity
organization.
A. caring B. honest C. kind D. mean
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Question 17: He bent over backwards to please his new girlfriend but she never seemed satisfied.
A. gave someone a nice surprise B. tried to do something easy
C. did some physical exercise D. worked hard to do something
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the
main stress in each of the following word.
Question 18: A. progress B. purpose C. impose D. promise
Question 19: A. interference B. development C. advantageous D. energetic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Many volunteer organizations have been founded to give help and support to
disadvantaged children in the area.
A. laid out B. set up C. looked on D. got by
Question 21: Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. admirable B. hostile C. sociable D. introverted
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the other words.
Question 22: A. constitution B. initiative C. integration D. infectious
Question 23: A. talent B. interact C. charity D. care
Question 24: A. blind B. reconcile C. solidarity D. decisive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 25: Maria: Your voice it makes me scared. I would like you to speak softly.” - Tracy: ______.
A. Oh, my bad. Sorry! B. I couldnt help thinking the same.
C. Its my pleasure. D. Dont say that again.
Question 26: Anne: Can you believe Sarah has a new boyfriend? - John: ______.
A. I dont know yet because I might have a date today. B. No way. I couldnt agree more.
C. Yeah. She’s dated like thirty guys this year. D. Thats very kind. Thank you.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined word or phrase that must be changed in
order for the sentence to be correct.
Question 27: I’m preparing some Christmas gifts for the disadvantaged students in the school we
have visited two months ago.
A. preparing B. have visited C. for D. disadvantaged
Question 28: You need a number of life skills to become independently.
A. need B. a number of C. skills D. independently
Question 29: It is said that the firefighters’ single-minded devotion to the rescue of the victims of
the fire was respectful.
A. respectful B. to C. single-minded D. is said
Question 30: Children with cognitive impairments may have difficulty in learning basic skills like
reading, writing or problem solution.
A. cognitive impairments B. problem solution C. reading D. in
Question 31: It was the age of 20 that he became successful as a professional writer.
A. professional writer B. became C. as D. the age of 20
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 32: I can watch TV and play computer games on Sunday because I ______ go to school
that day.
A. dont have to B. have to C. must D. mustn’t
Question 33: There is more unemployment among young people who have not been to university,
and people with the right skills ______ a big advantage in the job market.
A. have B. give C. take D. make
Question 34: Perhaps you should make friends ______ Lan if your parents like her.
A. about B. with C. of D. up
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Question 35: You ______ talk to your grandparents more often so that you can understand them
better.
A. shouldn’t B. ought to C. ought not to D. may
Question 36: We should take part in charity work to help people ______ need.
A. on B. of C. at D. in
Question 37: It is Peter ______ I admire the most in my class.
A. which B. when C. that D. where
Question 38: Your room ______ messy. When did you last clean it?
A. feels B. tastes C. smells D. looks
Question 39: This page needs ______ again.
A. checking B. be checked C. to check D. checked
Question 40: I ______ to all the local newspapers and TV stations to complain.
A. have already been writing B. already writing C. have already written D. already write
Question 41: ASEAN focuses on ______ member states’ economics.
A. to improve B. improving C. improve D. improved
Question 42: ______, I began to feel better.
A. The doctor gave me an aspirin B. An aspirin was given to me
C. Being given an aspirin D. Given an aspirin
Question 43: If you know ______ disabled person who needs money for an issue related to their
disability,you can help that person raise funds.
A. a B. an C. the D. x (no article)
Question 44: People with ______ impairments have difficulty climbing stairs.
A. cognitive B. mobility C. hearing D. speech
Question 45: Max and Carol ______ after two years together.
A. broke down B. broke over C. broke up D. broke off
Question 46: Teenage children don’t feel comfortable when their parents still keep ______ them
like little kids.
A. facing B. behaving C. treating D. betraying
Question 47: The government hopes their program will help new immigrants ______ well in the
community.
A. enter B. immerse C. exchange D. integrate
Question 48: You should make a list of things to do and ______ them if you want to work effectively.
A. do B. arrange C. prioritise D. approach
Question 49: It is your ______ that determines how fast you achieve your goal and how well you
acquire a skill or knowledge.
A. tension B. reliability C. expense D. attitude
Question 50: The lottery winner was willing to spend a considerable sum of money to ______ to
charity to help those in need.
A. give away B. give in C. give back D. give up
Question 51: One aim of the International Day of Persons with Disabilities is to further ______
awareness of disability issues.
A. raise B. rise C. increase D. pull
Question 52: All the three boys seem to fall ______ over heels in love with her.
A. head B. heart C. mind D. soul
Question 53: The Admissions Panel are going to ______ my application for a scholarship.
A. take by surprise B. take an interest in
C. take for granted D. take into consideration
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SECTION 3. READING (17 PTS)
Choose the word and phrase that best fits the numbered space in the following passage.
Anger, like the common cold, seems to be part and parcel of life. It arises in predictable
situations, yet it always seems sudden and unexpected. In extreme cases, people treat (54)______ in
a completely unacceptable way. They say and do things to those around them that would get them
arrested if (55)______ in public. They scream, insult, and sometimes even cause injury. When the
outburst is over, people (56)______ have lost their temper feel guilty and try to come up with some
sort of excuse or apology. Different people deal with their anger in different way, but no matter how
well we can control this emotion, we must always bear in (57)______ that it is there. Most people
fail to recognise when anger is about to strike and, (58)______, they are unable to prevent their
outburst.
Question 54: A. other B. others C. another D. the other
Question 55: A. did B. doing C. done D. having done
Question 56: A. which B. what C. when D. who
Question 57: A. mind B. brain C. account D. view
Question 58: A. however B. as a result C. because D. particularly
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Zadie Smith is a successful British novelist who caused a sensation in the publishing world at
the age of 21 when the first 80 pages of her first novel were sold to a publisher. She was born on 25
October, 1975 in a working class area of London. Her mother grew up in Jamaica and emigrated to
England, where she met and later married an Englishman. Zadie was originally named Sadie but
when she was fourteen, she changed her name to Zadie because it sounded more exotic.
Zadie attended state primary and secondary schools and she later went on to get a degree in
English Literature from the University of Cambridge. While she was in her final year of university,
she completed her first novel, White Teeth. The novel was an instant success and won several
literary prizes, including the Whitbread First Novel Award. It’s a coming-of-age story about three
ethnically diverse families set in multicultural London. The novel tackles subjects such as history,
multiculturism and war. White Teeth has been translated into over twenty languages and the novel
was adapted into a television drama.
Her most recent book On Beauty won the prestigious Orange Prize for Fiction. Zadie Smith
continues to write essays and short stories for magazines. Her writing has provided people with a
valuable insight into contemporary topics, in particular, multicultural families. Despite her young
age and modest background, Zadie Smith has become one of the leading novelists of her generation.
(Adapted from New Destinations by H. Q. Mitchell and Marileni Malkogianni)
Question 59: Zadie Smith spent her early years in ______.
A. London B. different countries C. Jamaica D. an exotic place
Question 60: What does the word emigrated in the first paragraph mean?
A. to marry someone B. to marry someone
C. to change your name D. to go and live in another country
Question 61: What does the word It in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. the Whitbread First Novel Award B. White Teeth
C. London D. university
Question 62: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE about On Beauty?
A. It is a coming-of-age story B. It is a short story.
C. It has won an award. D. It is Zadie’s most successful book.
Question 63: According to the writer, which of the following statements is TRUE about Zadie Smith?
A. She wrote her first novel just after she graduated from university.
B. She is a very modest person.
C. She is the most successful novelist of her generation.
D. She enjoyed fame and success at a young age.
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Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Willis Carrier designed the first air-conditioning unit in 1902, just a year after graduating
from Cornell University with a Masters in Engineering.
At a Brooklyn printing plant, fluctuations in heat and moisture were causing the size of the
printing paper to keep changing slightly, making it hard to align different colours. Carrier’s
invention made it possible to control temperature and humidity levels and so align the colours. The
invention also allowed industries such as film, processed food, textiles and pharmaceuticals to
improve the quality of their products.
In 1914, the first air-conditioning device was installed in a private house. However, its size,
similar to that of an early computer, meant it took up too much space to come into widespread use,
and later models, such as the Weathermaker, which Carrier brought out in the 1920s, cost too much
for most people. Cooling for human comfort, rather than industrial need, really took off when three
air conditioners were installed in the J.L. Hudson Department Store in Detroit, Michigan. People
crowded into the shop to experience the new invention. The fashion spread from department stores
to cinemas, whose income rose steeply as a result of the comfort they provided.
To start with, money-conscious employers regarded air conditioning as a luxury. They
considered that if they were paying people to work, they should not be paying for them to be
comfortable as well. So in the 1940s and ’50s, the industry started putting out a different message
about its product: according to their research, installing air conditioning increased productivity
amongst employees. They found that typists increased their output by 24% when transferred from a
regular office to a cooled one. Another study into office working conditions, which was carried out
in the late ’50s, showed that the majority of companies cited air conditioning as the single most
important contributor to efficiency in offices.
However, air conditioning has its critics. Jed Brown, an environmentalist, complains that air
conditioning is a factor in global warming. Unfortunately, he adds, because air conditioning leads to
higher temperatures, people have to use it even more. However, he admits that it provides a
healthier environment for many people in the heat of summer.
(Adapted from Complete IELTS by Guy Brook-Hart and Vanessa Jakeman)
Question 64: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Different ways to make workers feel more comfortable
B. A luxurious invention solving problems in a factory
C. The journey Willis Carrier set up a new business
D. The history of an invention that makes life more pleasant
Question 65: According to the passage, why weren’t home air conditioners popular at first?
A. They were too big and expensive.
B. They were not considered necessary.
C. They were too inefficient.
D. They were complicated to use.
Question 66: According to the passage, why did employers refuse to put air conditioning in
workplaces at first?
A. They could not afford to pay for it.
B. They thought it was more suitable for cinemas.
C. They did not want to spend money improving working conditions.
D. They thought people would not work so hard in comfortable conditions.
Question 67: According to the passage, what was the purpose of the research done in the 1940s and 1950s?
A. to make office workers produce more
B. to compare different types of air conditioner
C. to persuade businesses to buy air conditioners
D. to encourage employees to change offices
Question 68: What does the word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. the first air-conditioning device B. the early computer
C. latter model of air-conditioning device D. the Weathermaker
Question 69: The word “steeplyin paragraph 3 can be best replaced by _____.
A. gradually B. dramatically C. sluggishly D. reasonably