Đề Thi Thử Đại Học Khối A1, D Anh 2013 - Phần 8 - Đề 2

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TRƯỜNG THPT ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC PHAN ĐÌNH PHÙNG HÀ NỘI Môn : TIẾNG ANH; Khối: D _________ Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút. Không kể thời gian phát đề Họ và tên thí sinh: …………………………………………. Mã đề thi: 423 Số báo danh: ……………………………………………….. ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU; TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 10 A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker. The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the participant’s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication. Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed. Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The function of the voice in performance B. Communication styles C. The connection between voice and personality D. The production of speech Question 2. What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen" in lines 8- 9? A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are. B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words. C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication. D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas. Question 3. The word "Here" in line 9 refers to…………… A. interpersonal interactions B. the tone C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen Question 4. The word "derived" in line 13 is closest in meaning to……… A. discussed B. prepared C. registered D. obtained Question 5. Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in line 14-15? A. As examples of public performance B. As examples of basic styles of communication C. To contrast them to singing
D. To introduce the idea of self-image Question 6. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's……… A. general physical health B. personality C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality Question 7. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide………… A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength Question 8. The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to…………… A. frequently B. exactly C. severely D. easily Question 9. The word "evidenced" in line 22 is closest in meaning to…………… A. questioned B. repeated C. indicated D. exaggerated Question 10. According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate? A. Lethargy B. Depression C. Boredom D. Anger Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 11: Most people get fewer colds in the summer than in the winter. A. A person is more likely to get a cold in the winter than in the summer. B. More people have summer colds than winter colds. C. People get colder in the summer than in the winter. D. The winter is much colder than the summer. Question 12: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work. A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work. B. If her were careful, we would finish the work. C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work. D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work. Question 13: The meeting was put off because of pressure of time. A. The meeting started earlier because people wanted to leave early. B. The meeting was planned to start late because of time pressure. C. The meeting lasted much longer than usual. D. There was not enough time to hold the meeting. Question 14: The hostess made every effort to see that her guests got the food and drinks they wanted. A. The hostess was reluctant to offer her guests food and drinks. B. The hostess tried hard to please her guests. C. The guests refused the food and drinks prepared by the hostess. D. Neither the guests nor the hostess had food or drinks. Question 15: Twice as many men as women are insurance agents. A. More men than women have insurance. B. Male insurance agents outnumber female agents. C. Women are twice as likely as men to have sold insurance. D. Insurance is twice as difficult to sell to women as to men. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one Question 16: There is a huge amount of ………associated with children’s TV shows nowadays. A. produce B. manufacturing C. merchandising D. sales Question 17: The replacement of shops such as the groceries’ and chemist’s by cafes…………..the housewives with insufficient facilities for shopping. A. leave B. have left C. has left D. to have left Question 18: On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater. A. Upon reflection B. After discussing with my wife C. For this time only D. For the second time Question 19: I have English classes …………day - on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays.
A. all other B. each other C. every other D. this and the other Question 20: ………..be needed, the water basin would need to be dammed. A. Hydroelectric power should B. when hydroelectric power C. Hydroelectric power D. Should hydroelectric power Question 21: It is very difficult to…………the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language. A. convert B. convey C. exchange D. transfer Question 22: It’s essential that every student …………the exam before attending the course. A. pass B. passes C. would pass D. passed Question 23: All………….is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life. A. what is needed B. for our needs C. the thing needed D. that is needed Question 24: I decided to go to the library as soon as I……………. A. finish what I did B. would finish what I did C. finished what I did D. finished what I was doing Question 25: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to……….what she missed while she was away. A. catch up on B. cut down on C. put up with D. take up with Question 26: ………………..in the street yesterday was very friendly. A. The mounted police, who I saw B. The mounted police I saw whom C. Who is the mounted police I saw D. The mounted police whom I saw Question 27: …………so aggressive, we’d get on much better. A. She was not B. Had she not C. Weren’t she D. If she weren’t Question 28: “ Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the teacher said. A. visible B. audible C. edible D. eligible Question 29: Please cut my hair …………….the style in this magazine. A. the same length as B. the same length like C. the same long like D. the same long as Question 30: Issues from price, place, promotion, and product are………….of marketing strategies planning, despite growing calls to expand the range of issues in today’s more complex world. A. these that are among the most conventional concerns B. among the most conventional concerns C. they are among the most conventional concerns D. those are among the most conventional concerns Question 31: ………….in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing. A. Frost is produced B. Frost produces C. What produces frost D. What is frost produced Question 32: Half of the children were away from school last week because of…………..of influenza. A. a break- out B. a breakthrough C. an outburst D. an outbreak Question 33: She was ………………she could not say anything. A. so surprised at the news that B. such surprised at the news that C. so surprised of the news that D. so that surprised for the news Question 34: Jane: Thank you for a lovely evening. Barbara: ……………………………… A. You are welcome B. Have a good day C. Thanks D. Cheer! Question 35: He said that the plane had already left and that I…………………an hour earlier. A. must have arrived B. had to arrive C. should have arrived D. was supposed to arrive Question 36: So little………….about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me. A. I have known B. I knew C. do I know D. did I know Question 37: A: ……………………………………. B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday. A. When have you got this beautiful dress? B. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you? C. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing! D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
Question 38: A washing machine of this type will certainly………….normal domestic use. A. stand up for B. come up with C. get on to D. take down with Question 39: Ancient Egyptians mummified their dead through the use of chemicals, ………….ancient Peruvians did through natural processes. A. because B. whereas C. even though D. whether or not Question 40: I studied English for four years in high school. ……………had trouble talking with people when I was traveling in the US. A. Therefore, I B. Otherwise, I C. Although I D. However, I Question 41: Carbon dioxide may be absorbed by trees or water bodies, or it may stay in the atmosphere when…………. , while it is only in the atmosphere that chlorofluorocarbons find their home. A. by releasing emissions from cars B. released from car emissions C. cars that release emissions D. emissions are released by cars Question 42: There seems to be a large ………. between the number of people employed in service industries, and those employed in the primary sectors. A. discriminate B. discretion C. discrepancy D. distinguish Question 43: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as ……….. A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. here and there Question 44: A: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester! B: …………………but I think it’s quite easy. A. I couldn’t agree more. B. I understand what you’re saying. C. You’re right. D. I don’t see in that way. Question 45: It’s a formal occasion so we’ll have to…….….to the nines- no jeans and pullovers this time! A. hitch up B. put on C. wear in D. get dressed up Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 46 - 55 COULD COMPUTER GAMES BE GOOD FOR YOU AFTER ALL In Britain, the average young person now spends more money on games each year than on going to the cinema or renting videos. But is this……..46……a bad thing? For years, newspaper reports have been ………47…..that children who spend too much time playing computer games become unsociable, bad- tempered, even violent as a……..48…… But new research, ………49……out in both Europe and the USA, suggests that the opposite may be true. Indeed, playing some of the more complicated games may help people of all ages to improve certain skills. Researchers claim that this is because the games………50……the brain work harder in certain ways, like……..51……sounds and movements quickly and identifying what they are. The fact that people play the games repeatedly……..52……..that they get a lot of practice in these skills which are therefore likely to become highly developed. Social skills may benefit, too. Researchers in Chicago think that fans of first- person shooter games……53…… “Counterstrike” are better than non-players when it comes to building trust and co- operation, and that this……..54……them to make good friendships and become strong members of their communities. So rather than……..55…….up computer games, perhaps young people need to spend more time on them? Question 46. A. necessarily B. certainly C. fully D. nearly Question 47. A. speaking B. informing C. telling D. saying Question 48. A. product B. result C. reason D. conclusion Question 49. A. worked B. thought C. turned D. carried Question 50. A. make B. force C. push D. keep Question 51. A. realizing B. noticing C. imagining D. solving Question 52. A. means B. asks C. brings D. causes Question 53. A. in order to B. such as C. due to D. as well as Question 54. A. supports B. helps C. shows D. serves Question 55. A. giving B. ending C. taking D. stopping
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest ones Question 56: A. merchant B. term C. commercial D. sergeant Question 57: A. colonel B. journal C. touring D. adjourn Question 58: A. obstacle B. obscure C. obsession D. oblivious Question 59: A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases Question 60: A. Valentine B. imagine C. discipline D. determine Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction Question 61: In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for A B what he won a Newberry Caldecott award. C D Question 62: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting A B C to pass the exam. D Question 63: All of the mammals, dolphins are undoubtedly among the friendly to human. A B C D Question 64: Chicago's Sears Tower, now the tallest building in the world, rises 1,522 feet from the A B C ground to the top of it antenna. D Question 65: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and A B the technological institutions if they are to preserve environment. C D Question 66: Many of the important products obtained from trees, one of the most important is A B C wood pulp, which is used in paper-making. D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 67- 75 Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects—an estimated 90 percent of the world's species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity. Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions. For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed. A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly "personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates, In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still
in the documentation phase. In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized. Question 67: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because they……… A. are simple in structure B. have been given scientific names C. are viewed positively by people D. are found mainly in temperate climates Question 68: The word "consequence" in line 2 is closest in meaning to……………. A. result B. explanation C. analysis D. requirement Question 69: The word "striking" in line 7 is closest in meaning to……………… A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful Question 70: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss? A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats C. Their names D. Their variety Question 71: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity EXCEPT……………. A. differences between temperate and tropical zones B. patterns of distribution of species in each region C. migration among temperate and tropical zones D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants Question 72: The word “exceed” in line 10 is closest in meaning to………………. A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to Question 73: The word "generated" in line 24 is closest in meaning to………. A. requested B. caused C. assisted D. estimated Question 74: The author mentions tropical Asia in lines 16-17 as an example of a location where…… A. butterfly behavior varies with climate B. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established C. butterflies are affected by human populations D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species Question 75: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists? A. European butterfly habitats B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that expresses the best meaning formed by the given words Question 76:. No/ doubt/ Alison/ promote A. It’s no doubt Alison will be promoting. B. There’s no doubt that Alison will be promoted. C. There’s no doubt Alison will promote. D. It’s no doubt that Alison is promoted. Question 77: when/ you/ make/ mind/ university/ attend? A. When are you going to make up your mind about which university to attend? B. When will you make up your mind which university to attend? C. When are you going to make your mind about which university to attend? D. When are you making up your mind about university to attend? Question 78: despite / short day/ we/ complain/ much/ do A. Despite such a short day, we tend to complain about having too much to do.
B. Despite such a short day, we tend to complain having too much to do. C. Despite a short day, we tend to complain about too much to do. D. Despite such short day, we tend to complain about having too much do. Question 79: your organization/ possible/ conference/ place A. Your organization made it possible to take place this conference. B. Your organization made possible for this conference to take place. C. Your organization made it possible this conference to take place. D. Your organization made it possible for this conference to take place. Question 80: I/ not see/ point/ rule/ we/ not/ cycle/ school A. I can’t see the point of this rule which we don’t cycle to school. B. I can’t see the point of this rule which says we can’t cycle to school. C. I don’t see the point of this rule which we are not allowed to cycle to school. D. I can’t see the point of rule which says we can’t cycle to school. THE END ANSWER KEY CODE 423 1. C 21. B 41. B 61. C 2. B 22. A 42. C 62. A 3. A 23. D 43. B 63. A 4. D 24. D 44. B 64. D 5. B 25. A 45. D 65. C 6. B 26. D 46. A 66. A 7. B 27. D 47. D 67. C 8. C 28. B 48. B 68. A 9. C 29. A 49. D 69. C 10. D 30. B 50. A 70. D 11. A 31. C 51. B 71. C 12. C 32. D 52. A 72. C 13. D 33. A 53. B 73. B 14. B 34. A 54. B 74. B 15. B 35. C 55. A 75. B 16. C 36. D 56. D 76. B 17. C 37. D 57. C 77. A 18. A 38. A 58. A 78. A 19. C 39. B 59. B 79. D 20. D 40. D 60. A 80. B
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC LẦN 1 NĂM 2013 (Đề thi gồm 07 trang, 80 câu trắc nghiệm) Môn: Tiếng Anh - Thời gian: 90 phút Blacken the letter A, B , C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: Have you seen today’s paper? It ..… they’ve caught those million – pound bank robbers. A. writes B. says C. tells D. talks about Question 2. Could you move your car? You ‘re….. the way of the entrance! A. on B. in C. at D. to Question 3: Don’t ….. to any conclusion before you know the full facts. A. rush B. dive C. leap D. fly Question 4:Three of the words below go together with “HEAD” to make new words. Which word does NOT? A. ache B. man C. master D. line Question 5: What does the following mobile text (cell phone SMS) abbreviation mean: LOL ? A. I am crying B. Laughing out loud C. I’m going to be late D. I love you lots Question 6: “That was fantastic! Could I have a second ..… please? ” A. helping B. course C. plate D. service Question 7: By then I ….. my driving test. I hope. A. pass B. will be passed C. will have passed D. have passed Question 8: ….. … is one of the many factors involved in changing farming methods. A. Each climate B. A climate C. Climates D. The climate Question 9: Not only ….. more brittle than hard maples, but they are also less able to withstand high winds. A. soft maples are B. they are soft maples C. are soft maples D. soft maples Question 10: “Did you know Jim’s getting married next week?” – “ ..… Who to? ” A. Really? B. Is he? C. Never D. All are correct Question 11: - How do you say the following time? 2:57 A. It’s nearly 3 o’clock B. It’s just before 3 o’clock C. It’s just coming up to 3 o’clock D. All are correct Question 12: Which option is NOT correct? “………, I can’t hear myself think.” A. Turn it down B. Turn the music down C. Turn down the music D. Turn down it Question 13: Which of the following ways of saying 6x3 is NOT correct? A. Six times three B. Six multiplied by three C. Six add three D. Six by three Question 14: “When can you get it all done? ” - “………….” A. “How does next Monday sound? B. Two hours ago C. I used to do it on Monday D. How much time do I need? Question 15: Which of the following is the function of this sentence: “I’d love to come, but I’m already going out that evening.” A. Offering to do something B. Apologizing C. Declining an invitation D. Giving advice Question 16: “Jane didn’t look well today, did she? “ -“…..” A. I am afraid not B. No, she seemed ill C. Yes, she seemed sick D. A and B Question 17: After so many years, it is great to see him……….his ambitions. A. get B. realize C. possess D. deserve Question 18: Yes, we went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out. A. every single day B. every other day C. every second day D. every two days
Question 19: “ I am very much obliged to you for helping my family.” - “…………….” A. My pleasure. B. That’s all right C. You’re welcome D. A & C are correct Question 20: Yes, I agree, but at the same time it’s not the end of the world. A. worth worrying about B. worth talking about C. worth looking at D. worth speaking about. Question 21: Which of these is the opposite of straight? A. beautiful B. crooked C. definite D. self - conscious Question 22: - “…….” - “It’s not likely.” A. How important is it to attend university? B. Is it possible to get a good job without attending university? C. Would you be interested in attending university in a foreign country? D. Is it very important to attend a university in a foreign country? Question 23: You …………us about the changes in the plans. We need time to prepare for everything. A. should have told B. must have told C. can’t have told D. might tell Question 24: Occasionally dolphins……….to the surface of the water to take in the oxygen. A. need to raise B. need to rise C. raise D. are swimming Question 25: “Would you mind turning your stereo down?”- “……………………….” A. I’m really sorry! I’m not paying attention. B. Oh, I’m sorry! I didn’t realize that C. No, I don’t D, yes, I do Question 26: His father prefers……………………………………. A. that he attends a different university. B. that he attend a different university C. he attends a different university D. he attend a different university Question 27: Not until……………..himself seriously ill A. he had completed the task did he find B. had he completed the task did he find C. had he completed the task he found D. did he completed the task he had found Question 28: Before eating,………….thoroughly with soap and clean water. A. your hands should be washed B. you should wash your hands C. you need washing your hands D. your hands need washed Question 29: I should be grateful if you would let me keep myself to myself. A. be quiet B. be private C. be lonely D. be special Question 30: Unfortunately, they………us in the auction to the tune of 500 pounds. A. outbid B. outweighed C. overdid D. underwrote Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 31-40 The role of translation enabling literature to pass beyond its natural frontiers is receiving growing recognition. In view of the general increase in this 31 _____ , it is not surprising that many people with literary interests and a knowledge of languages should think of adopting translating as a full- or part-time 32 _____. Some advice may usefully be given to such would -be translators. The first difficulty the beginner will 33 _____ is the unwillingness of publishers to entrust a translator to anyone who has not already 34 _____ a reputation for sound work. The least publishers will 35_____ before commissioning a translator is a faily lengthy 36 _____ of the applicant’s work, even if unpublished. Perhaps the best way the would-be translator can begin is to select some book of the type which he or she feels competent and eager to translate, translate a 37 _____ section of the book and then submit the book and the translation to a suitable publisher. If he or she is extremely lucky, this may result in a commission to translate the book. More probably, however, publishers will 38 _____ the book as such but if they are favorably 39 _____ by the translation, they may very possibly commission some other books of a 40 _____ nature which they
already have in mind. Question 31: A. field B. category C. group D. class Question 32: A. work B. employment C. occupation D. line Question 33: A.encounter B. involve C. reveal D. introduce Question 34: A. formed B. set C. founded D. established Question 35: A. instruct B. oblige C. demand D. direct Question 36: A. instance B. case C. specimen D. model Question 37: A. substantial B. main C. grand D. plentiful Question 38: A. exclude B. reject C. object D. disapprove Question 39: A. impressed B. convinced C. affected D. taken Question 40: A. common B. same C. similar D. joint Blacken the letter A,B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that need correction in each of the following sentences. Question 41: Pollution makes streams, lakes and coastal water (A) unpleasant (B) to look at, to smell, and to swim in. Fish and shellfish harvested from (C) polluted waters may be unsafe to eat (D). Question 42: A finishing (A) motion picture (B) is the work (C) of the collaboration of many individuals (D). Question 43: Educational films are made for (A) schools, training films for industry; documentary films present (B) fact events (C) or circumstances of social, political, or historical nature (D). Question 44:The train to Ho Chi Minh city left at precisely (A) 7 o’ clock as usually,(B) but the train to Ha Noi capital left at half past six o’clock, which (C) was exactly (D) 20 minutes late. Question 45: Whether (A) life in the countryside is better than that (B) in the city depend on (C) each individual’s point of view (D). Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions Question 46: A. appendix B. excitement C. nocturnal D. excavate Question 47: A. applicant B. preference C. courteous D. appointment Question 48: A. extravagant B. fundamental C. distinctively D. dilapidate Question 49: A. primitive B. material C. adjustment D. precaution Question 50: A. interviewer B. concentrate C.comfortable D.technology Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions. Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in business, the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of the Small Business Administration, has noted, "The 1970s was the decade of women entering management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur". What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the corporate world, they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant, had noted, "In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked hard they could become chairman of the board. Now they've found out that isn't going to happen, so they go out on their own".
In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women's" fields: cosmetics and clothing, for example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer software business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in math and engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carriers-and her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the bed to hold the company's cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she hired several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock. Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead. Question 51:What is the main idea of this passage? A.Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world. B.The computer is especially lucrative for women today. C. Women are better at small business than men are. D. Women today are opening more business of their own. Question 52:The word “excluded “ in line 8 is closest meaning to A. not permitted in B. often invited to C. decorators of D. charged admission to Question 53: All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business world EXCEPT A.Women were required to stay at home with their families. B. Women lacked ability to work in business. C.Women faced discrimination in business. D.Women were not trained in business. Question 54: in line 10, “that” refers to A. a woman becomes chairman of the board. B. Women working hard C. Women achieving advanced degrees D. Women believing that business is a place for them. Question 55:According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in 1970s A. Were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management. B.Were still more interested in education than business opportunities C.had fewer obstacles in business than they do today. D. were unable to work hard enough to success in business. Question 56: The author mentions the “ shoesbox under the bed” in the third paragraph in order to A. Show the frugality of women in business B. show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig C. Point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig’s business were limited D. suggest that the company needed to expand Question 57: The expression “ keep tabs on “ in line 16 is closest meaning to A. recognize the appearance of B. keep records of C. provide transportation for D. pay the salaries of
Question 58: The word “hurdles” in line 21 can be best replaced by A. fences B .obstacles C. questions D. small groups Question 59: It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that business operated by women are small because A. Women prefer a small intimate setting. B. Women can’t deal with money. C. Women are not able to borrow money easily. D. many women fail at large businesses. Question 60:The author’s attitude about the future of women in business is A. skeptical B. optimistic C. frustrated D. negative Blacken the letter A,B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 61: The staff couldn’t have worked any harder, but they could not even finish half of the order all the week. A. Had the staff worked a little harder, they might have finished all the order by the end of the week. B. Throughout the week, the staff could only complete half of the order, which how they did not work as hard as they should have. C. The staff, who only completed half of the order all week, could not have worked as hard as they claimed they did. D. Throughout the week, less than half of the order could be produced, although the staff worked as hard as they could. Question 62: You needn’t have taken so many warm clothes there. A. It’s not necessary for you to take so many warm clothes there. B. You have taken so many warm clothes there that I don’t need C. There’s no need for you to take so many warm clothes there D. You took lots of warm clothes there but it turned out not necessary Question 63: In Thailand, the further you go towards the border with Laos, the higher the risk of malaria. A. There is a great risk to you a catching malaria around the far – off Thai border with Laos B. The border with Laos has a higher risk to you of malaria than anywhere else in Thailand C. Although there is malaria all over Thailand, the risk of catching it gets higher in Laos D. The danger of getting malaria in Thailand increases the closer you get to its border with Laos Question 64: My sister would love to be involved in the organization of the event, so would I. A. My sister is so much like me, since she too takes part in organizing events voluntarily B. My sister was so keen to take part in the organization of the event, that I encouraged her C. Both my sister and I would be very happy to take part in organizing the event. D. I would like my sister to volunteer to take part in organizing the event Question 65: Some doubt remains as to the route Alvar Nunez Cahaza de Vaca took to Mexico. A. Al var Nunez Cahaza de Vaca remained uncertain as to which route he should take to get to Mexico. B. Some people doubt that Alvar Nunez Cahaza de Vaca went to Mexico by road. C. It is still not certain how Alvar Nunez Cahaza de Vaca discovered Mexico D. Which way Alvar Nuner Cahaza de Vaca took to Mexico is still not entirely clear. Blacken the letter A,B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 66: I think I should have cooked more food. There’s nothing left now. A. I should not have cooked so much food. B. I regrets cooking too much food now. C. I did not cook much food and I think it is ok now. D. I did not cook much food and I think it was a mistake. Question 67: You need not have washed the sheets. The hotel staff does the cleaning. A. It is good that you washed the sheets. B. It was not necessary to wash the sheets, even though you did. C. It was necessary to wash the sheets, but you did not do it. D. It was necessary to wash the sheets, and you did not do it. Question 68: What has happened? You look as if you have been in the wars. A. You look like an old soldier. B. You are wearing many medals. C. You look as though something unpleasant has happened to you. D. You look as though you have been fighting Question 69: The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday. A. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday. B .The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months. C. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday. D. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation. Question 70: “ Cigarette?”, he asked. “ No, thanks.” I said A. He asked for a cigarette ,and I immediately refused. B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him. C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined. D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once. Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions. Carbohydrates, which are sugars, are an essential part of a healthy diet. They provide the main source of energy for the body, and they also function to flavor and sweeten foods. Carbohydrates range from simple sugars like glucose to complex sugars such as amylose and amylopectin. Nutritionists estimate that carbohydrates should make up about one-fourth to one-fifth of a person's diet. This translates to about 75-100 grams of carbohydrates per day. A diet that is deficient in carbohydrates can have an adverse effect on a person's health. When the body lacks a sufficient amount of carbohydrates it must then use its protein supplies for energy, a process called gluconeogenesis. This, however, results in a lack of necessary protein, and further health difficulties may occur. A lack of carbohydrates can also lead to ketosis, a build-up of ketones in the body that causes fatigue, lethargy, and bad breath. Question 71: What is the main idea of this passage? A. Carbohydrates are needed for good health. B. Carbohydrates prevent a build-up of proteins. C .Carbohydrates can lead to ketosis. D .Carbohydrates are an expendable part of a good diet. Question 72: The word "function" as used in line 2 refers to which of the following? A. neglect B. serve C. dissolve D. profess Question 73: The word "range" as used in line 3 is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. probe B. proceed C. hail D. extend
Question 74: According to the passage, what do most nutritionists suggest? A. Sufficient carbohydrates will prevent gluconeogenesis. B. Carbohydrates are simple sugars called glucose. C. Carbohydrates should make up about a quarter of a person's daily diet. D. Carbohydrates should be eaten in very small quantities. Question 75: Which of the following do carbohydrates NOT do? A. prevent ketosis B. cause gluconeogenesis C. provide energy for the body D. flavor and sweeten food Question 76: Which of the following words could best replace "deficient" as used in line 6 ? A. outstanding B. abundant C. insufficient D. unequal Question 77: What does the word "this" refer to in line 8 ? A. using protein supplies for energy B. converting carbohydrates to energy C. having a deficiency in carbohydrates D. having an insufficient amount of protein Question 78: According to the passage, which of the following does NOT describe carbohydrates? .A. a protein supply B. a necessity C. a range of sugars D. an energy source Question 79: Which of the following best describes the author's tone? A. sensitive B. emotional C. informative D. regretful Question 80: Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage? A. Cause and result B. Comparison and contrast C. Specific to general D. Definition and example ------------ THE END -------------
PRACTICE TEST FOR THE UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. 1. Despite playing under strength, the village team _____ beat the rivals. a. could b. were able to c. couldn’t d. weren’t able to 2. I suggest Andrea ______ in touch with the organisers. a. should get b. to get c. getting d. gets 3. The traffic lights _____ green and I pulled away. a. became b. turned c. got d. went 4. ______ during the storm. a. They were collapsed b. The fence was collapsed c. They collapsed the fence d. The fence collapsed 5. The suspect confessed _______. a. his crime b. the police his crime c. his crime to the police d. his crime the police 6. ______ thinks that Judith should be given the job. a. Neither of us b. The majority of my colleagues c. Practically everyone d. A number of people 7. We had ______ holiday in Spain. a. a two week’s b. two weeks c. two-week d. a two-week 8. The company owns _____ in the city centre. a. a cars park b. several car parks c. a car park d. several cars parks 9. The government has introduced _______. a. a children’s clothes tax b. a tax on children clothes c. a children clothes tax d. a tax on children’s clothes 10. I’ll be with you in _______. a. one quarter of an hour b. a quarter of an hour c. a quarter of one hour d. a quarter of hour 11. _____ my friends knew I was getting married. a. Not much of b. not many of c. Not much d. Not many 12. ____ the children _____ awake. a. None of…was b. Not any of…were c. No …. was d. None of…were 13. The party was excellent, and I’d like to thank all the ______. a. concerned people b. responsible people c. people that concerned d . people concerned 14. I asked Francis to clean the car, and he did ______. a. a well job b. the job good c. a good job d. a job well 15. ______, they slept soundly. a. Hot though was the night air b. Hot though the night air was c. Hot the night air as was d. Hot although the night air was 16. John was the first person I saw _____ hospital. a. by leaving b. on leaving c. in leaving d. on to leave 17. He suddenly saw Sue ____ the room. He pushed his way ____ the crowd of people to get to her. a. across…through b. over…through c. across…across d. over…along 18. She tried to _______. a. talk me the plan out of b. talk out of me the plan c. talk me out of the plan d. talk out me of the plan. 19. _____ that Marie was able to retire at the age of 50. a. So successful her business was, b. So successful was her business, c. Her business was successful d. So was her successful business, 20. I’m _____ a complete loss to understand why you reacted so violently. a. at b. in c. on d. by 21. From an early age, Wolfgang had a(n) ____ for music. a. interest b. passion c. involvement d. tendency 22. Financial help from his parents ______ James to complete his studies. a. granted b. provided c. eased d. enabled 23. I don’t take ____ to being disobeyed. That’s a warning!
a. well b. kindly c. gently d. nicely 24. I like that photo very much. Could you make an _____ for me? a. increase b. enlargement c. extension d. expansion 25. I’m becoming increasingly _____ . Last week, I locked myself out of the house twice. a. oblivious b. mindless c. absent d. forgetful II. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 26. a. south b. southern c. scout d. drought 27. a. dome b. comb c. home d. tomb III. Pick out the word whose stressed syllable is different from that of the others. 28. a. literature b. preventive c. measurement d. temperature 29. a. example b. continue c. sensible d. contestant 30. a. constant b. magnetic c. sensitive d. atmosphere IV. Choose the best answer. 31. Would you like some more tea? - _______________________ a. No, thank. b. Yes , thanks. c. Yes, please. d. No, please. 32.Will it rain on the day of our departure? - _____________________ a. I hope not. b. I don’t hope so c. I hope not so. d. I hope it wouldn’t. 33. -Remember to return the newspaper to my father. - _______________________ a. I will b. Why not c. I won’t d. Of course. 34.Will you have time to help us? - ______________________ I’m very busy at the moment. a. I’m afraid not b. I think so. c. I don’t expect so. d. I hope not. 35. “I’d like the blue jacket, pleases! Can I try it on?” – Yes, _______________ “ a. you would b. you must c. certainly d. you do V. Read the passage and the questions or unfinished sentences, then choose the best answer for each. A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon moves in front of the Sun and hides at least some part of the Sun from the earth. In a partial eclipse, the Moon covers part of the Sun; in an annual eclipse, the Moon covers the center of the Sun, leaving a bright ring of light around the Moon; in a total eclipse, the Sun is completely covered by the Moon. It seems rather improbable that a celestial body size of the Moon could completely block out the tremendously immense Sun, as happens during a total eclipse, but this is exactly what happens. Although the Moon is considerably smaller in size than the Sun, the Moon is able to cover the Sun because of their relative distances from Earth. A total eclipse can last up to 7 minutes, during which time the Moon’s shadow moves across Earth at a rate of about 6 kilometers per second. 36. This passage mainly _________. a. describes how long an eclipse will last. B. gives facts about the Moon. c. explains how the Sun is able to obscure the Moon. D. informs the reader about solar eclipses. 37. In which type of eclipse is the Sun obscured in its entirety? a. A partial eclipse b. An annual eclipse c. A total eclipse d. A celestial eclipse 38. The word ring in line 3 could be best replaced by ______. a. piece of gold b. circle c. jewel d. bell 39. A celestial body in line 5 is most probably one that is found ______. a. somewhere in the sky b. within the Moon’s shadow c. on the surface of the Sun d. inside Earth’s atmosphere 40. What is the meaning of block out in line 5? a. Square b. Cover c. Evaporate d. Shrink 41. According to the passage, how can the Moon hide the Sun during a total eclipse? a. The fact that the Moon is closer to Earth than the Sun makes up for the Moon’s smaller size. b. The Moon can only obscure the Sun because of the Moon’s great distance from the Earth. c. Because the Sun is relatively close to Earth, the Sun can be eclipsed by the Moon. d. The moon hides the Sun because of the Moon’s considerable size.
42. The word relative in line 8 could best be replaced by ________. a. familial b. infinite c. comparative d. paternal 43. The passage states that which of the following happens during an eclipse? a. The Moon hides from the Sun. b. The Moon is obscured by the Sun. c. The Moon begins moving at a speed of 6 kilometers per second. d.The Moon’s shadow crosses Earth 44. The word rate in line 9 is closest in meaning to ______. a. form b. speed c. distance d. rotation 45. Where is the passage does the author mention the rate of a total eclipse? a. Lines 1- 2 b. Lines 2- 4 c. Lines 5-6 d. Lines 8-9 VI. Read the text below and choose the word that best fits the space. EXAM ADVICE In Part Three of the Speaking Section you work with a partner. You have to do a (46) ____ task which usually ( 47)_____ about 3 minutes. One possible task is “ problem (48) ____”, which means you have to look at some (49) ____ information and then (50) ____ the problem with your partner. You maybe show photos, drawings, diagrams, maps, plans, advertisements or computer graphics and it is (51)_____ that you study them carefully. If necessary, check you know exactly what to do by (52)_____ asking the examiner to (53)____ the instructions or make them clearer. While you are doing the task, the examiner will probably say very (54)_____ and you should ask your partner questions and make (55)_____ if he or she is not saying much. If either of you have any real difficulties the examiner may decide to step in and ( 56) _____ . Normally, however, you will find plenty to say, which helps the (57)_____ to give you a fair mark. This mark depends on your success in doing the task by (58) _____ with your partner, which includes taking (59)_____ in giving opinions and replying appropriately, although in the end it may be possible to “ agree to (60) _____”. 46. a. single b. lonely c. unique d. once 47. a. exists b. lasts c. stays d. maintains 48. a. solving b. working c. making d. finding 49. a. optical b. obvious c. noticeable d. visual 50. a. argue b. discuss c. talk d. have 51. a. essential b. needed c. helpful d. successful 52. a. formally b. officially c. politely d. sincerely 53. a. insist b. copy c. tell d. repeat 54. a. little b. much c. few d. many 55. a. ideas b. statements c. speeches d. suggestions 56. a. complain b. help c. suggest d. fail 57. a. judge b. referee c. assessor d. observer 58. a. competing b. struggling c. opposing d. co-operating 59. a. changes b. sides c. turns d. sentences 60. a. contrast b. disagree c. argue d. object VII. Find the underlined part that needs correcting. 61. The first (A) national park in world (B), Yellowstone National Park, was (C)established in (D)1872. 62. Animation is a technique (A) for creativity (B) the illusion of life(C) in inanimate things.(D) 63. Scientists at universities (A) are often more involved (B) in theoretical research than(C) in practically(D) research . 64. Benjamin Franklin’s ability (A) to learn from observation and experience contributed greatly(B) to him(C) success in(D) public life. 65. The surface of the(A) tongue covered(B) with tiny(C) taste buds(D). VIII. Read the following passage then choose the best answer to the questions below. Most people think of deserts as dry, flat areas with little vegetation and little or no rainfall, but this is hardly true. Many deserts have varied geographical formations ranging from soft, rolling hills to stark, jagged cliffs, and most deserts have a permanent source of water. Although deserts do not receive a high amount of rainfall – to be classified as a desert, an area must get less than twenty-five centimeters of rainfall
per year – there are many plants that thrive on only small amounts of water, and deserts are often full of such plant life. Desert plants have a variety of mechanisms for obtaining the water needed for survival. Some plants, such as cactus, are able to store large amounts of water to last until the next rainfall. Other plants, such as the mesquite, have extraordinarily deep root systems that allow them to obtain water from far below the desert’s arid surface. 66. What is the main topic of the passage? a. Deserts are dry, flat areas with few plants. b. There is little rainfall in the desert. c. Many kinds of vegetation can survive with little water. d. Deserts are not really flat areas with little plant life. 67. The passage implies that ____________. a. the typical conception of a desert is incorrect. b. all deserts are dry, flat areas. c. most people are well informed about deserts. d. the lack of rainfall in deserts causes the lack of vegetation. 68. The passage describes the geography of deserts as ________. a. flat b. sandy c. varied d. void of vegetation. 69. The word source in line 3 means ________. a. supply b. storage space c. need d. lack 70. According to the passage, what causes an area to be classified as a desert? a. The type of plants b. The geographical formations c. The amount of precipitation d. The source of water XI. Choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the one in italics. 71. You’re not to blame for what happened. a. You’re not accused of what happened. b. What happened is not your fault. c. You’re responsible for what happened. d. We blame you for what happened. 72. He can hardly see at all without glasses. a. He can see without glasses. b. He can see even if he doesn’t wear glasses. c. He can’t see everything without glasses. d. He is practically blind without glasses. 73. The concert wasn’t as good as we had expected. a. The concert wasn’t so good as we had seen. B. We expected the concert to be worse. c. We thought the concert would be much better. D. The concert was thought to be as good. 74. Please don’t ask her to the party. a. I’d rather you didn’t invite her to the party. B. I’d rather not ask her to the party. c. Please don’t ask her about the party. D. You ask her to the party, don’t you? 75. She broke down the moment she heard the news. a. She was broken for a moment when she heard the news. B. She broke her leg when hearing the news. c. On hearing the news, she broke down. D. When she heard the news, she was sick. 76. Strong as he is, he still can’t lift that box. a. The box was too heavy for him to lift. b. He’s very strong, but he still can’t lift that box. c. He still can’t lift that box because he’s not as strong. d. However he is strong, he still can’t lift that box. 77. I wish we had gone somewhere else for the holiday. a. If only we went somewhere else for the holiday. b. It’s a pity we didn’t go there for the holiday. c. If we had gone for the holiday, I would have gone somewhere else. d. I regret not having gone somewhere else for the holiday. 78. You should have had your eyes tested a long time ago. a. You haven’t had your eyes tested though it’s necessary. b. Your eyes should be tested a long time ago. c. You had your eyes tested a long time ago.
d. It’s a long time ago since you had your eyes tested. 79. A child is influenced as much by his schooling as by his parents. a. Schooling doesn’t influence a child as much as his parents do. b. A child’s parents have greater influence on him than his schooling. c. A child can influence his parents as much as his schooling. d. A child’s schooling influences him as much as his parents do. 80. Rarely has a 15-year-old earned so much money. a. 15-year-old rarely earns money. b. A 15-year-old rarely earns lots of money. c. A 15-year-old has seldom earned that much money. d. A 15-year-old has never earned that much money. KEY TO PRACTICE TEST 18 1B 2A 3B(D) 4B 5A(C) 6A(C) 7D 8B(C) D 10B 11B 12A(D) 13D 14C 15B 16B 17A 18C 19B 20A 21B 22D 23B 24B 25D 26B 27C 28B 29C 30B 31C 32A 33D 34A 35C 36D 37C 38B 39A 40B 41A 42C 43D 44B 45D 46A 47B 48A 49D 50B 51A 52C 53D 54A 55D 56B 57C 58D 59C 60B 61B 62B 63D 64C 65B 66D 67A 68C 69A 70C 71B 72D 73C 74A 75B 76B 77D 78A 79D 80C Đề thi thử đại học năm học 2012- 2013 Trường THPT Lý Thái Tổ Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (Đề thi gồm 5 trang) Họ tên thí sinh: …………………………………………….. Lớp: ………… Số báo danh: ……… QUESTIONS 1 – 10: Read the following passage carefully and complete the sentences that follow A, B, C or D as the correct answers. Colors and emotions Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as important to me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related? Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and is something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear either reflects your current state of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you need. The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of course they also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the color all day! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on the color or emotion I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the emotions that you are exposed to, which can help you to feel better. Color, sound and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to be healthy is to be open to your real feelings.
Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your emotions. 1. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other. B. Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. C. Colorful clothes can change your mood. D. Colors can help you become more influenced. 2. Who is more influenced by the color you wear? A. You are more influenced. B. The people around you are more influenced. C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B. 3. Which of the following can be affected by color? A. your need for thrills B. your friend’s feelings C. your appetite D. your mood 4. According to this passage, what creates disease? A. wearing the color black B. being open to your emotions C. ignoring your emotions D. exposing yourself to bright color 5. According to this passage, what do color, sound and emotions all have in common? A. They are all related to health B. They are all forms of motions C. They all affect the cells of the body D. none of the above 6. The term intimately in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____. A. clearly B. obviously C. closely D. simply 7. Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations? A. Because they both affect how we feel. B. To prove the relationship between emotions and color. C. To show how color can affect energy levels in the body. D. Because vibrations make you healthy. 8. The term they in paragraph 3 refers to ____. A. people B. colors C. emotions D. none of the above 9. The phrase saturated with in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____. A. covered with B. bored with C. in need of D. lacking in 10. What is the purpose of the passage? A. To give an objective account of how color affect emotions. B. To prove the relationship between color and emotion. C. To persuade the reader that colors influence emotions and give a person more energy. D. To show that colors are important for a healthy life QUESTIONS 11 - 35: Choose A, B, C or D as your best choice to complete each sentence. 11. Although still underwater, Loihi Seamount, the newest Hawaiian island, ____ closer to the surface by frequent volcanic eruptions that add layers of lava to the island. A. brought B. to be brought C. being brought D. is being brought 12. Hiram Revels, the first black member of the United States Senate, served as senator for Mississippi, an office ____ he was elected in 1870. A. which B. in which C. and which D. being which 13. ___ the Internet’s speed and efficiency in sending mail electronically rather than by transporting it has become more popular among young people than traditional mail. A. Since B. As a consequence C. However D. Because of 14. Some machines produced large numbers of interchangeable parts that ____ efficiently with the "interchangeable parts system" of the great inventor Eli Whitney. A. could be used B. used C. used to D. could have used 15. In 1948, the United States Secretary of States Dean Acheson ____ the Marshall Plan to aid the economic recovery of Europe after the Second World War. A. begin to carry out B. began carrying out C. beginning and carrying out D. to have begun carrying out 16. The world's deepest cave, Pierre St. Martin in the Pyrenees mountains, is almost three times as deep ____ . A. as the Empire State Building is B. that the Empire State Building is higher C. is higher than the Empire State Building D. and the Empire State Building's height 17. The purpose of phonetics is ____ an inventory and a description of the sounds found in speech. A. provide B. provided C. to provide D. being provided 18. Color and light, taken together, ____ the aesthetic impact of the interior of a building. A. very powerfully influence B. very influence powerfully