Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2020-2021 (Có đáp án)
lượt xem 12
download
Nhằm giúp các bạn học sinh đang chuẩn bị bước vào kì thi cuối học kì 2 sắp tới có thêm tư liệu ôn tập, TaiLieu.VN giới thiệu đến các bạn “Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2020-2021 (Có đáp án)” để ôn tập nắm vững kiến thức để đạt được kết quả cao trong kì thi này. Chúc các bạn đạt kết quả cao trong kì thi!
Bình luận(0) Đăng nhập để gửi bình luận!
Nội dung Text: Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2020-2021 (Có đáp án)
Đề Thi Học Kì 2 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 10 Năm 2020-2021 (Có Đáp Án)
1. Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 - Sở GD&ĐT Bắc Ninh
PART A: LISTENING (2.0 points)
I. Listen and choose the best option to complete these sentences. (1.0 point)
1. The meeting time was first planned for _______________.
A. 9 a.m B. 11 a.m C. 1 p.m
2. The new meeting time is _______________.
A. 9 a.m B. 11 a.m C. 1 p.m
3. Lucy's _______________.
A. nervous about her presentation. B. looking forward to her presentation. C. not ready to give her presentation.
4. Who will tell the others about the time change?
A. Lucy B. Sven C. Anna
II. Listen and answer each of the questions with a word from the listening passage. (1.0 point)
1. What size T-shirt does the customer want? _______________
2. Does the shop have a medium size purple T-shirt? _______________
3. What colour T-shirt does the customer try on? _______________
4. Does the customer buy the red T-shirt? _______________
5. How much does it cost? £_______________
6. Does the customer pay by credit card or with cash? _______________
PART B: PRONUNCIATION (1.0 point)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. enjoyed B. finished C. suffered D. agreed
2. A. nature B. manage C. balance D. campfire
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. pollute B. delete C. damage D. sustain
4. A. chemical B. influence C. loneliness D. protection
PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (2.0 points)
I. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the word in brackets. (1.0 point)
1. Ecotourism can be ________ to local people. (benefit)
2. Mass tourism has contributed to the ________ of the environment. (destroy)
3. People often use the natural world as inspiration to design and invent new________.(produce)
4. Yoga increases endurance, _________ and flexibility. (strong)
II. Put the verb in brackets in the correct tense/ form. (1.0 point)
1. Nowadays, people _________ (use) social networks with more and more caution.
2. The TV _________ (repair). It’s working again now.
3. Tina ran in a marathon last week, but she failed _________ (finish).
4. If the computer factory closed down, many people _________ (lose) their jobs.
PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (1.0 point)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
These days, most people in Britain and the US do not wear very formal clothes. But sometimes it is important to wear the right thing. Many British people don't think about clothes very much. They just like to be comfortable. When they go out to enjoy themselves, they can wear almost anything. At theatres, cinemas and concerts you can put on what you like from elegant suits and dresses to jeans and sweaters. Anything goes, as long as you look clean and tidy.
But in Britain, as well as in the US, men in offices usually wear suits and ties, and women wear dresses or skirts (not trousers). Doctors, lawyers and business people wear quite formal clothes. And in some hotels and restaurants men have to wear ties and women wear smart dresses. In many years, Americans are more relaxed than British people, but they are more careful with their clothes. At home, or on holiday, most Americans wear informal or sporty clothes. But when they go out in the evening, they like to look elegant. In good hotels and restaurants, men have to wear jackets and ties, and women wear pretty clothes and smart hairstyles. It is difficult to say exactly what people wear informal or formal in Britain and the US, because everyone is different. If you are not sure what to wear, watch what other people do and then do the same. You'll feel more relaxed if you don't look too different from everyone else.
1. The word “relaxed” is closest in meaning to_________.
A. active B. rest C. confident D. busy
2. If you visit an American friend at home in the evening, you may find that your friend wears _________.
A. pretty clothes B. formal clothes C. dirty clothes D. informal clothes
3. If you are in a foreign country, the best way the writer suggests to you is to wear _________.
A. your native clothes B. as the people there do C. comfortable clothes D. strange clothes
4. The word “they” in the passage refers to_________.
A. American people B. British people C. men D. women
PART E: WRITING (2.0 points)
Rewrite the following sentence so that it means the same as the one above it. (1.5 points)
1. Lisa is tired all the time. She shouldn’t go to bed so late.
→ If Lisa____________________________________________________.
2. I slept in a bed last night. It wasn’t very comfortable. (using a relative clause)
→ The bed______________________________________________________.
3. Anna said “I’ll phone you when I get back”.
→ Anna said______________________________________________________.
Use your own idea to complete the sentence. (0.5 point)
4. If you give me the camera, _________________________________________________
2. Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 - Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Nam
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE (7.2 points)
Choose the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the following question.
Question 1. The floor was covered in tiny pieces of paper.
A. small B. important C. huge D. little
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 2. A. thought B. pour C. tour D. four
Question 3. A. physics B. fiction C. photo D. thoughtful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response or question to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 4. Nam and Hoa are talking about protecting oceans.
Nam: What should you do to protect our oceans?
Hoa: We should ___________________ .
A. place rubbish and plastic bags in proper dustbins B. buy the fashionable products from ocean animals
C. hunt whales and sharks for food, medicine and other products D. fish species that are limited, threatened or endangered
Question 5. Tom and Mary are talking about music.
Tom: ______
Mary: Yes, of course I do.
A. What kind of music do you like? B. You really liked music, did you?
C. How do you like music? D. Do you like listening to music?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the questions from 6 to 9.
Great white sharks are the most aggressive marine creature, which have no natural predators. These giant sharks can grow up to six meters long and weigh as much as 1,800 kilos. Humans are the only beings who dare to get close to them.
Inside the gigantic jaws of a great white are thousands of teeth. A great white does not have to worry about losing its teeth because when they wear down or break, the shark grows extra teeth to replace them. Even with 3,000 teeth, it does not chew its food. Instead, it tears its prey into large pieces and swallows them whole.
Great white sharks are skillful hunters. All fish, even the smallest ones, produce small amount of electricity. Great whites find their prey by feeling this electricity. It is impossible to hide from a great white shark.
Great whites are independent creatures. This begins very early in life. Even before birth, the babies receive no nutrition from their mother. To survive, they eat their brothers and sisters. As soon as the surviving babies are born, the mother shark swims away and leaves the young sharks to begin their life alone.
Although it normally lives an independent life, the great white has come across humans too often. Because of the demand for shark teeth, jaws, and fins, the great white is now in danger of disappearing from the earth.
(Adapted from People, Places, and Things 2)
Question 6. The word "them " in paragraph 1 refers to "_____".
A. beings B. kilos C. humans D. giant sharks
Question 7. Which of the followings is true about a great white shark?
A. When hunting, it looks for bright colors. B. It finds its prey by feeling electricity.
C. It is not a great hunter. D. Its teeth disappear gradually.
Question 8. How does a great white shark eat its prey?
A. They tear the prey into pieces and chew them. B. They swallow the whole prey.
C. They tear the prey into small parts and swallow them. D. They chew the prey and swallow it.
Question 9. What is the main idea of paragraph 4?
A. Great white sharks live independently B. Not many great whites survive after they were born.
C. Baby sharks live alone as soon as they were born. D. Baby sharks usually eat each other.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for questions from 10 to 13.
The reef, which is like a large city under the sea, is filled with a wide (10)_______ of species of marine life. Nearly 3,000 (11)_______ inhabit it, including several kinds of sharks. The most common is the blacktip reef shark, which gets its name from the black coloring on the end of its fins.
However, with lots of (12)_______ animals, the reef is actually not a safe place to swim or dive. The tiger shark, for example, is an aggressive shark. Some kinds of jellyfish and snakes are poisonous. Many tragic accidents have been reported from this place. (13)_______ , if you want to swim here, you will have to be very careful and should only swim with great caution.
Question 10. A. area B. level C. range D. amount
Question 11. A. plants B. animal C. species D. flora
Question 12. A. dangerous B. danger C. endanger D. dangerously
Question 13. A. However B. Although C. Therefore D. Nevertheless
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 14. You shouldn't ________ Mark about that. You know it's a secret.
A. telling B. told C. tell D. to tell
Question 15. Without plants, most water would run ________ as soon as it falls.
A. off B. in C. on D. out
Question 16. The main road to this city ________ now.
A. is upgraded B. upgrades C. is upgrading D. is being upgraded
Question 17. Music can ________ ideas, thought and feelings.
A. express B. compose C. delight D. play
Question 18. ________ have Helen and Robert been married?
A. When B. How long C. What D. How old
Question 19. Look outside! ________ sky is getting very dark. I hope there isn't going to be a storm.
A. θ B. The C. An D. A
Question 20. Arms and legs are ________ parts of a human being.
A. integrity B. integral C. integration D. integrate
Question 21. Sperm whale populations are at risk ________ illegal hunting.
A. regardless of B. due to C. in spite of D. thanks to
Question 22. The movie was so ________ that we couldn't sleep last night.
A. thrilled B. thrill C. thriller D. thrilling
Question 23. If energy ________ inexpensive and unlimited, many things in the world would be different.
A. is B. were C. had been D. would be
Choose the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following question.
Question 24. Up to now, we have hardly estimated the destruction that our country suffered during the war.
A. pollution B. conservation C. protection D. damage
II. WRITING (2.8 points)
Combine the two sentences into one using the word(s) given in the bracket. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 25. Theman wears a face mask.He wants to prevent himself fromcontractingCOVID-19.(IN ORDER TO)
→ The man …………………………………………………………………………………
Question 26. I didn’t have enough money. I didn’t get a taxi. (IF)
→ If ………………………………………..………………………………………………
Question 27. Huong teaches small children. It is a hard job. (EXHAUSTING)
→ Huong finds it…………………………………….………… ..…………………………
Rewrite each of the sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 28. No one has cleaned the tables.
→ The tables ………………………………………………………………………...
Question 29. He didn’t go home until late in the evening.
→ It was………………………………………………………………………………
Question 30. If he refused the confession, she would feel very sad.
→ Were he …………………………………………………………………………..
Question 31. Why are you learning French?
→ What………………………..……………………………………………………..?
3. Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 - Trường THPT Đoàn Thượng
PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM
Listen to the recordings and decide whether the statements are true (A) or false (B).
Recordings | Statements | True | False |
Recording 1 | 1. The girl is going to have a holiday. | A | B |
2. She hasn’t packed her toothbrush yet. | A | B | |
Recording 2 | 3. The woman thinks her item is perfect. | A | B |
4. She needs a new hat now. | A | B |
Listen to the conversation and choose the best answer A, B,C or D.
5. Where is the new sports centre?
A. behind school B. next to Bridge Street C. in front of the station D. in Long Road
6. How many days a week is the sports centre open late?
A. 4 B. 1 C. 3 D. 2
7. Which bus goes to the sports centre?
A. number 16 B. number 15 C. number 10 D. number 60
8. When will Michael and Marina go to the sports centre?
A. Wednesday B. Friday C. Thursday D. Tuesday
Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences.
9. They all laughed because the film was very_________.
A. amused B. amusement C. amuse D. amusing
10. Argentina was the _________ in the final match with Uruguay in 1930
A. runner down B. runner up C. runner with D. runner after
11. I bought a newspaper and a magazine. _________newspaper is in my bag and the magazine is on the table.
A. Ø B. A C. The D. An
12. I think the ___________ for the title between the best teams in the country will be very fierce.
A. competence B. competitive C. competition D. competing
13. Let's go by bus. It's ____________.
A. much cheaper B. more cheaper than C. more cheaper D. much cheaper than
14. John : Look! There's smoke coming out of that house. It's on fire.
Jack : Good heaven! I_________the fire-brigade immediately.
A. am going to call B. will call C. am calling D. call
Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.
15. Listen to soothing music before bedtime provides good relaxation.
A B C D
16. There is an interested film on at the local cinema.
A B C D
Read the passage and choose the best option for each blank.
Hoang Tuan Anh, a 35-year-old director of an electronic lock company in Tan Phu district, Ho Chi Minh City, came up with the idea of creating (17)_______ "Rice ATM", or automatic rice dispenser, which offers the disadvantaged free rice 24 hours a day.
He hires three employees who take turn watching the camera and would press the "off" button on the phone app if they identify anyone (18)_______ wants to take the charity twice a day. "I just want to make sure one gets enough proportion for the day and there're enough left for others", Tuan said.
He also sets up several resilience cameras around to keep security, marks each place at a safe distancing that meets social distancing rules. (19)_______, hand sanitizers are placed right next to the dispenser do that everyone can wash their hands before using the machine.
"I'm going (20)_______ this until the COVID-19 pandemic ends. I'm also planning to make other 100 rice dispensers to help those in need", Tuan Anh said. " Vietnam is facing a shortage of rice in the middle of COVID-19 time. Thus, hopefully, the community will join hands and help me with the coming project".
17. A. a B. the C. an D. Ø
18. A. when B. where C. who D. which
19. A. Although B. Moreover C. But D. Because
20. A. do B. to be done C. doing D. to do
Pick out the word that has the underlined part is pronounced differently from the others
21. A. located B. watched C. founded D. completed
22. A. hear B. idea C. clear D. head
Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D.
Millions of people visit London every year from all over the world. If you travel there, you'll find many fascinating things to see and do. During August and September, you can visit Buckingham Palace. That's where the Queen lives most of the year. It has about 600 rooms, but you'll see only state rooms where the Queen entertains guests. In the morning, a colorful ceremony called "changing of the guard" takes place in the courtyard. One group of palace guards off duty, and another troop arrives to replace them.
You can tour the Tower of London, a historic fortress that was once a royal palace. It was also used as a prison for hundreds of years. Two of the wives of King Henry VIII-Anne Boleyn and Catherine Howard-were put to death here. The Crown Jewels are a popular attraction at the Tower. This collection of jeweled crowns, swords, scepters, and other royal objects is only used on special occasions, such as the crowning of a new ruler. Be sure to visit Westminster Abbey, one of Britain's famous churches. The nation's kings and queens are crowned here. Many rulers and famous citizens are buried here. There are also monuments to political figures and poets.
The Houses of Parliament are along the Thames River, near Westminster Abbey. This is where the government meets. Look up to see the clock tower with Big Ben, London's famous bell that rings every hour. You can get on a boat nearby for a ride on the Thames. Other places you might want to see are Scotland Yard, Madame Tussaud's, and the British Museum. You can find out about London's famous criminals in the Crime Museum at Scotland Yard, the home of London's Metropolitan Police. At Madame Tussaud's, you'll see eerily realistic, life-size wax figures of pop idols and historic figures. A great thing to see at the British Museum is the collection of mummies, tomb paintings, and gold jewelry from ancient Egypt. The museum's Egyptian collection is one of the largest in the world.
23. The Houses of Parliament _________.
A. is the Tower of London. B. is a famous criminal in the Crime Museum.
C. is a place where the government meets. D. is a place where Catherine Howard lived.
24. You can see the collection of tomb paintings of ancient Egypt in_________.
A. the British Museum B. Westminster Abbey
C. Madame Tussaud's D. the Crime Museum at Scotland Yard
25. Which of the following is TRUE about Buckingham Palace?
A. The queen rarely lives in Buckingham Palace
B. You can see a colorful ceremony called "changing of the guard" here.
C. You can visit every room at Buckingham Palace.
D.You are not allowed to visit Buckingham Palace during August and September.
26. What does the word "It" in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. the Tower of London B. The Crown Jewels C. a historic fortress D. Tour
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
Rewrite the following sentence, beginning as shown, without changing its meaning.
27. These children didn’t begin to learn English until 2018.
=> It was not until _________________________________________________.
Make question for the underlined phrase in the following sentence.
28. I like pop music because it helps me relax.
=> Why _________________________________________________________.
Writing an announcement (1.0p)
You are the head of the Ho Chi Minh Communist Youth Union of your school. Your school’s football team is going to play a friendly match with Hai Duong Xanh Football Club at 4 p.m. on Saturday, May 29th in the football stadium of Hai Duong Xanh football club. Write an announcement for this match.
4. Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 - Trường THPT Lương Ngọc Quyến
I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM
LISTENING
RECORDING 1: Listen to the recording and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F) or not given (NG). You will hear the recording twice.
Question 1. Alex is being interviewed about her feelings on saving the environment.
A. True B. False C. not given
Question 2. By not using water for washing dishes, taking a bath, watering the plants outside, we can save the water.
A. True B. False C. not given
Question 3. People should put the garbage in the proper dustbins when drinking or eating something outside.
A. True B. False C. not given
Question 4. According to Alex, people can protect the environment by saving water, recycling paper, and not littering.
A. True B. False C. not given
RECORDING 2: You will hear a tour guide talking to a group of tourists about a coach trip. For each question, choose the right answer (A, B or C). You will hear the conversation twice.
Question 5. Where will they stop for coffee?
A. on a mountain B. by a lake C. near a waterfall D. in a coffee shop
Question 6. The town of Brampton became well known because of its
A. university B. shops C. museum D. nation park
Question 7. What animals will they see in the wildlife park?
A. lions B. monkeys C. tigers D. bears
Question 8. What time will they arrive back at the hotel?
A. 5.30 B. 7.15 C. 6.45 D. 4.30
LANGUAGE
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 9. A. folk B. rock C. strong D. pop
Question 10.A. psychology B. potato C. paper D. possible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 11. As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of the island.
A. mountains and forests B. plants and animals C. fruits and vegetables D. flowers and trees
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 12. He told us to write a letter of acceptance as soon as possible.
A. invitation B. refuse C. refusal D. invite
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 13. Music makes a funeral more solemn and______.
A. mournful B. interesting C. lyrical D. exciting
Question 14. The new computer system _________ next month.
A. is be installed B. is being installed C. is been installed D. is being installed by people
Question 15. Peter has practiced playing the piano …………………….. the piano contest next week.
A. in order enter B. to entering C. to enter D. to not enter
Question 16. “What do you think of love story films?” - “______.”
A. I don’t think so. B. I find them moving. C. I prefer love story films. D. That’s a good idea.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 17. You are not (A) allowed fishing (B) in the (C) stream in the (D) National Park.
Question 18. The (A) ocean is dividing (B) into (C) five different parts (D).
READING
Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
Dolphins are known as cetaceans, or marine mammals they breathe air, they are warm-blood, and they bear live young ones called (19) _______ .
The size of dolphins varies greatly. The smallest dolphin is just about 50 kg in weight and 1.2 meters in length (20) _______the largest one can weigh up to 8.200 kg and is 10 meters long.
Dolphins are sociable creatures. They swim together in group known as schools. They show great ability in the water and you can often come across them playing (21) _______ships. Dolphins are interested in humans and often rescue people in the sea (22) _______are in danger. They are intelligent creatures and make sounds to communicate with each other. Scientists have studied dolphins (23) _______many years and are now looking into the possibility of dolphins being able to carry out tasks under the sea.
Question 19. A. babies B. calves C. young D. diets
Question 20. A. when B. as C. while D. since
Question 21. A. around B. on C. in D. next
Question 22. A. which B. they C. when D. who
Question 23. A. in B. since C. for D. during
Read and then choose the best answer. (1.25points)
The trumpet player Louis Armstrong, or Sachem, as he was usually called, was among the first jazz musicians to achieve international fame. He is known for the beautiful, clear tone of his trumpet-playing and for his singing voice. Armstrong was born into a poor family in New Orleans. He first learned to play the cornet at the age of 13, taking lesson’s while living in a children's home. As a teenager, he played in a number of local jazz bands in New Orleans.
In 1922, Armstrong moved to Chicago to play in Joe "King" Olive's band. Two years later, he joined Fletcher Henderson's band. Then, from 1925 to 1928, Armstrong made a series of records with groups called the Hot Five, the Hot Seven, and the Savoy Ballroom Five. These records rank among the greatest recordings in the history of jazz.
Armstrong led a big band during the 1930s and 1940s, but in 1947. returned to play with small jazz groups. He performed all over the world and made a number of hit records, such as Hello, Dolly and Mack the Knife. Armstrong also appeared in a number of movies, first in New Orleans in 1947, High Society in 1956 and Hello. Dolly in 1969
Question 24. What was Armstrong's nickname?
A. Louis B. Sachem C. Hot Five D. King Oliver
Question 25. Which of the following best describes Armstrong?
A. He was a poor musician. B. He was an internationally-known jazz musician.
C. He was a famous actor. D. He played the trumpet.
Question 26. In what city was Joe "King" Olive's band based?
A. In New Orleans. B. In Savoy. C. In Chicago. D. In Armstrong's birth place.
Question 27. Which of the following is NOT a movie?
A. New Orleans. B. High Society. C. Hello, Dolly. D. Mack the Knife.
Question 28. What was the first movie Armstrong appeared in?
A. High Society. B. Mack the Knife. C. New Orleans. D. Hello, Dolly
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each of the following sentences.
Question 29. They were seeking a solution to the ……………....….... of the rain forests. (DESTROY)
Question 30. 78-year-old Bill Baxter has …………....………….... completed his third London Marathon and won a medal. (SUCCESS)
Question 31. Greenpeace is an international…………....………….... organization founded in Canada in 1971 (ENVIRONMENT)
Question 32. There was a great deal of …………....………….... when the Queen arrived to open the new hospital. (EXCITE)
Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meanings
Question 33. They didn’t pay the bill until the electricity was cut off
→ It was not until……………………………………………………………………………………………
Question 34. We had to walk a long way home because we missed the last bus.
→ If …………….……………………………………………………………………………………………
Question 35. Toxic wastes could damage the ecology of this area. (Change into passive voice)
→ The ecology of this area …………………………………………………………………………………
Question 36. Mrs Green went to the police station to report that her car had been stolen. (Make question for the underlined words)
→ ………………….……………………………………………………………………………………………
Writing a letter (1.0 point)
Your friend has invited you to her birthday party this Sunday. Write a reply letter of 100 - 120 words to accept or decline his/ her invitation.
Trên đây là phần trích dẫn nội dung của "Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2020-2021 (Có đáp án)" để tham khảo đầy đủ và chi tiết, mời các bạn cùng đăng nhập và tải tài liệu về máy!
>>>>> Ngoài ra, các bạn có thể tham khảo thêm bộ Đề thi học kì 2 môn Ngữ văn lớp 10 năm 2020-2021 (Có đáp án) được chia sẻ tại website TaiLieu.VN <<<<<
CÓ THỂ BẠN MUỐN DOWNLOAD
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2019-2020 (Có đáp án)
51 p | 245 | 38
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Việt lớp 4 năm 2019-2020 (Có đáp án)
74 p | 214 | 27
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2019-2020 (Có đáp án)
50 p | 102 | 11
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Địa lí lớp 9 năm 2019 – 2020 có đáp án
37 p | 144 | 9
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Toán lớp 11 năm 2019-2020 có đáp án
45 p | 119 | 8
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Tin học lớp 7 năm 2019-2020 (Có đáp án)
48 p | 149 | 8
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Sinh học lớp 10 năm 2019-2020 có đáp án
65 p | 110 | 7
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Công nghệ lớp 11 năm 2019-2020 có đáp án
90 p | 71 | 7
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Địa lí lớp 7 năm 2019-2020 (Có đáp án)
47 p | 128 | 7
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Vật lí lớp 10 năm 2020-2021 (Có đáp án)
63 p | 219 | 7
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Việt lớp 1 năm 2019-2020 (có đáp án)
43 p | 112 | 6
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Sinh học lớp 10 năm 2020-2021 (Có đáp án)
61 p | 230 | 5
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Công nghệ lớp 7 năm 2019-2020 (Có đáp án)
42 p | 101 | 4
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Ngữ Văn lớp 8 năm 2019-2020 có đáp án
33 p | 70 | 4
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Sinh học lớp 6 năm 2019-2020 (Có đáp án)
48 p | 91 | 3
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn GDCD lớp 9 năm 2019-2020 có đáp án
28 p | 160 | 2
-
Bộ 10 đề thi học kì 2 môn Địa lý lớp 8 năm 2019-2020 có đáp án
24 p | 104 | 2
Chịu trách nhiệm nội dung:
Nguyễn Công Hà - Giám đốc Công ty TNHH TÀI LIỆU TRỰC TUYẾN VI NA
LIÊN HỆ
Địa chỉ: P402, 54A Nơ Trang Long, Phường 14, Q.Bình Thạnh, TP.HCM
Hotline: 093 303 0098
Email: support@tailieu.vn