Đề thi chứng chỉ B năm 2008 đề 2 có key

Chia sẻ: Pham Ngoc Linhdan | Ngày: | Loại File: PDF | Số trang:6

Thêm vào BST

Báo xấu

124
lượt xem 24
download

Download Vui lòng tải xuống để xem tài liệu đầy đủ

Các bạn học sinh và quý thầy cô tham khảo miễn phí Đề thi chứng chỉ B năm 2008 đề 2 có key để hệ thống kiến thức học tập cũng như trau dồi kinh nghiệm ra đề thi

Chủ đề:

Bình luận(0) Đăng nhập để gửi bình luận!

Lưu

Nội dung Text: Đề thi chứng chỉ B năm 2008 đề 2 có key

CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 1 CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 2 Điểm Số phách : PAPER ONE : READING COMPREHENSION B ( 60 minutes ) SECTION A : In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1-20 for the word or phrase you choose. (20 points) 1. “ Harry is on the phone .” - “ Who…………..to ?” A. is he talk B. does he talk C. he talks D. is he talking 2. I…………..you are wrong. A. knows B. know C. knowing D. am knowing 3. Liz is reading the story, …………..she ? A. isn’t B. doesn’t C. didn’t D. don’t 4. He’s…………..intelligent than his sister. A. not so B. much fewer C. much less D. lesser 5. This is…………..restaurant in Bangkok. A. worst B. the worst C. the worse D. the more worse 6. …………..study hard when you were at school ? A. Must you B. Had you C. Were you D. Did you have to 7. He would be very happy if you…………..what he asked. A. do B. did C. will do D. have done 8. Please go a little faster ? I’m …………..a hurry. A. in B. on C. at D. of 9. She doesn’t like…………..television. A. hearing B. seeing C. watching D. looking 10. She looks …………..a famous film star. A. as B. like C. similar D. same 11. “Did you enjoy…………..?” - “Yes, I did.” A. yourself B. myself C. you D. yourselves 12. The train stops at a …………..station. A. bus B. railway C. police D. lorry 13. She always meets…………..people. A. interest B. interests C. interested D. interesting 14. “Whose hat is it?” - “It’s …………..” A. me B. my C. my brother D. my brother’s 15. “I’m really cold.” - “…………..the window for you ?” A. I close B. I closed C. Shall I close D. Will I close 16. My brother can…………..four languages fluently. A. say B. speak C. tell D. talk 17. We are having our new house…………..next week. A. build B. built C. building D. to build 18. Would you like some tea ? - No, ………….. A. thanks B. please C. I’d love to D. I’m afraid 1
19. I usually wear skirts, but today I…………..trousers. A. wear B. wears C. wearing D. am wearing 20. We have been waiting for you………….. A. an hour B. an hour ago C. for an hour D. since an hour SECTION B : In this section you will find after the reading passage a number of questions of unfinished statements about the passage , each with four suggested answers or ways of finishing . You must choose the one which you think fits best (10 points) Fruits are a source of nourishing substances that keep us alive and healthy. For example, they contain many vitamins, especially vitamins A and C, and many minerals, such as calcium, potassium, and zinc. They also provide fiber for a healthy digestive system and carbohydrates that the body needs to make energy. They don’t have a lot of calories to make us fat. People use fruits for many things. We make juices from them. We cook bread and pie with them. We make jams and jellies and sweets. We freeze them to eat later. We even make alcohol from fruits. Beer comes from grains, wine comes from grapes, and some brandies are made from plums, apricots, or other fruits. But most of the time, we don’t do anything special with fruits. We eat them fresh , just as they are. 21. Fruits are healthy A. because they don’t have a lot of calories. B. because they contain many vitamins. C. because they provide fiber and calories. D. because they contain substances good for our body. 22. The digestive system can work better with A. fiber from fruits. B. vitamins A and C C. minerals, such as calcium, potassium, and zinc D. carbohydrates. 23. Jams, jellies and sweets are made A. from juices. B. to eat with bread and pie. C. from some kinds of fruit D. more frequently than beer and wine. 24. Wine is mentioned as an example of A. fruit used to make alcoholic drinks. B. an alcoholic drink made from fruit C. a healthy alcoholic drink. D. a healthy drink produced from grapes. 25. Eating fruit fresh is A. healthier than eating frozen fruit B. no longer special C. still a popular practice D. not as economical as having it processed PAPER TWO : USE OF ENGLISH ( 60 minutes ) SECTION A : PASSAGE FOR GAP-FILL In this section you must find a word to complete the numbered blanks in the passage below. Use only ONE word for each blank. (15 points ) I live in a house near the sea. It’s an old house, about 100 years (26) ………….., and it’s very small. There are two bedrooms upstairs but no bathroom. The bathroom is downstairs (27) …………..to the kitchen and there’s a living room where there’s (28) ………….. lovely old fireplace. There’s garden in (29) …………..of the house. The garden goes (30) …………..to the beach and in spring and summer there are flowers (31) ………….. I live (32) …………..with my dog, Boxer, but we have a lot of visitors. (33) …………..of my friends work in the city so they often stay with me because they want to 2
relax. I love my house for many (34) …………..: the garden, the flowers in summer, the fire in winter, but the best thing is the view(35) ………….. my bedroom window. SECTION B : SENTENCE BUILDING Make all changes and additions necessary to produce, from the following sets of words and phrases, sentences which together make a complete letter. (10 points) Dear Peter, 36. I / be / very surprised / get / letter. ………………………………………………………………… 37. I / not know / you arrive back / London. ………………………………………………………………… 38. You have good time / New York ? ………………………………………………………………… 39. I look forward / hear / all about it. ………………………………………………………………… 40. Thank you / invite / me / dinner next weekend. ………………………………………………………………… 41. I / be afraid / not able / come / Sunday. ………………………………………………………………… 42. But I / be / free / following weekend. ………………………………………………………………… 43. Why / you call me / next few days ? ………………………………………………………………… SECTION C : SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5 points) 44. They last visited me five years ago. They haven’t…………………………………………… 45. “ Where is the nearest station ?” she asked. She asked……………………………………………….. 46. We spent five hours getting to London. It took…………………………………………………… 47. She can’t have any more children because of her age. She is too……………………………………………….. 48. Sally is the cleverest student in the class. Nobody…………………………………………………. COMPOSITION : Which season of the year do you like best ? Why ? (10 points ) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………….………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………….……………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………….…………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………….…………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 3
CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 1 CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 2 Điểm Số phách : PAPER THREE :LISTENING COMPREHENSION B (30 minutes) PART I. Listen and fill in the missing information. ( 10 points ) Last winter, I decided to (1) ………………a trip to a small village in the mountains for a holiday. My trip started well enough , but it soon turned into a nightmare. I got completely lost and my car (2) ………………out of petrol in the middle of nowhere. So I decided to take a shortcut by continuing on (3) ……………… across the mountains, but I fell and (4) ………………my leg. I waved at some people on the road (5) ………………, but they didn’t take any (6) ………………and then it started snowing. I protected myself from the (7) ……………… by making a shelter from branches. I lit a fire and waited for someone to (8) ………………me. Luckily, some hunters saw the smoke (9) ………………raised the alarm. An hour later, a helicopter landed nearby and I was taken to (10)………………. PART II. Listen and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F) ( 10 points ) T F 1. Mr. Leonard did not have a wife. …….. …….. 2. He lived in a big house in a city. …….. …….. 3. He went to the countryside for a holiday every summer. …….. …….. 4. He liked clean places. …….. …….. 5. He and his friend went to the Tower Hotel together . …….. …….. 6. The Tower Hotel was not very nice but clean. …….. …….. 7. The manager took Mr. Leonard to his room. …….. …….. 8. The room looked very nice and clean. …….. …….. 9. The sheets on Mr. Leonard's bed were dirty. …….. …….. 10. The sheets on Mr. Leonard' s bed were not dry. …….. …….. 4
KEYS TO TEST LEVEL B (INTERMIDIATE ) PAPER ONE : READING COMPREHENSION SECTION A 1. D 6. D 11. A 16.B 2. B 7. B 12. B 17. B 3. A 8. A 13. D 18. A 4. C 9. C 14. D 19. D 5. B 10.B 15. C 20. C 1 mark for each correct answer . Total : 20 SECTION B 21. D 22. A 23. C 24 B 25. C 2 marks for each correct answer. Total : 10 Total marks for paper one : 30 PAPER TWO :USE OF ENGLISH SECTION A 26. old 27. next 28. a 29. front 30. down 31. everywhere 32. alone 33. Many/Some 34. reasons 35. from 1.5 marks for each correct word. Total : 15 SECTION B 36. I was very surprised to get your letter. 37. I didn’t know you had arrived back in London. 38. Did you have a good time in New York ? 39. I’m looking forward to hearing all about it . 40. Thank you for inviting me to dinner next weekend. 41. I’m afraid I won’t be able to come on Sunday. 42. But I’ll be free the following weekend. 43. Why don’t you call me in the next few days ? 1.25 marks for each correct sentence. Total : 10 SECTION C 44. They haven’t visited me for five years. 45. She asked where the nearest station was. 46. It took us five hours to get to London. 47. She is too old to have any more children. 48. Nobody in the class is cleverer than Sally. 1 mark for each correct sentence. Total : 5 COMPOSITION : 10 marks Total marks for paper two : 40 PAPER THREE : LISTENING COMPREHENSION PART 1 : 1. make 2. ran 3. foot 4. hurt 5. below 6. notice 7. cold 8. rescue 9. and 10. hospital 1 mark for each correct answer. Total : 10 PART 2 : 1.T 2.F 3.F 4.T 5.F 6.F 7.T 8.T 9.F 10.T 1 mark for each correct answer. Total : 10 Total mark for paper three : 20 PAPER 4 : INTERVIEW : 10 marks Total marks for the Test : 100 5
6