Tuyển chọn 35 đề trắc nghiệm ôn thi tốt nghiệp THPT môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021 (Có đáp án)

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TUYỂN CHỌN 35 ĐỀ TRẮC NGHIỆM ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2021 (CÓ ĐÁP ÁN)
1. Đề chính thức thi tốt nghiệp THPT năm 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo 2. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường THPT Lý Thái Tổ 3. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường THPT Tiên Du số 1 4. Đề minh họa thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THCS&THPT Nguyễn Khuyến 5. Đề minh họa thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Phạm Văn Đồng 6. Đề minh họa thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Tôn Đức Thắng 7. Đề minh họa thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THCS&THPT Võ Thị Sáu 8. Đề tham khảo thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THCS&THPT Nguyễn Viết Xuân 9. Đề tham khảo thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên Lương Văn Chánh 10. Đề tham khảo thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Nguyễn Thái Bình 11. Đề tham khảo thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Trần Bình Trọng 12. Đề tham khảo thi THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Trần Quốc Tuấn 13. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Phan Chu Trinh 14. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THCS&THPT Nguyễn Bá Ngọc 15. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THCS&THPT Võ Nguyên Giáp 16. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Nguyễn Trung Thiên 17. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Trần Suyền 18. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Nguyễn Thị Minh Khai 19. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Bình Sơn 20. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên Bắc Ninh 21. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên Hà Giang
22. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên Hạ Long 23. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên KHTN 24. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên Long An 25. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên Trần Phú 26. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Kim Liên 27. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Lê Hữu Trác 28. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT Lý Thái Tổ 29. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT Hưng Yên 30. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Liên trường THPT Nghệ An 31. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT Ninh Bình 32. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên Nguyễn Trãi 33. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên Thái Nguyên 34. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên Hoàng Văn Thụ 35. Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2020 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án - Trường THPT chuyên Thái Bình
KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2020 BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Bài thi: KHOA HỌC XÃ HỘI ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi thành phần: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề MÃ ĐỀ THI: 422 Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Số báo danh: ............................. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. furniture B. customer C. ambition D. balcony Question 2: A. market B. machine C. hobby D. luggage Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. warms B. starts C. reads D. rings Question 4: A. score B. fold C. phone D. close Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 5: My mother is often……..first person to get up in the family. A. a B. an C. the D. no article Question 6: The city has changed a lot since I last…….it. A. visited B. would visit C. will visit D. visit Question 7: Those boys were excited about the new game in the beginning, but now they have…..it. A. gone off B. look after C. filled in D. got on Question 8: It’s necessary to listen to opinions that are......from ours. A. differ B. differently C. difference D. different Question 9: If I....you, I wouldn’t go out in this weather. A. had been B. am C. will be D. were Question 10: You may not see how important your family is..... A. until you live far from home B. after you had lived far from home C. when you were living far from home D. as soon as you lived far from home Question 11: A fashionista herself, Helena is.......about her clothes, especially when making her appearance in public. A. particular B. feasible C. receptive D. creditable Question 12: You often walk to school,.....? A. won’t you B. didn’t you C. don’t you D. haven’t you Question 13: My daughter sometimes practises......English with her friends after school.
A. to speaking B. to speak C. speaking D. speak Question 14: The football team has waited....the championships for 30 years. A. for B. to C. up D. about Question 15: The local shop deals in many kinds of hair products.....from reasonably priced shampoos rather expensive dyes. A. are ranged B. are ranging C. range D. ranging Question 16: Applications for admission to this university are not processed with a high school...... A. licence B. paper C. diploma D. resume Question 17: Fathers can......a good example to their children by helping wwith the household chores. A. hold B. set C. follow D. raise Question 18: I can’t give chapter and....., but to the best of my knowledge, it’s a line from “Romeo and Juliet” A. verse B. note C. rhyme D. scene Question 19: Polar bears are in danger of going extinct.......climate change. A. because B. despite C. because of D. although Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 20: The beautiful sandy beach with a lot of sunshine and good foods made his holiday complete. A. serious B. normal C. perfect D. terrible Question 21: The candidate was rejected as he could not meet all the requirements for this position. A. satisfy B. arrange C. establish D. produce Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The intenal structure of the ancient palace is complicated like that of a maze. A. narrow B. complex C. simple D. attractive Question 23: Everyone was secretly rehearsing a surprise performance for Alex’s proposal but annoyingly Jim let the cat out of the bag at the last minute. A. disclosed the plan B. concealed the plan C. revised the plan D. abandoned the plan Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 24: Dave is talking to Hanah after their school’s English speaking contest. - Dave: “Congratulations! You’ve given a great performance.” - Hanah: “.........” A. No, don’t worry B. It’s nice of you to say so. C. Me neither D. I’m sorry to hear that Question 25: Gini and Adrian are talking about a book they have read lately.
- Gini: “That wasn’t an interesting book” - Adrian: “......I couldn’t go further than chapter 2” A. No, it was fascinating B. You can say that again C. Yes, it gave me much information D. I think it will get better and better Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: Single-use plastic products are convenient. They are detrimental to the environment. A. Convenient though single-use plastic products are, they are detrimental to the environment. B. It is their detriment to the environment that makes single-use plastic products convenient. C. Were single-use plastic products convenient, they would be detrimental to the environment. D. Not only are single-use plastic products convenient, they are also detrimental to the environment. Question 27: There was unexpected twists in the movie. It was so fascinating. A. If there had been unexpected twists in the movie, it would have been so fascinating. B. But for the unexpected twists in the movie, it wouldn’t have been so fascinating C. Suppose that there was unexpected twists in the movie, it would have been so fascinating. D. Without the unexpected twists in the movie, it wouldn’t have been so fascinating Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: The company is (A) looking for (B) a candidate who (C) is honest, hard-working and responsibility (D). Question 29: Protective (A) gear for firefighters is supposed to be made of inflamable (B) materials so as to eliminate (C) the risk (D) of fire. Question 30: It always take (A) parents a lot of (B) time and patience (C) to bing up their (D) children. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: Peter is more successful than his sister. A. Peter is less successful than his sister. B. Peter is as successful as his sister. C. Peter’s sister is more successful than he is. D. Peter’s sister is not as successful as he is. Question 32: It is compulsory for all the students to hand in their assignments on time. A. All the students needn’t hand in their assignments on time. B. All the students can’t hand in their assignments on time. C. All the students must hand in their assignments on time. D. All the students may hand in their assignments on time. Question 33: “I’m going on a picnic tomorrow” he said. A. He said that I was going on a picnic tomorrow. B. He said that he was going on a picnic tomorrow.
C. He said that I am going on a picnic the following day. D. He said that he was going on a picnic the following day. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38. TEENAGERS AND DIGITAL TECHNOLOGY In many countries, there is a widespread perception that teenager’s lives nowadays are dominated by technology. However, the information (34)........was gathered in a recent study of Australian teenagers’ use of and attitude towards technology such as that this view doesn’t reflect the reality of their everyday existence. The research by academics of the University of Canberra in Australia found that, while most teenagers had ready access to home computers, mobile phones and (35).......electronic devices, they generally spent more time on traditional (36).......such as talking to family and friends, doing homework and enjoying hobbies and sports than on using technology. Accessing social media and playing computer games ranked as low as nineth and tenth respectively among the ten most common after-school activities. Fifteen-year-old Laura Edmonds is one of the teenagers surveys. She admits to being very (37).........to her smartphone and makes full use of various apps, (38).........if she needs to unwind after a hard day at school, she tends to “hang out with my friends, listen to music or chat with my mum and dad.” Question 34: A. where B. which C. when D. who Question 35: A. one B. other C. every D. another Question 36: A. pursuits B. operations C. incidents D. events Question 37: A. conformed B. enclosed C. attached D. related Question 38: A. till B. nor C. but D. Like Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 39 to 43. More and more young people are choosing to take a gap year between finishing school and starting university. Alternatively, they may decide to take a gap year between graduating from university and starting a career feeling the need for some time out before joining the rat race. Most students see the time as an opportunity to travel. The idea of travelling to as many foreign places as possible appeals greatly. A large percentage of gap-year students have wealthy parents who can easily subsidze their travel. Others have to save up before they go or look for some forms of employment while travelling. For example, they may works on local farms or in local hotels. By doing so, they not only earn some money, but they are likely to meet local people and acquire some understanding of their culture. There are some students who choose to work for the whole of their gap year. A number may decide to get work experience, either at home or abroad in an area which they hope to make their career, such as medicine or computers. A large proportion of students are now choosing to work with a charity which arranges voluntary work in various parts of the world. The project provides hands-on experience of a very varied nature, from teaching to helping build roads or dams. The gap year is not just an adventure. Young people can benefit greatly from encountering new varied experiences and from communication with a wide range of people. Perhaps most important, gap-year students have to learn to stand on their own two feet. Question 39: What could be the best title of the passage? A. Studying Overseas B. Taking Time Out C. Working for Life D. Contributing to the Community Question 40: The word “subsidize” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by.......
A. pay for B. work for C. apply for D. ask for Question 41: The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers t.......... A. gap-year students B. local farms C. local people D. local hotels Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE? A. Students can take a gap year only before starting university. B. The number of students take a gap year between high school and university is falling C. Most students consider a gap year as a chance to travel D. None of the students choose to work for the whole of their gap year to get experience Question 43: According to the passage, which is perhaps the most benefit of the students’ taking a gap year? A. They receive partical training for their future careers B. They learn how to become independent C. They earn money to support their further studies D. They have an opportunity to meet local people Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 44 to 50. “I have not paid a single electricity bill since the year 1970” says Richard Perez with noticable glee. He can afford to be smug. He lives “ off-grid” – unconnected to the power grid and the water, gas and sewerage supplies that most people in the world rely on. He ganerate his own electricity, sources his own water and deals with his own waste disposal – and he prefers in that way. “There are times when the grid blacks out” he says. “I really like the security of having my own electricity company.” Perez is not alone. Once the preserve of mavericks, hippies and survivalists, there are now approximately 200,000 off-grid households in the United States of America, a figure that Perez says has been increasing by a third every year for the past decade. For all of the people who live off-grid, self-sufficency means guilt-free energy consumption and peace of mind. “It feels brilliant to make use of clean, free energy that is not from fossil fuels” says Suzanne Galant, a writer who lives off-grid in a rural area in Wales. “And if something goes wrong, we can fix it ourself”. Now even urbanites are seeing the appeal of generating some if not all of their own power needs. So is energy freedom an eco pipe-dream or the untimate good life? Well, there is only one wy to find out: begin to explore the possibilities of solar, wind or hydro-power. But unless you live on a sunny, south-facing hillsidewith access to a nearby river or stream, that might prove prohibitively expensive! There is no doubt that being off-grid has its problems, and it is not always the cheapest way to get the energy you need. Even so, pioneers like Perez have proved that it can be done, and without giving up a 21st century lifestyle: “I have got five personal computers, two laser scanners, two fridge-freezer, a microwave, a covection oven, vacuum cleaners –you name it” says Perez. There is an external beam antenna on the roof for the phone and a satellite dish for an Internet connection. I have got 70 kWh in batteries that could last me five days. I have too much electricity”. Too much electricity and no more bills. That has got to be worth aiming for. Question 44: Which is the best serves as the title for the passage? A. Unplugging from the Grid B. No water, no life! C. A Day in the Life of an “Off-Grid”
D. Living without Electricity Question 45: The phrase “blacks out” in paragraph 1 mostly means............ A. fails to work B. is able to run C. has no functions D. serves many purposes Question 46: According to paragraph 1, Perez has managed to....... A. save a lot of money with his own company B. stay independent of certain public utilities C. provide energy for people in his neighbourhood D. pay off his electricity bills since 1970 Question 47: The word “pipe-dream” in paragraph 2 mostly means............ A. a promissing vision B. a terrible situation C. an impractical hope D. a real nightmare Question 48: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to............. A. being a pioneer B. getting the energy C. being off-grid D. giving up a 21st century lifestyle Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage? A. The number of “off-gridders” in the US is said to have risen by 33% over the past ten years B. Some city dwellers have shown an interest in producing their own electricity C. “Off-gridders” enjoy not doing harm to the environment D. People opting for off-grid living used to be considered quite eccentric Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Adopting an off-grid lifestyle is only suitable for low-income people B. Leading a 21st century lifestyle means consuming a great deal of electricity C. Many “off-gridders” have made a fortune selling thier own electricity D. Most people living in temperate regions are against the idea of living off-grid ----------The End----------
ĐÁP ÁN 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C B B A C A A D D A 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A C C A D C B A C C 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A C B B B A B D B A 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 D C D B B A C C B A 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 C C B A A B C C A B
SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN 1 TRƯỜNG TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG Tên môn: Tiếng Anh LÝ THÁI TỔ Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm) Mã đề thi: 896 (Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu) Họ, tên thí sinh:..................................................................... Số báo danh: ............................. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair sentences in the following questions from 1 to 2 Question 1: Beef contains vitamins. Generally, fish contains almost the same vitamins as beef. A. The vitamins content of fish may be considered in general as similar to beef. B. Generally, beef and fish may be considered to be a combination of vitamin content. C. The vitamins content of beef is generally considered to come from fish. D. What vitamin fish contains may be considered in general to be made from beef. Question 2: The man was shot in the bank robbery. The doctors are operating on him. A. The man whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery. B. The doctors are operating on the man who was shot in the bank robbery. C. The man was shot in the bank robbery where the doctors are operating on him. D. The man was whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 3 to 9 Today, there are 600 million cars in the world. They may seem like a lot. However, there are over 7 million people on our planet. Most of the world’s population uses public transportation to get around. The number of people using public transportation continues to rise. Subway systems worldwide carry 155 million passengers each day. That’s more than 30 times the number carried by all the world’s airplanes. Every day in Tokyo passengers take more than 40 million rides on public transportation. Yet many people see public transportation as ‘a depressing experience’, says author Taras Gresco. They say it is slow, crowded, or too expensive. In fact , Gresco says, it is actually ‘faster, more comfortable and cheaper’ than driving a car. Like millions of people, Taras Gresco is a ‘straphanger’ - a person who rides public transportation. In his book straphanger: Saving Our Cities and Ourselves from the Automobile, Gresco describe the benefits of public transportation. Firstly, it is better for the environment. When people use public transportation, they use less fuel. Twenty people on one bus use much less fuel than 20 people in 20 cars. Fewer cars mean less pollution and cleaner air. Using public transportation can be good for your health in other ways. It can even help you lose weight. In one study, a group of people took public transportation every day for six months. Each day they walked to a bus stop or train station. In six months, each person lost an average of six pounds - almost three kilograms. Taking public transportation has another benefit, says Gresco. It helps people become part of their community. When you are alone in your car, you don’t talk to anyone. One Tokyo straphanger told Gresco, “To use public transport is to know how to cooperate with other people,’ It teaches you ‘how to behave in a public space’. So, public transportation is more than a way to get to work or school. It can help lead to cleaner cities. It may also lead to a healthier and more cooperative world population. Question 3: According to the passage, the number of people travelling by planes each day is about A. 185 million B. 20 million C. 125 million D. 5 million Question 4: The word ‘it” in the passage refers to A. driving a car B. author Taras Gresco. C. depressing experiece D. public transportation Question 5: What is not true about Taras Gresco according to the reading passage?
A. Taras Gresco often travels by public transportation, especially the bus. B. Taras Gresco wrote a book about the benefits of public transportation. C. Taras Gresco finds public transportation beneficial for both the cities and the users. D. Taras Gresco launched a campaign to encourage people to use the public transportation. Question 6: Which of the following is mentioned as a benefit for a public transportation rider? A. He or she will be able to learn how to ride a means of public transportation. B. He or she will have a good chance to make more friends with the different people. C. He or she will have a good chance to enjoy the natural landscape. D. He or she will know how to behave in public places and cooperate with others. Question 7: Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as the one that benefits from the public transportation? A. the environment B. the car driver C. the city D. the bus rider Question 8: How does the environment benefit from people’s use of the public transportation ? A. Buses and trains not only conserve energy but also save public transportation B. The smaller number of cars sold helps the automobile industry save the environment substantially. C. Subways use renewable energy sources instead of the fossil fuels, making the environment cleaner. D. Fewer people using private transportation means less fuel used, hence cleaner environment. Question 9: Which of the following can be the best title of the reading passage? A. Public Transportation - a way to Loose Weight. B. Public Transportation _ We all Benefit C. public transportation - Cleaner – Cities D. Public transportation - to Save the Environment Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 10 to 12 Question 10: More research is needed to find out if acupuncture is helped with other side effects such as pain, anxiety or shortness of breath. A. is needed B. such as C. shortness D. is helped Question 11: ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well as provide opportunities for its members. A. its B. provide C. aims at D. economic growth Question 12: She complained that her husband never paid her any complements anymore. A. any complements B. never C. anymore. D. complained Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 13 to 15 Question 13: They believe that burning fossil fuels is the main cause of air pollution. A. It is believed that air pollution is mainly to blame for burning fossil fuels. B. Burning fossil fuels is believed to result from air pollution. C. Burning fossil fuels is believed to have caused high levels of air pollution. D. It is believed that burning fossil fuels is held responsible for air pollution. Question 14: “I haven’t been very open-minded,” said the manager. A. The manager promised to be very open-minded. B. The manager admitted not having been very open-minded. C. The manager denied having been very open-minded. D. The manager refused to have been very open-minded. Question 15: Peter used to work as a journalist for a local newspaper. A. Peter has stopped working as a journalist for a local newspaper. B. Peter no longer likes the job as a journalist for a local newspaper. C. Peter refused to work as a journalist for a local newspaper.
D. Peter enjoyed working as a journalist for a local newspaper. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 16 to 30 Question 16: - “Are you thinking of flying business class?” - “__________” A. No, I’d like an aisle seat. B. No, I’m just on business. C. No, economy. D. I’m flying there to attend a party Question 17: If you watch this film, you _____ about the cultures of Southeast Asian countries. A. learned B. would learn C. will learn D. were learning Question 18: Paul noticed a job advertisement while he _____ along the street. A. walked B. was walking C. had walked D. would walk Question 19: Solar energy is not widely used _____ it is friendly to the environment. A. in spite of B. because of C. since D. although Question 20: The sign warns people _____ the dangers of swimming in this river. A. with B. about C. from D. to Question 21: _____, they were surprised to find their favourite band playing there. A. On arrival at the party B. They had arrived at the party C. To have attended the party D. Just attended the party Question 22: Drinking too much alcohol is said to _____ harm to our health. A. lead B. take C. do D. make Question 23: At the end of the training course, each participant was presented with a _____ of completion. A. diploma B. certificate C. qualification D. degree Question 24: The _____ high levels of pollution in the coastal areas are a matter of great concern to the government. A. intensively B. redundantly C. excessively D. marginally Question 25: Event organisers should plan everything carefully so as to leave nothing to _____. A. possibility B. opportunity C. impossible D. mistake Question 26: The woman _____when the police told her that her son had died. A. broke in B. broke away C. broke down D. broke into Question 27: _____, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes. A. As intelligent the boy was B. Intelligent as the boy was C. As the boy was intelligent D. Intelligent as was the boy Question 28: . My friend always dreams of having _____. A. a small red sleeping bag. B. red sleeping small a bag. C. small a bag red sleeping. D. a bad small red sleeping. Question 29: David graddol, a British linguist, believes that English_____80% of computer- based communication in the 1990s. A. accounted for. B. answered for C. made over D. took up Question 30: _____every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition. A. When he won B. Having won C. On winning D. Winning Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from from 31 to 35 Urbanization programs are being carried out in many parts of the world, especially in densely (31) ________ regions with limited land and resources. It is the natural outcome of economic development and industrialization. It has brought a lot of benefits to our society. However, it also (32) ________ various problems for local authorities and town planners in the process of maintaining sustainable urbanization, especially in developing countries. When too many people cram into a small area, urban infrastructure can't be effective. There will be a (33) ________ of livable housing, energy and water supply. This will create overcrowded urban districts with no
proper facilities. Currently, fast urbanization is taking place predominantly in developing countries where sustainable urbanization has little relevance to people's lives. Their houses are just shabby slums with poor sanitation. Their children only manage to get basic education. Hence, the struggle for (34) ________ is their first priority rather than anything else. Only when the quality of their existence is improved, can they seek (35)________ other high values in their life. Question 31: A. numerous B. crowed C. populated D. popular Question 32: A. offers B. imposes C. leads D. poses Question 33: A. appearance B. plenty C. lack D. loss Question 34: A. survive B. survival C. survived D. survivor Question 35: A. on B. with C. for D. about Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 36 to 37 Question 36: A. liberty B. final C. reliable D. revival Question 37: A. influenced B. raised C. introduced D. developed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges from 38 to 39 Question 38: John: " You're already leaving? The ball is only starting." - Peter: " But it's very late, so _." A. It's great fun, thanks B. Have a good day C. Goodbye for now D. Take care Question 39: John: "Why don't we go to a baseball game?". - Jimmy:"______". A. I'd rather go to the art gallery B. No, thanks. I'd like to sit here C. It's good to play baseball D. No, I don't. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 40 to 44 The word robot first appeared in a 1921 stage play by Czech writer Karel Capek. In the play, a man makes a machine that can think, which he calls a robot and which ends up killing its owner. In the 1940s, the American science fiction writer Isaac Asimov wrote a series of stories about robots and invented the term robotics, the science of robots. Meanwhile, in the real world, the first robots were developed by an engineer, Joseph F. Engelberger, and an inventor, George C. Devol. Together they started Unimation, a manufacturing company that produces the first real robot in 1961, called the Unimate. Robots of this type were installed at a General Motors automobile plant and proved to be a success. They worked reliably and saved money for General Motors, so other companies were soon acquiring robots as well. These industrial robots were nothing like the terrifying creatures that can often be seen in science fiction films. In fact, these robots looked and behaved nothing like humans. They were simply pieces of computer-controlled machinery, with metal “arms” or “hands”. Since they were made of metal, they could perform certain jobs that were difficult or dangerous for humans, particularly jobs that involve high heat. And since robots were tireless and never got hungry, sleepy, or distracted, they were useful for tasks that would be tiring or boring for humans. Industrial robots have been improved over the years, and today they are used in many factories around the world. Though the use of robots has meant the loss of some jobs, at the same time other jobs have been created in the design, development, and production of the robots. Rise of the Robots, Silicon Valley Entrepreneur, Martin Ford, 1988. Question 40: What is Unimation? A. It’s the producer of the first robot B. It’s the name of a robot inventor C. It’s the name of a robot D. It’s a robot making program Question 41: What can be said about Karel Capek? A. He was the first to create the word “robot” B. He is an American writer C. He made a robot D. He made a robot in order to kill a person Question 42: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of robots?
A. They are not distracted B. They are tiring C. They can do jobs involving high heat D. They don’t need food Question 43: What are industrial robots like? A. They behave like humans B. They controlled machinery C. They look like humans D. They are computer-controlled machines Question 44: When did the word “robot” appear? A. in the 1920s B. in the 40s C. in the 19th century D. in the 60s Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word/phrases SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 45 to 46 Question 45: : The aboriginal people of Australia are experts at survival in an environment with scanty resources. A. ordinary B. natural C. limited D. abundant Question 46: Sometimes , in order to get things done, you have to take the initiative. A. sacrifice for others B. make the last decision C. make important changes D. raise the first idea Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the bolded part in each of the following questions from 47 to 48 Question 47: He didn’t bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the exam again. A. wasn’t happy B. didn’t care C. showed surprise D. didn’t want to see Question 48: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have academic or personal problems. A. sympathize B. please C. satisfy D. discourage Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 49 to 50 Question 49: A. open B. answer C. cartoon D. paper Question 50: A. knowledgeableB. prosperity C. certificate D. development ----------------------------------------------- ----------- HẾT ---------- ĐÁP ÁN 1 A 11 B 21 A 31 C 41 A 2 B 12 A 22 C 32 D 42 B 3 D 13 D 23 B 33 C 43 D 4 D 14 B 24 C 34 B 44 A 5 D 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 C 6 D 16 C 26 C 36 A 46 D 7 C 17 C 27 B 37 B 47 C 8 D 18 B 28 A 38 C 48 D 9 B 19 D 29 A 39 A 49 C 10 D 20 B 30 B 40 A 50 A
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN 1 TRƯỜNG THPT TIÊN DU SỐ 1 NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021 MÔN: Tiếng Anh 12 Thời gian làm bài: 60phút (50 câu trắc nghiệm) Đề gồm 5 trang Mã đề 207 Họ và tên học sinh :.................................................................... SBD ................................. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. New Zealand was the first country ______ women to vote. A. that give B. to give C. gave D. giving Question 2. He got a bad mark. He _____have prepared the lesson carefully. A. shouldn’t B. wouldn’t C. should D. would Question 3. _____ they do not have much experience, their applications have been approved. A. So that B. Although C. Because D. As soon as Question 4. The accused ______ guilty to all charges A. confessed B. pleaded C. said D. admitted Question 5. The newspaper did not mention the ________ of the damage caused by the fire A. amount B. range C. quality D. extent Question 6. If I ______ to the store later, I’ll get you some milk. A. was going B. went C. go D. will go Question 7. Scientist are now beginning to conduct experiments on _____ trigger different sorts of health risks. A. noise pollution can B. how noise pollution C. how noise pollution can D. that noise pollution Question 8. Sportsmen ______ their political differences on the sports field. A. put aside B. take apart C. take place D. keep apart Question 9. It is _____ funniest book that I have ever read. A. an B. the C. a D. X Question 10. With greatly increased workloads, everyone is ______ pressure now A. out of B. above C. under D. upon Question 11. After you ______ your exam, I will take you out to eat. Is it OK ? A. were finishing B. finished C. have finished D. are finishing Question 12. I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet of the opera; they’re not really my ______. A. cup of tea B. biscuit C. sweets and candy D. piece of cake Question 13. The phone suddenly _____ while Joanna _____ the housework. A. rang – did B. was ringing – did C. was ringing – was doing D. rang – was doing Question 14. We hung coloured lights around the room for _____. A. decorative B. decoration C. decorate D. decorator Question 15. It is important that he _____ into a good university. A. gets B. getting C. get D. got Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 16. It was an interested book that I bought at Ngoc Binh Store last Sunday A. interested B. last Sunday C. at D. that Question 17. The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that have become extinct have increased.
A. extinct B. industrialized C. species D. have Question 18. Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the surrounding area. A. to control flooding B. generating C. surrounding area D. irrigation Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 19. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand, joining hands initially. A. officially B. basically C. firstly D. lastly Question 20. If the examiner can't make sense of what your essay is about, you'll get the low mark. A. communicate B. estimate C. declare D. understand Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions Question 21. A. climate B. greenhouse C. footprint D. upset Question 22. A. infectious B. atmosphere C. chemical D. consequence Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 23. My father is less friendly than my mother. A. My father is not as friendly as my mother. B. My father is more friendly than my mother. C. My mother is not as friendly as my father. D. My mother is less friendly than my father. Question 24. “I bought these books last week”. He said A. He said he had bought these books last week. B. He said he had bought those books the week before. C. He said he bought these books last week. D. He said he bought these books the week before. Question 25. She probably buys this house next week. A. She doesn’t have to buy this house next week. B. She may buy this house next week. C. She should buy next house next week. D. She must buy this house next week. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26. You can stay in the flat for free. You pay the bills. A. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat. B. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it. C. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free. D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free. Question 27. It is such an interesting book. I have read it three times A. Such was the interesting book that I have read it three times. B. Such interesting was book that I have read it three times. C. Should the book be interesting, I have read it three times. D. Only if it is an interesting book have I read it three times. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions. In Africa, people celebrate with joy the birth of a new baby. The Pygmies would sing a birth-song to the child. In Kenya, the mother takes the baby strapped to her back into the thorn enclosure where the cattle are kept. There, her husband and the village elders wait to give the child his or her name. In West Africa, after the baby is eight days old, the mother takes the baby for its first walk in the big, wide world, and friends and family are invited to meet the new baby. In various African nations, they hold initiation ceremonies for groups of children instead of birthdays. When children reach a certain designated age, they learn the laws, beliefs, customs, songs and dances of their tribes. Some African tribes consider that children from nine to twelve are ready to be initiated into the grown up world. They may have to carry out several tests. Maasai boys around thirteen years old to seventeen undergo a two-stage initiation. The first stage lasts about three months. The boys leave their parents' homes, paint their bodies white, and are taught how to become young warriors. At the end of this stage, they have their heads shaved and they are also circumcised. At the second stage, the young warriors grow their hair long and live in a camp called a “manyatta” where they practice hunting the wild animals that might attack the Maasai herds. This stage may last a few years. When they are ready, they will marry and become owners of large cattle herds like their fathers. The girls are initiated when they are fourteen or fifteen. They are taught by the older women about the duties of marriage and how to care for babies. Soon after that they are married and lead a life similar to that of their mothers. Question 28. What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to? A. the young warriors B. the cattle owners C. the Maasai herds D. the wild animals Question 29. The word "undergo" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______________. A. explore B. participate in C. experience D. commence Question 30. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2? A. Children have to learn their tribes' cultures and traditions when they are old enough. B. An eight-day-old child will be taken for the first walk by his or her mother. C. Children are initiated for a mature life in the presence of their friends and family. D. Children have to overcome a few trials to enter the grown-up world. Question 31. Where do people in Kenya give the name to the child? A. at their house B. at the village church C. on the cattle farm D. near the thorn fence Question 32. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Birthday ceremonies for children in Africa B. Activities in a birth celebration C. Traditions of Maasai people when having a new baby D. Celebrations in Africa Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others. Question 33. A. worked B. trained C. stopped D. missed Question 34. A. dynasty B. royal C. intact D. citadel Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 35. Linda and Peter are talking about safe driving. ~ Linda: “I think drink-driving should be severely punished.” ~ Peter "............. . It may cause accidents or even deaths.” A. I don’t understand what you mean. B. I don’t think so. C. I absolutely agree with you. D. You must be kidding. Question 36. A porter is talking to Mary in the hotel lobby. ~ Porter: “May I help you with your suitcase?”
~ Mary: “..............” A. You’re welcome. B. What a shame! C. Yes, please. D. Me too. Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following questions. Foot racing is a popular activity in the United States. It is seen not only as a competitive sport but also as a way to exercise, to enjoy the camaraderie of like-minded people, and to donate money to a good cause. Though serious runners may spend months training to compete, other runners and walkers might not train at all. Those not competing to win might run in an effort to beat their own time or simply to enjoy the fun and exercise. People of all ages, from those of less than one year (who may be pushed in strollers) to those in their eighties, enter into this sport. The races are held on city streets, on college campuses, through parks, and in suburban areas, and they are commonly 5 to 10 kilometers in length. The largest foot race in the world is the 12-kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San Francisco every spring. This race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and ends on the west side at the Pacific Ocean. There may be 80,000 or more people running in this race through the streets and hills of San Francisco. In the front are the serious runners who compete to win and who might finish in as little as 34 minutes. Behind them are the thousands 20 who take several hours to finish. In the back of the race are those who dress in costumes and come just for fun. One year there was a group of men who dressed like Elvis Presley, and another group consisted of firefighters who were tied together in a long line and who were carrying a fire hose. There was even a bridal party, in which the bride was dressed in a long white gown and the groom wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom threw flowers to bystanders, and they were actually married at some point along the route. Question 37. The phrase “to a good cause” could be best replaced by which of the following? A. for an award B. for a good purpose C. to reward the winner D. to protect a wise investment Question 38. Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage? A. cause and result B. specific to general C. chronological order D. statement and example Question 39. The word “activity” in the first paragraph is most similar to which of the following? A. motion B. pursuit C. expectation D. pilgrimage Question 40. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage? A. Some runners were serious about winning. B. Some runners were ready to put out a fire. C. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley. D. Some runners were participating in a wedding. Question 41. Which of the following is NOT implied by the author? A. Entering a race is a way to give support to an organization. B. Running is a good way to strengthen the heart. C. Foot races appeal to a variety of people. D. Walkers can compete for prizes. Question 42. The word “bystander” refers to __________. A. a participant B. a judge C. a spectator D. a walker Question 43. The main purpose of this passage is to ________________________. A. give reasons for the popularity of the foot races B. describe a popular activity C. encourage people to exercise D. make fun of runners in costume Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions. Question 44. Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment. A. relaxed about B. interested in C. busy with D. free from Question 45. He was imprisoned because he revealed secrets to the enemies. A. concealed B. betrayed C. declared D. disowned Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and influenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (46) ______ more harm than good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of consumers. Presumably, most parents (47) ______ are always worrying about their children’s safety buy mobile phones for them to track their whereabouts. We can also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out on social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear. (48) ________, we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (49) ________ evidence that texting has affected literacy skills. The widespread use of mobile phone has, out of question, affected adult consumers too. What employee, on the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of us, according to a survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we've left the office. Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (50) _______. They also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations. Question 46. A. brought B. played C. done D. made Question 47. A. whom B. what C. which D. who Question 48. A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. So that Question 49. A. arguable B. doubtless C. unhesitating D. indisputable Question 50. A. warning B. time C. term D. notice ------ END ------ ĐÁP ÁN 1 B 6 C 11 C 16 A 21 D 26 D 31 C 36 C 41 B 46 C 2 C 7 C 12 A 17 D 22 A 27 A 32 A 37 B 42 C 47 D 3 B 8 A 13 D 18 B 23 A 28 A 33 B 38 D 43 B 48 C 4 B 9 B 14 B 19 C 24 B 29 C 34 C 39 B 44 D 49 D 5 D 10 C 15 C 20 D 25 B 30 C 35 C 40 B 45 A 50 D