Đề thi thử THPT QG môn tiếng Anh năm 2019 lần 2 - Sở GD&ĐT Ninh Bình - Mã đề 024
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Nội dung Text: Đề thi thử THPT QG môn tiếng Anh năm 2019 lần 2 - Sở GD&ĐT Ninh Bình - Mã đề 024
- SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI THỬ TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA TỈNH NINH BÌNH LẦN THỨ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2018-2019 Môn: TIẾNG ANH ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề (Đề thi gồm có 04 trang) Mã đề thi 024 Họ tên thí sinh:...............................................................; Số báo danh:................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. seen B. indeed C. green D. pioneer Question 2: A. distinguished B. attracted C. relaxed D. attacked Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. disaster B. reduction C. example D. penalty Question 4: A. apply B. leopard C. parrot D. panda Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: 75% of the world's population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a point masks the symptoms of sleep deprivation. A. offer B. loss C. supply D. damage Question 6: - “What do you think about my idea for a new smart phone game” - “I think it’s got potential. It sounds really good.” A. it is certain of success B. someone already did it C. it seems that it can be successful D. it’s possible, but not practical Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 7: The __________ of the palace in the water was very clear and dreamy. A. sight B. shadow C. reflection D. shade Question 8: ____________ our own interests is one of the most important factors in choosing a job. A. Pursuing B. Chasing C. Seeking D. Realizing Question 9: “Sorry, I don’t know it exactly, but I think the Ethnology Museum is within ______ easy distance.” A. an B. the C. a D. Ø (no article) Question 10: Tina would consider ___________ to Finland with us this summer. A. being gone B. to go C. going D. to have gone Question 11: In today’s paper, it ____________ that the Vietnam’s national examination for high school students will take place from June 24th to 27th. A. admits B. proposes C. says D. expresses Question 12: At first, it’s very difficult for the judge to identify the winner because the two runners seemed to cross the finishing line ____________. A. respectively B. chronologically C. simultaneously D. spontaneously Question 13: Sharon __________ to Italy twice before she visited Rome for the first time. A. has gone B. went C. was going D. had gone Question 14: The accident brought him to his _________ and made him stop drinking. A. responsibilities B. duties C. senses D. awareness Question 15: Many city-dwellers like to spend their weekend in the country to enjoy the fresh air and the __________ of nature. A. beauty B. beautify C. beautiful D. beautifully Question 16: ___________ Jim likes the band, he’s too tired to go to the concert this evening. A. Even though B. Because of C. Since D. Whatever Question 17: Our magazine ___________ in May if we receive all the articles on time. A. will have published B. will publish C. would be published D. will be published Question 18: ___________, I entered one of the most prestigious universities of the United States. A. To award a scholarship B. Having been awarded a scholarship C. I have been awarded a scholarship D. Awarding a scholarship Question 19: We’ve got to save the rainforests _____________ being destroyed. A. to B. with C. from D. for Trang 1/4 - Mã đề thi 024
- Question 20: Thousands of people _____________ along the roads watched the bicycle racing. A. stood B. standing C. to stand D. who stands Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 21: The teacher is asking Kevin about the reason for his absence from the class. - Teacher: “Why didn’t you show up for class this morning?” - Kevin: “____. You know, I live far from the school.” A. My car broke down B. It’s not the case C. It’s a fine day D. That’s good Question 22: July and Harry are talking about their plan for the weekend. - July: “Shall we go boating tomorrow?” - Harry: “____. The weather forecast says a storm is coming.” A. That’s a deal B. I’m afraid we can’t C. That’s a good idea D. Sure Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 23: The company rejected the claim that they were responsible for these teenagers’ health problems. A. ignored B. accepted C. denied D. disagreed Question 24: I am at a loss to know how you are going to pass your subjects without studying. All what you do is playing video games all day. A. completely understand B. feel like a stranger C. lose the game D. fail to understand Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 25: Needless to say, Mike is cleverer than other students in the class. A. Needless to say, Mike is not so clever as other students in the class. B. Needless to say, other students in the class are cleverer than Mike. C. Needless to say, Mike is the cleverest student in the class. D. Needless to say, other students in the class are as clever as Mike. Question 26: It was wrong of you not to ask your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. A. You might have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. B. You should have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. C. You must have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. D. You had to have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. Question 27: “What film did you watch last night, Dave?” Dora asked. A. Dora asked Dave what film he had watched the previous night. B. Dora wondered what film Dave watched the night before. C. Dora asked Dave what he watched film the previous night. D. Dora wanted to know what film had Dave watched the night before. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 28 to 32. Dolphins have to be conscious to (28) _________. This means that they cannot go into a full deep sleep, because then they would suffocate. Dolphins have “solved” that by (29) ________ one half of their brain sleep at a time. This has been determined by doing EEG studies on dolphins. Dolphins sleep about 8 hours a day in this fashion. Recent studies confirmed that dolphins have only one eye closed (30) _______ their sleep. The state (open or closed) of one eye remains constant for an average of an hour, after (31) ________ it switches state. REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep, usually associated with dreaming has been recorded only very (32) ____. Some scientists claim dolphins do not have REM sleep at all. A dolphin’s behavior when sleeping/resting depends on the circumstances and possibly on individual preferences. They can either: swim slowly and surface every now and then for a breath; rest at the surface with their blowhole exposed; or rest on the bottom (in shallow water) and rise to the surface every now and then to breathe. Question 28: A. breath B. breathed C. breathing D. breathe Question 29: A. allowing B. getting C. doing D. letting Question 30: A. after B. when C. during D. while Question 31: A. whom B. who C. which D. that Question 32: A. never B. rarely C. widely D. often Trang 2/4 - Mã đề thi 024
- Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 33: The teacher found a great deal of mistakes in his students’ writing. A B C D Question 34: At present, advertising is one of the most strictly regulated industry in the United States. A B C D Question 35: If you paid attention to the lesson yesterday, you could answer my questions now. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. Even though most people can’t find it on a map, the small island of Sumbawa has played an important role in history. Sumbawa is situated to the east of the popular resort island of Bali and is currently home to around 1.5 million people. For these people the island is home, but Sumbawa is important for another reason as well. Mount Tambora – a volcano, 1815 volcanic eruption was the deadliest and most powerful in history – is located on its northern half. In early April of 1815, Mount Tambora changed the world. It released a blast that registered a whopping 7 on the Volcanic Explosivity Index. That is the highest in human history. Its eruption was so loud that it was heard by people who live in Sumatra – an island located more than 2,000 kilometers away. When Tambora erupted, it shot around 100 cubic kilometers of rock and ash into the air. The ash caused complete darkness on Sumbawa and its neighboring islands for several days. It destroyed all vegetation and killed an estimated 71,000 people in the area. But the damage Tambora caused did not end in Indonesia. One year later, the volcanic cloud of ash it ejected reached the northern hemisphere. There it obscured the sun and affected the climates of Europe, the eastern sections of the United States, and Canada. It created cooler temperatures and severe crop failure. Many places had snow in June and frosty nights in July, August, and September. The year of 1816 was known as “the year without summer”. The cooler temperatures resulted in a severe and extensive famine. The prices of basic foods rose sharply across the affected areas. Many people resorted to begging, stealing, and travelling long distances in search of food. Diseases caused by malnutrition became widespread. In total, over 200,000 people died of starvation and disease. The aftermath of the 1815 eruption of Mount Tambora was the worst of any volcanic eruption in recorded history. Unfortunately, volcano researchers say we can expect a similar eruption to occur within the next 1,000 years. While many people see manmade climate change as the most dangerous threat to the Earth, powerful volcanoes also threaten us with catastrophic climate disruption. Question 36: According to the passage, Sumbawa has played an important role in history because_______. A. Mount Tambora’s eruption registered a 7 on the Volcanic Explosivity Index B. it is located so close to Bali C. it has a population of 1.5 million people D. the largest volcanic eruption in history happened there Question 37: The word “blast” in paragraph 2 described a(n) ________. A. shape B. image C. size D. explosion Question 38: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ________. A. shot B. rock C. darkness D. ash Question 39: According to the passage, why was the year of 1816 called “the year without a summer”? A. As the eruption killed 71,000 people in the summer. B. As the cloud of ash from Mt. Tambora effected the climate. C. Because Mt. Tambora erupted in the summer. D. Because Mt. Tambora erupting in 1816 caused famine. Question 40: The phrase “resorted to” in paragraph 5 almost means_________. A. took the last chance B. did the worst thing C. had difficulty D. tried their best Question 41: Which of the following statements is TRUE about the eruption of Mt. Tambora? A. The cooler temperature caused severe crop failure. B. It affected the climates of several countries in Asia and Africa. C. It was impossible to measure it on the Volcanic Explosivity Index. D. The volcanic cloud of ash only reached the southern hemisphere. Question 42: Which of the following statements is NOT true about the eruption of Mt. Tambora? A. The damage was limited to Indonesia and the surrounding area. B. The eruption of Tambora was the most powerful in history. C. Many people died because they didn’t have enough food to eat. D. It was very cold in the summer of 1816. Trang 3/4 - Mã đề thi 024
- Question 43: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. The volcanoes can erupt at anytime and anywhere. B. The survival of the human race is not guaranteed. C. Manmade climate change is still the most dangerous threat. D. Volcanic eruptions always result in a mass extinction. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 44: She phoned him early in the morning. She didn’t want him to forget to bring along the document. A. She phoned him early in the morning though she didn’t want him to forget to bring along the document. B. She phoned him early in the morning so that she wanted him to bring along the document. C. She phoned him early in the morning lest he would forget to bring along the document. D. She phoned him early in the morning when she didn’t want him to bring along the document. Question 45: My personal opinion doesn’t really matter. We need to decide for the good of everyone. A. We need to decide for the good of everyone, so my personal opinion doesn’t really matter. B. Deciding for the good of everyone makes our personal opinion not really matter at all. C. Though my personal opinion really matters, we need to decide for the good of everyone. D. If my personal opinion doesn’t really matter, we need to decide for the good of everyone. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50. It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree sending out a distress signal. But a group of scientists has heard the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are drawn to them like vulture to a dying animal. Researchers with the US Department of Agriculture’s Forest Service fastened sensors to the bark of drought-stricken trees clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the scientists, most parched trees transmit their plight in the 50-hertz to 50-kilohertz range. (The unaided human ear can detect no more than 20 kilohertz). Red oak, maple, white pine, and birch all make slightly different sounds in the form of vibrations at the surface of the wood. The scientists think that the vibrations are created when the water columns inside tubes that run along the length of the tree break, a result of too little water following through them. These fractured columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because some insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the trees' vibration and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived of water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. “Water-stressed trees also smell differently from other trees, and they experience thermal changes, so insects could be responding to something other than sound”, one scientist said. Question 46: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? A. the vibrations produced by insects B. the sound made by trees C. the mission of the U.S Forest Service D. the effect of insects on trees. Question 47: The word “them” in the first paragraph refers to_________. A. insects B. trees C. scientists D. vultures Question 48: The word “parched” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________. A. dehydrated B. burned C. recovered D. damaged Question 49: All the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened trees EXCEPT_________. A. smells B. thermal changes C. sounds D. changes in colours Question 50: Which of the following could be considered a cause of the trees’ distress signals? A. attacks by insects B. torn root C. experiments by scientist D. lack of water ----------- THE END ---------- Trang 4/4 - Mã đề thi 024
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