Đề thi thử THPT QG môn tiếng Anh năm 2019 - THPT DTNT Tỉnh Phú Yên

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi thử THPT QG môn tiếng Anh năm 2019 - THPT DTNT Tỉnh Phú Yên

SỞ GD DT PHÚ YÊN KỲ THI THỬ TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA TRƯỜNG PT DTNT TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2018-2019 ĐỀ MINH HỌA Môn: TIẾNG ANH (Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. town B. snow C. now D. how Question 2: A. works B. shops C. shifts D. pens Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. butterfly B. forester C. emotion D. atmosphere Question 4: A. atmosphere B. compulsory C. technology D. intelligent Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the exam. A B C D Question 6: I managed to arrive at the meeting on time in spite of the traffic was bad traffic. A B C D Question 7: He is most handsome man that I have ever met. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: I ________ a terrible accident while I _________ on the beach. A. was seeing / was walking B. was seeing / walked C. saw/ was walking D. see / am walking Question 9: Many people raise children in ________ one-parent family. A. a B. an C. the D. some Question 10: The more paper we save, _________preserved. A. the much wood pulp is B. the more wood pulp is C. much wood pulp is D. more is wood pulp Question 11: If I ________ it was a formal party, I ________ jeans and a jumper. A. knew – wouldn’t have worn B. knew – wouldn’t wear C. had known – wouldn’t wear D. had known – wouldn’t have worn Question 12: The state school system ________ for by the state. A. is payed B. is paying C. is paid D. pays Question 13: I always try to help ________ household chores when I have free time. A. in B. with C. at D. of Question 14: Several toxic gases are very ________ to our health. A. good B. useful C. careful D. harmful Question 15: The government has succeeded in reducing the level of ________to only 7%. A. unemployment B. employment C. unemployed D. employer Question 16 People sometimes ________ not only through words but also through body language. A. say B. exchange C. communicate D. talk Question 17: My friend often shows her ________ whenever I have troubles. A. sympathy B. sympathize C. sympathetic D. sympathetically Question 18: To save energy, we should remember to ________ the lights before going out. A. turn on B. turn off C. turn up D. turn down Question 19: The stranger came _________ me and asked, "Is there a post office near here?" A. on to B. away from C. out of D. up to Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: After the party at Mary’s house, Tom and Mary were talking about it. 1
Tom: “_________” Mary: “Thanks for your compliment. Good night!” A. You are a good cooker. Good night! B. Long time no see. Good night! C. You are a good cook. Good night! D. Many happy returns. Good night! Question 21: David and Linda are talking about the movie. David: “Did you enjoy the movie yesterday?” Linda: “_________” A. No, I dislike moving. B. Yes, it is warmer than today. C. Certainly. I’d be glad to. D. Not really. I couldn’t follow the story. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures. A. respected B. same C. adopted D. various Question 23: The teacher made all of us repeat our exercises because there were so many mistakes in them. A. go over B. work out C. look at D. do over Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus. A. small quantity B. large quantity C. excess D. sufficiency Question 25: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans. A. married B. single C. divorced D. separated Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in the meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: “Would you like to come to my birthday party, Mary?” said Mike. A. Mike didn’t know that Mary had come to his birthday party. B. Mike was told to come to Mary’s birthday party. C. Mike invited Mary to come to his birthday party. D. Mike asked Mary if she didn’t like to come to his birthday party. Question 27: While I strongly disapproved of your behavior, I will help you this time. A. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time. B. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time. C. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time. D. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time. Question 28: She started working as a teacher of English ten years ago. A. She has worked with a teacher of English for ten years. B. She had worked with a teacher of English for ten years. C. She has been working as a teacher of English for ten years. D. She had been working as a teacher of English for ten years. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot. A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot. B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, bothered me a lot. C. The student next to me kept chewing gum, bothering me a lot. D. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot. Question 30: I have painted my bedroom wall three times. I can still see the old colour underneath. . A. The original colour of my bedroom wall is still visible despite three times of painting. B. Can you see the first colour of the bedroom wall after I painted it the third time? C. The original colour of my bedroom wall is invisible after I painted it the third time. D. Three times of painting makes my bedroom wall come back to its colour underneath. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. 2
In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (31) ________ end to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year’s consumption would stretch to the moon and back. One point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year at a(n) (32) ________ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more money on television advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal. (33) ________ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear much healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, lovely - you now have vitamin- fortified sugar! Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (34) ________ sugar appears on the ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel. There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made (35) ________ whole grains and are sugar-free. From “Foods That Burn Fat, Foods That Turn to Fat” by Tom Ventulo Question 31: A. to lay B. laying C. lay D. laid Question 32: A. charge B. average C. cost D. expense Question 33: A. Most B. Mostly C. Almost D. Furthermost Question 34: A. tall B. large C. high D. many Question 35: A. by B. from C. at D. in Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot. Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other Systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings. (Source: TOEFL Reading) Question 36: Which of the following best summarizes this passage? A. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication. B. Everybody uses only one form of communication. C. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners. D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest. Question 37: The word "these" in paragraph1 refers to A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute C. thoughts and feelings D. sign language motions Question 38: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT A. there are many forms of communication in existence today B. verbalization is the most common form of communication C. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language Question 39: Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people? A. Picture signs B. Braille C. Body language D. Signal flags Question 40: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here? A. 5 B. 7 C. 10 D. 11 Question 41: The word "wink" in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as A. close one eye briefly B. close two eyes briefly C. nob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side Question 42: Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for 3
A. spelling B. ideas C. whole words D. expressions Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life. Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers. In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee. (Source: TOEFL Reading) Question 43. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work A. as a researcher B. at college C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer Question 44. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University? A. oceanography B. zoology C. literature D. history Question 45. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45 Question 46. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind A. was outdated B. became more popular than her other books C. was praised by critics D. was sold many copies Question 47. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us? A letters from scientists B. a research expedition C. talks with experts D. printed matter Question 48. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea Around Us? A. highly technical B. poetic C. fascinating D. well-researched Question 49. The word “reckless” in line 11 is closest in meaning to A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible Question 50. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food B. a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides D. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry KEY: 1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. C 21. D 22. D 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. A 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. A 42. A 43. D 44. B 45. C 46. D 47. B 48. A 49. D 50. C 4