Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2024 - Trường THCS Văn Phương, Nho Quan

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2024 - Trường THCS Văn Phương, Nho Quan

ỦY BAN NHÂN DÂN HUYỆN NHO QUAN MA TRẬN ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 TRƯỜNG THCS VĂN PHƯƠNG THPT Năm học 2025 - 2026 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút Mức độ TT nhận Tổng thức Thôn Vận Nội Nhận Vận g dụng dung biết dụng hiểu cao Thời Thời Thời Thời Thời Tỉ lệ gian Tỉ lệ gian Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ gian Tỉ lệ gian gian (%) (phút (%) (phút (%) (%) (phút (%) (phút (phút) ) ) ) ) 1 Phon 3 2 2 1 10 3 etics 2 Lexic 0 0 4 5 4 5 2 3 20 13 o 3 Gra mma 3 3 3 4 3 4 1 2 20 13 r 4 Read ing comp 4 4 5 5 4 5 2 3 30 17 rehe nsion 5 Writi 0 0 1 1 4 6 5 7 20 14 ng Tổng 20 9 30 16 30 20 20 15 100 60 Tỉ lệ 20 30 30 20 (%) Tỉ lệ chun 50 50 g (%)
ỦY BAN NHÂN DÂN HUYỆN NHO QUAN BẢNG NĂNG LỰC VÀ CẤP ĐỘ TƯ DUY TRƯỜNG THCS VĂN PHƯƠNG ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT Năm học 2025 - 2026 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Cấp độ tư duy Năng lực Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao Ngữ Âm 3 câu 2 câu (1, 3, 5) (2, 4) Từ vựng 4 câu 2 câu 4 câu (6, 11, 14, 15) (10, 13) (7, 8, 9, 12) Ngữ Pháp 1 câu 3 câu 3 câu 3 câu (16, 17, 19) (18, 20, 22) (21, 23, 25) (24) 4 câu 5 câu 2 câu 4 câu Đọc hiểu (27, 28, 38, (26, 29, 31, 36, (34, 35) (30, 32, 33, 40) 39) 37) 1 câu 4 câu 5 câu Viết (43) (42, 45, 48, 44) (41, 46, 47, 49,50) Tổng số câu hỏi theo cấp 10 15 15 độ tư duy 10
Tỉ lệ theo 20 mức độ tư 20 30 30 duy ỦY BAN NHÂN DÂN HUYỆN NHO QUAN BẢNG ĐẶC TẢ TRƯỜNG THCS VĂN PHƯƠNG ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT Năm học 2025 - 2026 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Số câu Nội dung Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Nâng cao Tổng Dạng bài kiếnthức PART A: 1,0 điểm 5 3 2 0 0 PHONETIC (10%) Cách phát âm 1 1 đuôi s Cách phát âm của phụ âm 1 1 ‘ch’ Cách phát âm 1 I. Phát âm 1 của nguyên (0.6 điểm) âm ‘a’ Trọng âm từ 1 1 có 2 âm tiết Trọng âm từ 1 II. Trọng âm 1 có đuôi (0.4 điểm) tion,ical, ic,
ese PART B:10 4 4 2 2,0 điểm LEXICO (20%) Word form 2 1 I. Chọn đáp Word choice 2 2 1 2 án đúng nhất Phrasal verb 1 2 (2.0 điểm) Collocation 1 1 Từ vựng theo các chủ điểm đã học: -Our 5 community - Our heritage - Our world - Our future PART B: 2,0 điểm 10 3 3 3 1 GRAMMAR (20%) Chọn đáp - Thì động từ 1 án đúng 1 (HTHT/QKT nhất D) 1st 1 (2,0 điểm) conditional Cấu trúc 1 sentence modal verd - Dạng động 1 1 từ (V+V- ing/to V) Câu gián tiếp 1 1 (Statement) - Đại từ quan 1 hệ (who/ 1 which làm chủ ngữ) - Câu so sánh 1 1 hơn 1 - Giới từ (nơi 1 chốn in/on/at)/ lượng từ.
- Liên từ phụ 1 thuộc (mệnh đề nhượng 1 bộ, nguyên nhân, kết quả) Chức năng - Đáp lời lời 1 1 ngôn ngữ xin lỗi 2 - Đáp lời đề nghị PART C: 3 5 4 2 3,0 điểm 15 READING 30% Mạo từ 1 1 I. (1.0 điểm) Từ vựng theo 1 Cloze test (3 1 ngữ cảnh câu) - Giới từ 1 - 1 Advertiseme - câu biển 1 1 nt hình ảnh - Announceme nt 2 - Instruction - Sign, poster, … Đọc biển hiệu (2 câu) Câu hỏi tìm 1 II. Reading 1 tiêu đề comprehensi Câu hỏi tìm 2 on ( 5câu) 2 kiếm thông Passage/ tin chi tiết Article… Câu hỏi tìm 1 1 (Lower level) mối liên hệ Câu hỏi từ 1 1 vựng Reading 1 Câu hỏi tìm 1 comprehensi tiêu đề
on ( 5câu) Passage/ 2 Câu hỏi tìm 2 Article… kiếm thông (Higher tin chi tiết level) 1 Câu hỏi tìm 1 mối liên hệ Câu hỏi từ 1 vựng 1 PART D: 1 4 5 2,0 điểm 10 WRITING 20% - Câu ước 1 I. Viết lại 1 muốn (Hiện câu tại) - Các cấu trúc 1 ((4 câu) ngữ pháp khác 1 ( HTHT ↔ QKĐ/ Used to/ - Câu gián 1 1 tiếp (Yes/No questions) Câu điều kiện 1 1 1 Combining - Mệnh đề 1 sentences quan hệ (4 câu) (MĐQH xác định- trừ 1 That- chỉ người và vật làm CN trong câu). - Mệnh đề 1 nhượng bộ, 1 nguyên nhân, kết quả. 1 - Kết hợp thì 1
động từ (HTHT, QKĐ, QKTD) - Câu so sánh 1 1 hơn. Arranging - Sắp xếp câu 2 thành 1 đoạn (2 câu) văn và 1 bức thư (Mỗi bài 2 khoảng 5-6 câu, sử dụng các từ liên kết ở đầu một số câu.) TỔNG 10 câu 15 câu 15 câu 10 câu 50 câu 2 điểm 3 điểm 3điểm 2.0 điểm 10 điểm 20% 30% 30% 20% 100%
ỦY BAN NHÂN DÂN HUYỆN NHO QUAN ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT TRƯỜNG THCS VĂN PHƯƠNG Năm học 2025 - 2026 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Đề thi gồm có 06 trang) PART A: PHONETICS Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. pens B. books C. schools D. tables Question 2. A. sugar B. bus C. put D. pull Question 3. A. school B. teacher C. thatched D. watch Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 4. A. appoint B. frequent C. interest D. finish Question 5. A. conclusion B. historic C. typical D. occasion PART B: VOCABULARY Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6. There is a big __________ site near my house, so it's very noisy.. A. construction B. construct C. constructing D. constructed Question 7. Quang Hai is one of the most ________ football players in our countries. A. succeed B. successfully C. successful D. success Question 8. The ________ delivers packages promptly, providing convenient and efficient service to customers. A. police officer B. delivery person C. firefighter D. garbage collector Question 9. She always _____ her responsibilities seriously. A. takes B. runs C. catches D. brings Question 10. Do not forget to eat breakfast and choose a ______ meal with more protein. A. fast B. delicious C. healthy D. quick Question 11. Adolescents should start a healthy lifestyle by exercising ________. A. carefully B. regularly C. slowly D. quickly Question 12. Maybe we are worried about something, so our ________ keeps wandering over to a particular problem. A. brain B. head C. feeling D. mind Question 13. I hope they take her age into when they judge her work A. account B. . note C. thinking D. attention Question 14. What kind of career _________ do you think is most suitable for you when you’ve just graduated from college? A. way B. ladder C. path D. break
Question 15. I enjoy _______ vintage stores, searching for hidden gems and unique items to add to my collection. . A. finding out B. looking around C. going back D. going out PART C: GRAMMAR Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 16. London ………… a lot since we first came to live here. A. changed B.changes C. has changed D. had changed Question 17. I suggest ……put garbage bins around the schoolyard to prevent lazy students from throwing trash and keep the schoolyard clean A. put B. to put C. putting D. puts Question 18. __________ the danger, many people wanted to take part in the excursion. A. Although B. Despite C. Because D. Because of Question 19. I don't like cities. I'd much prefer to live ________ the countryside. A. at B. on C. from D. in Question 20. Ninh Binh city is much______it was 35 years ago. A. more beautiful as B. more beautiful than C. as beautiful as D. beautiful than Question 21. People said that typhoon Yagi, the most powerful storm, ______many homes and property across the north of our country. A. would destroyed B. destroyed C. destroys D. destroy Question 22. The old building ________ is in front of my house fell down. A. whom B. who C. whose D. which Question 23. If you train harder in three months, you _______ run a marathon. A. must B. might not C. can D. should not Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 24. Mary: “I really apologize for my mistake!” Tom: “………………” A. It’s nothing too serious B. It’s your opinion C. What a pity D that’s good idea Question 25. “Would you mind repairing my computer!” “_________.” A. Yes, I’m working, too. B Yes, of course. I’ll do it now. C. Thank you. I’m pleased. D. No, I wouldn’t be working. PART D: READING Read the following announcements and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each gap. Advertisement 1: Share Your Travel Adventures Title: Share Your Travel Stories! Have you visited (26) __________ amazing place recently? Tell us about your adventures and what you have discovered! Whether you have explored (27) __________ new city or enjoyed fun activity, we want to hear from you. Join us at [TravelStoriesHub.com] and (28) __________ your photos and tips. Inspire others with your journey and help them find new places to explore!
Question 26 A. a B. the C. an D. no article Question 27. A. at B. in C. on D. of Question 28. A. do B. bring C. make D. share Look at the sign or the notice. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) for each of the following questions. Question 29. What does the sign say? Choose the best option. A Parking for only 40 cars B. Speed limit for cars under 40 tons C. Speed limit – can’t drive over 40 km per hour D. Speed limit for trucks under 40 tons Question 30. What does the sign say? Choose the best option. A. You shouldn’t make noise. B. You have to talk loud. C. You ought to talk. D. You must talk loud. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Alfred Bernhard Nobel, a Swedish inventor and philanthropist, left most of his vast fortune in trust as a fund from which annual prize could be awarded to individuals and organizations that had achieved the greatest benefit to humanity in a particular year. Originally, there were six classifications for outstanding contributions designated in Nobel’s will including chemistry, physics or medicine, literature, and international peace. The prizes are administered by the Nobel Foundation in Stockholm. In 1969, a prize for economics endowed by the Central Bank of Sweden was added. Candidates for the prizes must be nominated in writing by a qualified authority in the field of competition Recipients in physics, chemistry, and economics are selected by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences; in physiology or medicine by the Caroline Institute; in literature by the Swedish Academy; and in peace by the Norwegian Nobel committee appointed by Norway’s parliament. The prizes are usually presented in Stockholm on December 10, with the King of Sweden officiating, an appropriate tribute to Alfred Nobel on the anniversary of his death. Each one includes a gold medal, a diploma, and a cash award of about one million dollars. 31. What can be the best title for the passage? A. Alfred Bernhard Nobel B. The Nobel Prizes C. Great contributions to mankind D. Swedish philanthropy 32. Why were the prizes named for Alfred Bernhard Nobel? A. He left money in his will to establish a fund for the prizes. B. He won the first Nobel Prize for his work in philanthropy. C. He is now living in Sweden. D. He serves as chairman of the committee to choose the recipients of the prizes. 33. How often are the Nobel Prizes awarded? A. Five times a year B. Once every two years C. Twice a year D. Once a year 34. The underlined word “one” in paragraph 2 refers to_________. A. tribute B. anniversary C. candidate D. prize 35. The underlined word “outstanding” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. recent C. established B. unusual D. exceptional Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Ninh Binh is well-known for its stunning natural beauty and rich historical significance, making it a must-visit destination in Vietnam. One of the most famous attractions is the Trang An Landscape Complex, a UNESCO World Heritage site celebrated for its breathtaking caves, majestic mountains, and winding rivers. Tourists can embark on a serene boat trip through the area, allowing them to fully appreciate the enchanting landscapes that have captivated visitors for generations. Another remarkable spot in Ninh Binh is Tam Coc - Bich Dong, often referred to as "Ha Long Bay on land." This picturesque region features towering limestone mountains that rise dramatically from lush rice fields. A boat trip along the tranquil river offers visitors stunning views and a unique perspective of the area's natural wonders. Cuc Phuong National Park, the first national park in Vietnam, is another highlight of Ninh Binh. Home to a diverse array of flora and fauna, the park provides opportunities for trekking through its rich forests. Visitors can also explore the Endangered Primate Rescue Center, which is dedicated to the conservation of endangered species. In recent years, Ninh Binh has seen significant growth in tourism. The local government is actively promoting the region as an eco-tourism destination, hoping to attract even more tourists to experience the unparalleled beauty and cultural heritage of Ninh Binh. Question 36. What is the best title of this passage? A. How to develop eco-tourism in Ninh Binh? B. Discover the Natural Beauty of Ninh Binh C. A trip to Ninh Binh D. Geological features of wonderful landscapes in Ninh Binh. Question 37. Which of the following is not mentioned as the main attraction of the Trang An Landscape Complex? A. caves B. rice fields C. mountains D. rivers Question 38. What is the focus of tourism development in Ninh Binh? A. Historical sites B. Urban areas C. Eco-tourism D. Industrial growth Question 39. The word ‘its’ in paragraph 3 refers to ____________. A. the rescue center’s B. flora’s C. fauna’s D. the national park’s Question 40. The word “stunning” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to ________. A. breathtaking B. historic C. friendly D. natural PART E: WRITING Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the sentences given. Question 41. “Will you play chess with me tomorrow?”, John asked. A. John asked me if I would played chess with me the next day. B. John asked me if I will play chess with him the next day. C. John asked me if I would play chess with him the following day. D. John ask me if I played chess with him the following day. Question 42. You should wear your coat, or you may catch a cold. A. If you don't wear your coat, you may catch a cold. B. Unless you wear your coat, you may not catch a cold.
C. You may wear a coat if you don't catch a cold. D. You may catch a cold even though you wear your coat. Question 43. I’m sorry that I can’t speak English well. A. I wish I couldn’t speak English well. B. I wish I can speak English well. C. I wish I could speak English well. D. I wish I will speak English well. Question 44. Children often played outdoors with things they found, like stones or feathers. A. Children used to play outdoors with things they found, like stones or feathers. B. Children used to play outdoors with things they find, like stones or feathers. C. Children are used to playing outdoors with things they find, like stones or feathers. D. Children used to playing outdoors with things they found, like stones or feathers. Choose the sentence that best combines each given pair of sentences. Question 45. I saw many houses. They were destroyed by the storm. A. I saw many houses were destroyed by the storm. B. I saw many houses which were destroyed by the storm. C. I saw many houses which destroyed by the storm. D. I saw many houses being destroyed by the storm. Question 46. My mother likes eating fried chicken. It’s very bad for his health. A. My mother like eating fried chicken because it’s very bad for his health. B. My mother like eating fried chicken and it’s very bad for his health. C. My mother like eating fried chicken although it’s very bad for his health. D. My mother like eating fried chicken so it’s very bad for his health. Question 47. My son was doing his homework. At that time my daughter was washing TV. A. While my son was doing his homework, at that time my daughter was washing TV. B. While my son was doing his homework, my daughter was washing TV C. My son was doing his homework,whereas my daughter was washing TV. D. Until my son was doing his homework, my daughter was washing TV. Question 48. It is more difficult to learn to speak English than to learn to write it. A.Learning to speak English is more difficult than to learn to write it. B.Learning to speak English is as difficult as learning to write it. C.Learning to speak English is more difficult than learning to write it. D.Learning to speak English is not so difficult as learning to write it. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/email in each of the following questions. Question 49: a, Dear Linda, I am terribly sorry that I can't spend any time with you during your stay in Ho Chi Minh city and I'm writing to make my apology. b, I have already made some arrangements for your visit and planned to accompany you to Cu Chi Tunnels and the Ben Thanh Market. But this morning my boss assigned me to
take part in one-week training programme in Ha Noi starting on 30th of this July exactly when you arrive in Ho Chi Minh city. c, He offers to take you to some tourist resorts that I have mentioned in my letters. I am sure you will find him an excellent guide for his fluent English and profound knowledge. d, However, I have booked a hotel room for you and have arranged my friend Nam to meet you at the airport. Nam is an English major at Hoa Sen University and he will be on his summer holiday when you are here. e, Yours, Minh f, I sincerely hope that you will kindly accept my apology and that you will have a wonderful stay in Ho Chi Minh city. A - c-b-d-f-e B. a- b-d-c-f-e C. a- f-b-d-c -e D. a- c-b-f-d-e Question 50: a. Firstly, we should clean up all areas regularly. For example, we can organise clean-up activities at weekends. b. There are three things we can do to improve the environment in our school. c. Secondly, we ought to set up more rubbish bins. For instance, we can put more rubbish bins in the school gate, In front of each building, or in the playground. d. In conclusion, we can improve the environment in our school in many ways and even small actions can make a big difference. e. Finally, we should plant more trees. To give an example, we can encourage students to plant trees or flowers in our school because this reduces CO2 and makes the air clean. A. e-a-d-b-c B. e-b-a-d-c C. e-b-a-c-d D. b-a-c-e-d ___THE END__
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TÊN FILE ĐỀ THI: 3_TiengAnh_PG1_TS10D_2024_HDC_DE_SO_9 TỔNG SỐ TRANG (ĐỀ THI VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM BÀI THI ) LÀ: 14 TRANG Họ và tên người ra đề thi: ĐOÀN THỊ HẢI YẾN Đơn vị công tác: Trường THCS Văn Phương Số điện thoại: 0975882190 NGƯỜI RA ĐỀ (ký, ghi rõ họ và tên) NGƯỜI THẨM ĐỊNH VÀ PHẢN BIỆN CỦA TRƯỜNG (ký, ghi rõ họ và tên) Đoàn Thị Hải Yến Nguyễn Thị Hoa XÁC NHẬN CỦA BAN GIÁM HIỆU (Họ và tên, chữ ký, đóng dấu)