Mid - Term 2 test (Có đáp án)

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Mời các bạn cùng tham khảo nội dung đề thi "Mid - Term 2 test" dưới đây để nắm bắt được 50 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm có đáp án môn English, hy vọng đề thi này sẽ giúp các bạn tự tin hơn trong kỳ thi sắp đến.

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Nội dung Text: Mid - Term 2 test (Có đáp án)

MID – TERM II TEST I. PHONETICS Choose the word with the different pronunciation of the underlined part. 1. A. pollute b. psychic c. species d. rapid 2. A. Bear b. beard c. dear d. clear 3. A. walked B. passed C. closed D. released 4. A. tour B. pour C. course D. court 5. A. become B. better C. biscuit D. climb Choose the word with the different stress pattern. 6. A. dolphin B. create C. damage D. flora 7. A. submarine B. entrapment C. destruction D. abandon 8. A. starfish B. cancer C. bottom D. explore 9. A. carnivore B. organism C. imprison D. wilderness 10. A. contamination B. biodiversity C. hydroelectric D. international II. VOCABULARY Choose the word which best fits each gap of the sentence 11. Modern devices have helped scientists carry out research on animals that live under the……… A. River B. sea C. water D. land 12. The garbage on the beach has ……….the sea water. A. Prevented B. preserved C. destroyed D. polluted 13. Whales and dolphins are known as ……..mammals. A. Marine B. submarine C. small D. tiny 14. The local authority should arrest those who use ............... to kill fish. A. Defoliants B. pesticides C. herbicides D. explosives 15. The world cup 2006 was ............... held in Germany in June. A. Specially B. officially C. seriously D. independently 16. New laws have been passed to ............... wildlife in this area. A. Eliminate B. endanger C. conserve D. produce 17. The hills are covered with lush green vegetation. A. Animals B. plants C. land D. parks 18. If only I could ............... the bottom of the sea to see more about sea life. A. Explore B. investigate C. travel D. establish 19. Oil pollution could damage the ............... of the area. A. State B. nature C. economy D. ecology 20. Whaling ............... the whale species. A. EndangersB. cancels C. kills D. maintains
III. GRAMMAR Choose the word which best fits each gap of the sentence: 21. Only if you promise to study hard ............... to help you. A. Will I agree B. agree I C. I agree D. I will agree. 22. A large number of visitor ............... attracted to this National Park in the past years. A. Are B. are being C. will be D. have been 23. It’s a beautiful day ............... to go sailing? A. How about B. would you like C. Do you feel like D. do you like 24. I need some help with the table ............... you lift the other end, please? A. May B. should S. could D. shall 25. Two of the books which Tom lost on the bus ............... returned to the main desk at his room. A. Was B. had C. has D. were 26. They provided ............... and a bed which was very kind. A. Food with me B. me with food C. food to me D. me too 27. There is a law that says that you ............... throw trash on the streets. A. Don’t have B. shouldn’t C. must not D. might not 28. If I ............... the trick with my own eyes, I would never have believed it possible. A. Don’t see B, hadn’t seen C. didn’t see D. haven’t seen 29. Whale hunting is being banned in some countries to prevent the whales from being............... A. Death B. extinct C. extincted D. extinction. 30. On Friday afternoons, the highways ............... people on their way out of the city. A. Are crowded with B. are crowding with C. are being crowd with D. crowded by IV. USE OF ENGLISH 1. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting. 31. (A) If Nick hadn't (B) come along, I (C) don't know what (D) would happen. 32. The dentist (A) said to (B) brush three times a day and (C) don't (D)eat candy. 33. Before the final decision is reached,(A) the various possibilities should (B) probably discussed (C) by (D) the whole team. 34. If we (A) leave now for our trip, we (B) can drive half the distance (C) before we stop (D) having lunch. 35. (A) I've been studying French (B) since (C) I've (D) started high school. 2. Choose the correct sentence with the same meaning as the one in italics. 36. The picnic was cancelled because it rained. A. If it didn’t rain, the picnic wouldn’t be cancelled. B. If it hadn’t rained, the picnic wouldn’t have been cancelled. C. If it didn’t rain, the picnic wouldn’t have been cancelled. D. If it hadn’t rained, the picnic wouldn’t be cancelled. 37. “I think smoking in restaurant should be banned” he says. A. He doesn’t think smoking in restaurant is permitted. B. He doesn’t like smoking in restaurants. C. He advises everybody not to smoke in restaurants. D. He thinks the government should ban smoking in restaurants.
38. The made her hand over her passport. A. She was made to hand over her passport. B. She was made hand over her passport. C. She was handed over to make her passport. D. She was handed over for her passport to make. 39. If I knew his telephone number, I would phone him. A. I didn’t know his telephone number so I couldn’t phone him. B. I don’t know his telephone number. That’s why I can’t phone him. C. Because I don’t know his telephone number, I can phone him. D. I knew his telephone number and I could phone him. 40. The first national park in the world, Yellowstone National Park (YNP) was established in 1872. A. YNP was established in the world’s national park in 1872. B. People established the first national park in the world, YNP, in 1872 C. It was in 1872 that YNP was established as the first park in the world. D. 1872 was the year when the first park in the world was established. V. READING COMPREHENSION 1. Choose the word or phrase which best fits each gap of the passage. Tropical forests have (41) ............... us with very many sorts of plants for food, medicine and industry. They also reduce (42) ............... and droughts, keep water clean and slow down the Greenhouse Effect. However, the tropical forests are being (43) ............... to make rooms for things like farms, ranches, mines and hydroelectric (44)............... About twenty million hectares (45)............... each ear – an area more than twice the size of Austria. 41. A. given B. supplied C. provided D. B&C 42. A. floods B. water C. rain D. pollution. 43. A. destroying B. destroyed C. endangering D. endangered 44. A. power B. station C. current D. are losing 45. A. is lost B. lost C. are lost D. are losing 2. Read the passage and choose the best answer. Since 1961, the World Wildlife fund has rescued over 30 mammals and birds from near extinction. It has supported conservation programs around the world and created 260 national parks on the five continents. One of the World Wildlife fund’s most successful efforts has been the conservation of the polar bears. Their survival was endangered by hunters using rifles, motorboats and aircraft. The World Wildlife fund’s biggest land campaign has been the conservation of the tropical rain forests in order to protect different species of precious plants birds and animals. 46. Where does the World Wildlife fund have its program? A. in 260 national parks B. All over the world C. In the tropical rain forests D. none of the places above. 47. The polar bears became one of the World Wildlife fund’s interests because A. They endangered b=hunters B. they lived in the tropical rain forest. B. They were mammals D. hunters were trying to kill them. 48. The word species refers to A. Groups of animals, plants, birds having some common characteristics. B. Groups of animals living in the tropical rain forests.
C. Precious plants, birds and animals D. mammals and birds. 49. If people stop destroying the tropical rain forest, A. The World Wildlife fund will be most successful B. different species of precious plants, birds and animals will be protected C. different species of precious plants, birds and animals will be endangered D. Different species of precious plants, birds and animals will be in danger of extinction. 50. The world conservation could best be replaced by A. Consideration B. prevention C. preservation D. reservation
KEY MID TERM TEST 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. D 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. D 15. B 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. A 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. C 36. B 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. B 41. D 42. A 43. B 44. D 45. C 46. B 47. D 48. A 49. B 50. C