Practise test english 3

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– PRACTICE TEST 1 – 34. e. Choice e is the only one that eliminates the corrects the error, but it is not as clear and concise as choice e. repetition of the words foreign and policy. It is 7. d. Choice a is a run-on sentence. Choice b uses the clearest and most concise choice. 35. b. The change in verb tense is necessary to main- illogical and ungrammatical sentence struc- ture. Choice c incorrectly uses the wordy tain consistency. Choice a would include a phrase to which. Choice e creates a fragment superﬂuous comma, while choice c would by using a semicolon and is wordy. make the sentence awkward. The phrase sug- 8. e. The problem is incorrect use of the passive gested in choice d would need commas voice. Notice how choice e is more direct and around it, and choice e would retain the incor- concise than the other four versions. While rect verb form. choice c also uses the active voice, its word order changes the meaning of the sentence. Section 3: Multiple Choice 9. e. The problem is a misplaced modiﬁer—the 1. c. Choice c is the only one that is not a run-on hotels aren’t planning the vacation. Choice e is sentence. All of the others use a comma or no the clearest way to correctly express the idea of punctuation mark to separate two independ- the sentence. Choices b and d include, with a ent clauses. 2. d. Only choice d corrects the faulty slight variation, the original error, and choice d also uses the wrong verb tense. comparison—domesticated hounds are fatter 10. e. Choice e is the most clear and concise. than they were 50 years ago, not fatter than 50 Choices a and c shift from the impersonal years ago. 3. a. Choices b, c, and d use the wrong conjunc- pronoun one to the personal you. Choices b and d correct that error, but retain the wordy tions (and, as a result, in spite of the fact) to phrase you should probably. Choice d also express the relationship between the two changes the wording and eliminates the semi- phrases. The ﬁrst phrase depends on, or is colon, creating a long and confusing sentence subordinate to, the second, making because unbroken by punctuation. the correct word. Choice e also uses the right 11. a. Choice b incorrectly uses the passive voice to conjunction, but it incorrectly uses the present create an awkward construction. Choice c tense verb believes. 4. e. As the saying goes is a phrase that introduces needs commas to separate the interrupter phrase which the jury seemed interested in. the clause better late than never. Introductory Choice c is also wordy. Choice d tightens up words and phrases should always end with a the language of the sentence, but loses the comma. 5. c. Choice c is the only one that’s a complete sen- meaning. In choice e, the interrupter phrase, which modiﬁes the noun evidence, is tence. All of the other choices are sentence misplaced. fragments. 12. b. 6. e. Choices a and c have misplaced modiﬁers; Bob The comma after years is superﬂuous in choices a and d. Choice d also uses the wrong Geldof was not held in 1984. Choice b corrects verb tense. The introductory phrase once they the error but introduces a new one. The are established refers to perennials, so choice c, meaning of the sentence is lost, because the which uses the implied subject you (you dig concert wasn’t the ﬁrst 1984 one. Choice d also them up and divide them) is confusing. You 100
– PRACTICE TEST 1 – aren’t what’s established. Choice e also uses the 14. c. Choices a, b, and d include a faulty compari- wrong verb tense; the future progressive tense son; something can’t be more perfect than is needed rather than the simple present. something else—it’s either perfect, or it’s not. 13. b. Choice b is the only one that corrects the Choices c and e correct the error, but choice e faulty comparison and clears up the ambigu- has a superﬂuous comma after display. ous pronoun. What does they refer to? It’s sup- posed to refer to the restaurant, but in the original sentence, as well as in choices c, d, and e, it refers to the take-out dinners. Com- paring dinners to a restaurant is not the intended meaning. 101
CHAPTER 5 Practice Test 2 S ection 1 Time: 25 minutes Essay Directions: In the essay, you will demonstrate how well you develop and present ideas. Your goal is to clearly use language, ﬁrmly take a point of view, and logically advance your argument. You must use only the space provided, which will be adequate if you pay attention to handwriting size and margins. Avoid leaving extra space, such as through double-spacing or leaving a blank line between paragraphs. Write legibly so the scorers of your essay can understand what you have written. You may use your test booklet to take notes and organize your thoughts, but only what is written on the answer sheet will be scored. There are 25 minutes in which to write your essay. Carefully read the prompt and your assignment. Respond only to the assignment—off-topic essays will receive a zero. 103
– PRACTICE TEST 2 – Money never made a man happy yet, nor will it. —Benjamin Franklin But for money and the need of it, there would not be half the friendship in the world. It is powerful for good if divinely used. Give it plenty of air and it is sweet as the hawthorne; shut it up and it cankers and breeds worms. —George MacDonald Assignment: What is your view on the uses of money? Choose the quote you disagree with most strongly, and write an essay explaining your position. Support that position with evidence and examples from literature, the arts, his- tory, current events, politics, science and technology, and/or from personal experiences or observations. 104
– PRACTICE TEST 2 – 105