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- Time allowed 90 ms Your marks …………… I. Pick out the word whose stress is put differently from the others in A, B, C or D 1. A. attendance B. applicant C. position D. remove 2. A. reliable B. industrial C. encourage D. restaurant 3. A. reflect B. therefore C. primate D. militarize 4. A. minority B. admiration C. supportive D. facilitate 5. A. d iscrimination B. nevertheless C. photosensitive D. responsibility II. Choose the best option in A, B, C or D. 6. If you want to see the dentist, it is best to make_______ with him. A. a meeting B. an appointment C. a date D. a phone 7. She said if she won the lottery, she would travel_______ the world. A. over B. around C. in D. throughout 8. A few years after you buy it, a house is usually_______ much more than it originally cost you. A. expensive B. worth C. worthy D. valueless 9. Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” - Susan: “_______.” A. I feel very bored B. That would be great C. You’re welcome D. I don’t agree, I’m afraid 10. You will have to_______ your holiday if you are too ill to travel. A. call off B. cut down C. back out D. put aside 11. I am afraid_______ is hard to find. A. employee B. employment C. employing D. employer 12. There are many different ways of_______ food from going bad. A. reserving B. conserving C. preserving D. preventing 13. In recent years, more and more_______ for things with credit card. A. pay B. paid C. are paying D. have been paying 14. Which negative prefix belongs to the adjective ‘substantial’? A. dis B. un C. in D. mis 15. Take this road and you will_______ at the hotel in five minutes. A. come B. arrive C. reach D. get 16. By the time Jack arrived to help, we_______ moving everything. A. would finish B. had finished C. finished D. would have finished 17. _______ the phone rang later that night did I remember the appointment. A. No sooner B. Not until C. Only D. Just before 18. As soon as I graduate, I_______ to my hometown to work. A. return B. will return C. will have returned D. am going to return 19. “What kind of job would you like?” - “_______” . A. Is there a good chance of promotion? B. I’m good at computing C. Anytime after next week D. Anything to do with computers 20. While politicians argue about nuclear weapons, ordinary people are simply concerned_______ staying alive. A. of B. with C. for D. about 21. If I come and see the film with you on Saturday, I_______ it six times. A. will see B. will be seeing C. have seen D. will have seen 22. He offered me_______. I accepted and thanked him. A. a coffee cup B. a glass of the coffee C. a cup of coffee D. one cup with coffee 23. Diseased cells must be killed while their neighbors are left_______. A. unharmed B. harmful C. harmless D. harmfully 24. They have considered all the fifty applications; _______ seems suitable for the position. A. none of them B. none of whom C. none of these D. none of which 25. “I hope I haven’t hurt his feelings!”-“No , don’t worry. He is so _______ t hat he probably thought you were talking about someone else. A. absent-minded B. kind-hearted C. thick-skinned D. open-minded III. Read the passage carefully then circle the best option in A, B, C or D. 1 Ta Van Nam – English Diagnostic Test 4– doc.\ - The date of the test .… …. 2011
- Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct in the near futur e because they have been 26______ to such low numbers. Approximately 90 percent of Hawaii's plants are found nowhere else in the world but they are 27______ by alien invasive species such as feral goats, pigs, rodents and non- 28______ plants. The Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Group is striving to 29______ the extinction of the 182 rare Hawaiian p lants with fewer than 50 individuals remaining in the 30______. Since 1990, 31______ a result of their 'Plant Extinction Prevention Program', sixteen species have been brought into 32______ and three species have been reintroduced. Invasive weeds have been removed in key areas and fencing put up in order to 33______ plants in the wild. In the future, the Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Program aims 34______ collecting genetic material from the remaining plants in the wild for storage as a safety net for the future. They also aim to manage wild populations and where possible reintroduce species into 35______. 26. A. d isappeared B. reduced C. increased D. developed 27. A. guarded B. invested C. conserved D. threatened 28. A. nation B. native C. national D. nationally 29. A. prevent B. encourage C. stimulate D. influence 30. A. wild B. atmosphere C. hole D. sky 31. A. so B. due C. as D. but 32. A. contamination B. production C. cultivation D. generation 33. A. derive B. vary C. remain D. protect 34. A. at B. for C. with D. on 35. A. shelters B. reserves C. gardens D. halls IV. Read the following underlined words or phrases carefully and then choose one that is not standard in English. 36. Having worked hard all day, Tim wanted to go out for his dinner A B C D 37. There is no limit to the diversity to be finding in the cultures o f people throughout the world. A B C D 38. The house painted more than ten years ago, but I am not going to have it done again for a while. A B C D 39. The last payment shouldn’t be made u ntil all the work has been completed and carefully check. A B C D 40. Instead of calling off the meeting, may be, we can just put it off u ntil next week. A B C D V. Read the passage carefully then circle the best answer in A, B, C or D. Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the s ubstance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it is hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months.Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). So me people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in silicates from their diets. Some of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, and grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective. 41. The topic of this passage is A. reactions to foods B. food and nutrition C. infants and allergies D. a good diet 2 Ta Van Nam – English Diagnostic Test 4– doc.\ - The date of the test .… …. 2011
- 42. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to A. the vast number of different foods we eat B. lack of a proper treatment plan C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies 43. The word "symptoms" in line 6 is closest in meaning to A. indications B. diet C. diagnosis D. prescriptions 44. The phrase "set off" in lines 10 is closest in meaning to A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered 45. What can be inferred about babies from this passage? A. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants. B. They can eat almost anything. C. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early. D. They gain little benefit from being breast fed. 46. The word "hyperactive" in line 14 is closest in meaning to A. overly active B. unusually low activity C. excited D. inquisitive 47. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with the infant's ______ A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism C. underdeveloped intestinal tract D. inability to swallow solid foods 48. The word "these" in line 15 refers to A. food additives B. foods high in silicates C. innutritious foods D. food colorings 49. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage? A. Eating more ripe bananas B. Avoiding all Oriental foods C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet 50. According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective B. available in book form C. beneficial for hyperactive children D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives VI. Choose the best answer in A, B, C or D, using the original ones. 51. “Never borrow money from your friends,” my father said. A. My father told me never to borrow money from my friends. B. My father asked me to borrow money from my friends. C. My father told me not to borrow money from my friends. D. My father said to me not to borrow money from my friends. 52. If I could get a job, life here would be perfect. A. If only I could get a job, life here would be perfect. B. Only if I could get a job, would life here be perfect. C. I wished I could get a job, life here would be perfect. D. Even if I got a job, life here would be perfect. 53. He wants some one to make her a new dress. A. He wants to have a new dress made. B. She wants to have a new dress to be made. C. She wants a new dress to be made. D. She wants to have a new dress made. 54. Tom prefers reading a book to watching TV. A. Tom would rather read a book rather than watch TV. B. Tom would prefer to read a book than watch TV. C. Tom would rather read a book than watch TV. D. Tom would sooner to read a book than watch TV. 55. People rumored that he had died in battle. A. It was rumored for him to have died in battle. B. He was rumored to have died in battle. C. He was rumored to be died in battle. D. It was rumored that he has d ied in battle. 56. I am only interested in why he did it. A. The reason why he did it is my interest. B. I am interested in the reason why he did it. 3 Ta Van Nam – English Diagnostic Test 4– doc.\ - The date of the test .… …. 2011
- C. The only thing I am interested in is why he did it. D. I am interested in the only thing is why he did it. 57. I do not agree with prohibiting smoking in bars. A. I am not in favor to prohibiting smoking in bars. B. I am not in favor of prohibiting smoking in bars. C. I am not in favor with prohibiting smoking in bars. D. I am not on favor of prohibiting smoking in bars. 58. If it had not been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work. A. He was careless because we had not finished the work. B. If he was careful, we would finish the work. C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work. D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work. 59. She reminded her daughter of their table manners. A. She wanted her daughter to be more polite while eating. B. She wanted her daughter to leave the dinner table. C. She wanted her daughter to eat a little more slowly. D. She wanted her daughter to remember all mealtime. 60. The teacher gave us permission to leave the room. A. “You must leave the room”, the teacher told us. B. “You o ught to leave the room”, the teacher told us. C. “I g ive you permission to leave the room”, the teacher told us. D. “You may leave the room,” the teacher told us. VII. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. 61. We got on well when we shared a flat,_______. A. in spite of the difference in our old. B. despite her being much older than me . C. in spite the fact that I was much older than her. D. although the difference in our age. 62. _______ people from other cities are coming here to find work . A. Large numbers of B. A large number C. Large amounts of D. A large amount of 63. Never before_______ as accelerated as they are now during the technological age. A. historical changes have been B. have been historical changes C. have historical changes been D. historical have changes been 64. _______, he would have learned how to read. A. If he has been able to go to school as a child B. If he could go to school as a child C. Were he able to go to school as a child D. Had he been able to go to school as a child 65. Michael’s score on the test is the highest in the class; _______. A. must had to study hard last night B. he must study hard last night C. he should have studied hard lat night D. he must have studied hard last night VIII. Read the passages carefully and then circle the best option in A, B, C or D. Along 66_______ jogging and swimming, cycling is one of the best all-round forms of exercise. It can help to increase your strength and energy, giving you more 67_______ muscles and stronger heart. But increasing your strength is not the only advantage of cycling. Because you are not 68_______ the weight of your body o n your feet. It is a good form of exercise for people with painful feet or backs. However, with all forms of exercise, it is important to 69_______ slowly and build up gently. Doing too much too quickly can damage muscles that are not 70_______ to working. If you have any doubts about taking 71_______ cycling for health reasons, talk to your doctor and ask his or her advice. Ideally, you should be cycling at 72_______ two or three times a week. For the exercise to be doing you 73_______ , you should get a little out of breath. Do not worry that if you begin to lose your breath, it could be dangerous and there must be something wrong with your heart. This is simply not true; shortness o f breath 74_______ that the exercise is having the right effect. However, if you find you are in pain, 75_______ you should stop and take a rest. 66. A. on B. at C. by D. with 67. A. confident B. efficient C. better D. reliable 68. A. bringing B. carrying C. lifting D. arising 69. A. make B. take C. start D. do 4 Ta Van Nam – English Diagnostic Test 4– doc.\ - The date of the test .… …. 2011
- 70. A. have B. ought C. used D. made 71. A. in B. up C. out D. on 72. A. best B. all C. least D. times 73. A. good B. well C. nice D. fine 74. A. tells B. shows C. points D. appears 75. A. then B. though C. even D. yet IX. Choose the best sentence that best fits the suggested words. 76. We/ never/ forget/ event. A. Never will we forget this event. B. Never have we forgot this event. C. We never forget this event. D. We will have never forgot this event. 77. Research/ show/ female/ good/ listen/ male. A. A research shows that female is better at listening than male. B. The research shows that females are better at listening than males. C. The research has shown that females are good at listening than males. D. The research showed that female is better at listening than male. 78. They/ be/ students/ fail/ examinations. A. They are students who failed their examinations. B. They are students who had failed their examinations. C. They are students who have failed t heir examinations. D. They are students who will be failed their examinations. 79. People/ have / difficult/ predict/ future. A. People have always had difficulty to predict the future. B. People always have difficult predicting the future. C. People have always had difficulty in predict future. D. People always had difficulty predicting the future. 80. Nobody/ allow/ see him/ any time/ meeting. A. Nobody was allowed seeing him at any time during the meeting. B. Nobody was allowed to see him any time during the meeting. C. Nobody allowed seeing him at any time during the meeting. D. Nobody was allowed to see him at any t ime during the meeting. The end 5 Ta Van Nam – English Diagnostic Test 4– doc.\ - The date of the test .… …. 2011
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