Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Lê Đình Dương, Điện Bàn

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Mời các bạn học sinh và quý thầy cô cùng tham khảo “Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Lê Đình Dương, Điện Bàn” để giúp học sinh hệ thống kiến thức đã học cũng như có cơ hội đánh giá lại năng lực của mình trước kì thi sắp tới và giúp giáo viên trau dồi kinh nghiệm ra đề thi.

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PEOPLE’S COMMITTEE OF DIEN BAN TOWN MATRIX FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST -ENGLISH 7 LE DINH DUONG SECONDARY SCHOOL School year: 2024-2025 PARTS No. of Ma Task types Re Com High App Ques rk TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL 5 1,0 - Listen and circle the correct answers 0,6 0,4 Relating to the topic of LISTEN Unit 4 or ING Unit 5. (2,0) 5 1,0 - Listen and tick True/Fals e Relating 0,4 0,6 to the topic of Unit 4 or Unit 5. 2 0,4 Indicate 0,4 LANGU the word AGE whose COMPO underline NENT d part is (2,0) pronounc ed differentl y form the others.
The sounds: / t/, /d/ & /id/; /ʃ/ & /ʒ/. MCQs: Circle the best option Vocabul 3 0,6 0,4 0,2 ary: relating to Unit 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 MCQs: Circle the best option Gramm ar: relating 5 1,0 to Unit 0,4 0,6 1, 3, 4, 5, 6. Commu nication: relating to Unit 2, 5 READI 5 1,0 Choose 0,4 0,2 0,4 NG the (2,0) correct answer for each gap in
the passage. Relating to the topic of Unit 3, Unit 4 or Unit 5. Read the passage and circle the correct answer. 5 1,0 0,4 0,4 0,2 Relating to the topic of Unit 3, Unit 4 or Unit 5. 2 0,4 (Error WRITI identifica NG tion) (2,0) Circle A, B or C which is not correct in standard 0,4 English Relating to Gramm ar and words of Unit 3, 4, 5
4 0,8 (Sentenc e transfor mation) Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps 0,8 unchange d Relating to Gramm ar and words of Unit 1, 2, 4, 5 2 0,8 (Sentenc e building) Write complete sentences from the words given. 0,8 Relating to Gramm ar and words of Unit 1, 2, 4, 5 TOTAL(8,0) 38 8,0 3,4 2,2 0,8 SPEAKI 2 0,4 Introduct 0,4 NG ion
5 1,0 Topic 0,2 0,8 speaking (2,0) 3 0,6 Question s and 0,4 0,2 Answers Grand Total 48 10, 4,0 3,0 1,0 (10,0) 0 PEOPLE’S COMMITTEE OF DIEN BAN TOWN SPECIFICATION FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST -ENGLISH 7 LE DINH DUONG SECONDARY SCHOOL School year: 2024-2025 CONT No. of Com Low App High App PARTS Mark Task Re ENTS Ques types TL TN TL TN TL TN TL TN Q1-5: 5 0,6 0,4 1,0 Listen to Circle a man the best talking LISTEN answer about ING for each street sentence (2,0) painting and circle the correct answer.
Q6-10: 5 1,0 Listen to T/F a man statemen talking t about “ Food around 0,4 0,6 the world” . Tick ( ) True or False -Q11: Indicate LANGU sounds / the word id/ & / d/ whose AGE underline -Q12: COMPO d part is sounds NENT 2 0.4 pronounc 0,4 /ʃ/ & /ʒ/. ed (3,0) differentl y form the others -Q13: 1 3 0,6 0,4 0,2 word Circle about the best dollhous option e - Q14: 1 word about compose r
- Q15: 1 word about fast food -Q16: 1 5 1,0 Circle 0,4 0,6 sentence the best about option “some” -Q17: 1 sentence about preposito n of place “on” -Q18: 1 sentence about Commun ication “asking and answerin g about the prices -Q19: 1 sentence about
comparis ions “ as…as” -Q20: 1 sentence about the present simple tense READI -Q21: 1 5 1,0 Read the 0,4 0,2 0,4 NG word passage (2,0) about the and superlati choose ve the best adjective answer “most” for each -Q22: 1 gap word about noun “energy ” -Q23: 1 word about Adjective “unable ” -Q24: 1 word
about a verb “lose” -Q25: 1 word about a prepositi on “ divide into” -Q26: 5 1,0 Read the 0,4 0,4 0,2 Choose text the best about answer Folk to fill in Music the and blank circle the -Q27: best Choose answer the best answer for a WH- question -Q28: Choose the best answer for a WH-
question -Q29: Choose the best answer to fill in the blank -Q30: Choose the best answer for a WH- question -Q31: 1 (Error WRITI sentence identifica NG about the tion) past (2,0) Circle A, simple B or C -Q32: 1 2 0,4 0,4 which is sentence about a not question correct in “ How standard many” English 0,8 (Sentenc -Q33: -1 e sentence 4 0,8 building) about Write
Verb of liking sentence -Q34: 1 sentence about simple sentence. complete Q35. 1 sentences sentence from the about words comparis given. ons “ different from” Q36. 1 sentence about word “a lot of” -Q37: 1 0,8 sentence 2 0,8 (Sentenc about e verb of building ) Write liking complet Q38: 1 e sentence sentence about s from “How the many” words given.
TOTAL 38 8,0 3,4 2,2 1,6 0,8 (8,0) SPEAK - ING Introduc (2,0) e persona l informat ion Introduc 2 0,4 0,4 (hobby, tion school, houses, family, teacher, subject.. .) - 5 1,0 Topic 0,2 0,8 Random speaking ly take one vocab topic (hobby/ healthy living/m usic and arts/ food and
drink / school) - 5 minutes for preparat ion -Look at the pictures and answer the question “What is this?” - Spell one word - Two vocabs in situatio n - Student point the word form
teacher’ s explanat ion - Answer three question s about one of the topics Questio (hobby/ 3 0,6 ns and 0,4 0,2 healthy Answers living/m usic and arts/ food and drink / school) Grand Total 10,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0)
Trường THCS Lê Đình Dương KIỂM TRA CUỐI KÌ I NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 ĐIỂM Họ tên:...................................... Môn kiểm tra: Tiếng Anh 7 Lớp.../ SBD......../ phòng thi:..... Thời gian: 60 phút( Không kể thời gian giao đề) Chữ kí GT: Chữ kí giám khảo: A. LISTENING (2.0 pts) Part I. Listen to a man talking about street painting and circle the correct answer A, B or C to complete the following sentences.You will hear TWICE (1.0 pt) 1. Street painting began……. A. in the 16th century B. in 1994 2. At street painting event, you can…………… A. buy a painting B. talk to artists 3. One of the largest events in……………. is the Lake Worth Street Painting Festival. A. the United States B. the United Kingdom 4. The Lake Worth Street Painting Festival happens……. A. only sometimes B. every month 5. About….....artists take part in the Lake Worth Street Painting Festival. A. 100,000 B. 600 C. 60 Part II. Listen to a man talking about “Food around the world”. Tick ( ) True or False for the following sentences. True 6. Most people feel that what they eat is normal, and what other people eat is strange and silly. 7. English people eat potatoes every day. 8. Americans like to drink tea while English love to drink coffee. 9. The English drink tea four or five times a day. 10. French people enjoy beer every day. B. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS (2.0 pts) Part I. Choose the letter A, B or C to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (0.4pt) 11. A. collected B. cleaned C. provided 12. A. show B. fashion C. visual Part II. Choose the correct answer A, B or C to complete each of the following sentence.(1.6pt) 13. Mai has lots of dolls. She wants to build a ………………for them. A. doll B. coin C. dollhouse 14. There is………………fruit juice in the fridge. A. any B. some C. many 15. Pham Tuyen is a great……………… He wrote many good songs for children. A. singer B. composer C. painter 16. ………………tastes so good, but it is bad for your health. A. Fresh food B. Meat C. Fast food 17. Is Peter’s office……………the first or the second floor? A. in B. on C. at 18. Lan ………………..is a glass of milk tea, please? Waiter: It’s 10,000 dong. A. What money B. How many C. How much 19. He’s not really ………………tall as he looks on TV. A. from B. as C. than 20. I ……………….to the English club every Sunday.
A. go B. am going C. went C. READING (2.0 pts) Part I. Choose the correct answer A, B or C for each gap in the passage. (1.0 pt) Breakfast is the (21)…………..important meal of the day. It provides the nutrients your body needs for good health, the calories it needs for (22)…………..and helps to maintain your blood sugar level. Studies have shown that people who don’t have breakfast have a low blood sugar level and are often slow, tired, hungry and (23) …………..to concentrate. Surprisingly, breakfast actually plays a part in weight control. It's easier to (24) …………..weight if you eat in the morning rather than later in the day. Dividing the day’s calories ((25) …………three meals helps take off weight more efficiently than skipping breakfast and having two larger meals a day does. 21. A. healthy B. main C. most 22. A. power B. energy C. effort 23. A. unable B. able C. capble 24. A. lose B. gain C. put 25. A. in B. into C. up Part II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B or C for each sentence. (1.0 pt) Charlie Chaplin was born in London in 1889. He learned to perform onstage and became a professional entertainer at eight as a clog dancer. In 1908, he joined the Fred Karno Pantomime Troupe and quickly became well-known. In 1910 he began to perform pantomime in the United States. He first appeared on screen in 1914. He created his world-famous character, the Tramp, and he played this classic role in more than 70 films during his carreer. He also composed background music for most of his films. In 1972, Chaplin received an Honorary Academy Award for “making motion pictures the art form of this century”. Chaplin died in 1997 at his home in Switzerland. 26. At eight, Chaplin became a professional entertainer as a………. A. dancer B. actor C. composer 27. When did he start appearing in films? A. in 1990 B. In 1914 C. In 1972 28. In about how many films did he play the Tramp? A. Seventy B. Seventeen C. Twenty-five 29. Charlie Chaplin is very famous for………. A. his short plays B. his background music C. his character the Tramp 30. Which of the following is NOT true? A. Charlie Chaplin was an English artist B. He played classical music. C. He received an award in 1972 D. WRITING (2.0 pts) Part I. Find a mistake (A, B, or C) in each of the following sentences.(0.4 pt) 31. She didn’t went to Vung Tau city last summer. A B C 32. How much apples do you need for your apple pie? A B C Part II. Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged.(0.8 pt) 33. My mother is interested in doing yoga every day to keep fit. -> My mother enjoys……………………………………………………………………………. 34. My sister likes building dollhouses. I like building dollhouses. -> My sister and I……………………………………………………………………………....... 35. Her picture is not the same as her brother’s. -> Her picture is ……………………………………………………............................................ 36. Fruit and vegetables have many vitamins. -> Fruit and vegetables have a…………………………………………………………………... Part III.. Write complete sentences from the words given. (0.8 pt)
37. I/ like/ play/ sports/ because/ it/ good / health. 38. How / many/ bottle/ water/ there / the fridge? KEYS: English 7 A. LISTENING (2.0 điểm) Part I: Mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x5 = 1 điểm 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. B Part II: Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x5 = 1 điểm 6. T 7. T 8. F 9. T 10. F B. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS ( 2,0 điểm) Part I. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x2 = 0,4 điểm 11. B 12. C Part II. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x 8 = 1,6 điểm 13. C 14. B 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. A C. READING ( 2,0 điểm) Part I. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x5 = 1 điểm 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. B Part II. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x5 = 1 điểm 26. A 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. B D. WRITING ( 2,0 điểm) Part I. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x2 = 0,4 điểm 31. A 32. A Part II. Mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x 4= 0,8 điểm 33. My mother enjoys doing yoga every day to keep fit. 35. My sister and I like building dollhouses. 36. Her picture is different from/ not like her brother’s. 36. Fruit and vegetables have a lot of vitamins. Part III. Mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,4 điểm x2= 0,8 điểm 37. I like playing sports because it is good for my health. 38. How many bottles of water are there in the fridge? *Tùy theo bài làm của học sinh giáo viên quyết định số điểm phần này cho phù hợp. ------------THE END------------
UNIT 1: HOBBIES 1. What is her/his hobby? 2. What does/ do (she /he/they) like doing? 3. What does/ do she /he/they like doing in the summer/spring? 4. It’s an activity that helps your hands and eyes work well together. 5. It is an activity that helps you learn about flowers, fruits, vegetables and insects. 6. It is a noun that means ‘ the duty of taking care of something’ KEY:1…………………….2…………………..3………………….4………………..5…………………..6………………… 7……………….8……………..9………….10……………11……………..12………………..
II.ROLE PLAY : UNIT 2: HEALTHY LIVING I. TOPIC SPEAKING (Vocabulary) – 1.0 pt (~5 questions):
1. What is her/ his problem? 2. What problem does he/ she get? 3. It is an activity that helps you keep fit. 4. It’s one of the ways to protect you from COVID- 19. 5. What happens when you go out without hat and suncream? 6. This food helps you have a good health. 1…………………….2…………………..3………………….4………………..5…………………..6………………… 7……………….8……………..9………….10……………11……………..12………………..