Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 cấp tỉnh năm 2019-2020 có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT Hải Dương

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Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 cấp tỉnh năm 2019-2020 có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT Hải Dương nhằm cung cấp cho giáo viên và học sinh các bài tập tham khảo môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10. Mời các bạn cùng tham khảo đề thi để nắm chi tiết nội dung các bài tập.

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 cấp tỉnh năm 2019-2020 có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT Hải Dương

UBND TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 10 THPT SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Đề thi có 07trang) Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi. Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết đáp án A, hoặc B, C, D. Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài. (Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì!) A. LISTENING: Hướng dẫn làm bài Nghe: Bài Nghe gồm có 04 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 02 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài. I. Listen to five short conversations and choose the correct answer to each question (5.0 points). Question 1. Where are the woman’s glasses? Question 2. What damage was done to the car? Question 3. What did she bring? Question 4. What did Sally buy? Question 5. Where are the man and his grandma? Page 1/7
II. Listen to two conversations and choose the correct answer to each question (5.0 points). Conversation 1: Question 6. Where is Pamela Gordon? A. at a meeting B. at her university C. at a concert Question 7. What’s the caller’s number? A. 483 - 567 B. 2834 - 6528 C. 834 - 5627 Question 8. When will the flight leave? A. at 9.45 B. at 10 C. at 10.30 Conversation 2: Question 9. Where is Jane Taylor now? A. at lunch B. at the airport C. at the cinema Question 10. What is the content of the message? A. To tell Jane to order a book. B. To tell Jane to call the bookstore. C. To tell Jane to pick up the book she has ordered. III. Listen to a radio program and fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS / NUMBERS (6.0 points). FASHION PHOTOGRAPHS The name of the visiting photographer: Mike Jones. Ages he wants to photograph: (11) ______ He is looking for: a) all shapes, sizes, colours b) (12) ______ of dress c) (13) ______ both Meeting time: (14) ______ on Sunday Meeting place: (15) ______ in front of the museum. Inquiry line: (16) ______ Question 11. ______ Question 12. ______ Question 13. ______ Question 14. ______ Question 15. ______ Question 16. ______ IV. Listen to a description of a town named Fairview and decide whether the statements below are true (T) or false (F) (4.0 points). STATEMENTS T F Question 17. All houses and shops in Fairview are empty. Question 18. Fairview was founded when people discovered gold in the foothills of the Rocky Mountains. Question 19. People gradually left the town after a few decades when the gold rush finished. Question 20. Tourists can visit the town and stay in a new hotel for just one night. B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS I. Choose the word, phrase or expression that best completes each sentence (8.0 points). Question 21. According to a report released by the United Nations, in most ______ developed countries, up to 50% of ______ population enters higher education at some time in their lives. A. Ø / Ø B. the / Ø C. Ø / the D. the / the Question 22. ______, nothing dangerous would have happened. A. Had it not been for his memory loss B. If he had not been for his memory loss C. If it had been for his memory loss D. If he had lost his memory Page 2/7
Question 23. D.W. Griffith pioneered many of the stylistic features and filmmaking techniques ______ as the Hollywood standard. A. that established B. what established C. that became established D. what became established Question 24. In some parts of the world, the indigenous population has been completely ______ . A. wiped out B. wiped up C. wiped away D. wiped off Question 25. ______, methane can be used as a fuel. A. Producing the fermentation of organic matter B. Produced by the fermentation of organic matter C. The production by fermentation of organic matter D. The fermentation of organic matter is produced Question 26. To everyone’s surprise, Jack was appointed head of the sales devision inspite of his poor ______ . A. achievements B. expressions C. qualifications D. disqualifications Question 27. Bob and Tony are talking to each other in the library. Bob: “What’s the matter, Tony? You don’t look very well today.” Tony: “I feel a little ______.” A. out of the blue B. under a cloud C. out of order D. under the weather Question 28. An old gentleman, not sure where to go for the summer holiday, is asking a travel agent for advice. Gentleman: “Can you please recommend any places for this summer holiday?” Agent: "______.” A. Yes, please go to other agencies. B. A package tour to New Zealand would be perfect, sir. C. No, you cannot recommend any places. D. I don’t think you could afford a tour to New Zealand, sir. II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5.0 points). Question 29. Dr. Thomson’s long experience at the World Health Organization makes him (DISPENSE)______ to the talks. Question 30. Some (ECONOMY) ______ think that full employment in Europe is an unattainable goal. Question 31. Television has an important role to play in (POPULAR) ______ new scientific ideas. Question 32. Studies suggest that regular intake of the vitamin (SIGNIFICANCE) ______ improves brain function. Question 33. The school rules state that no child shall be allowed out of the school during the day, unless (COMPANY) ______ by an adult. III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (3.0 points). Question 34. Melons most probably originated in Persia and introduced to the North American continent during the A B C D sixteenth century. Question 35. Part of the entertainment of seeing a movie is understanding how the director combination a range A B C of different styles to attain an artistic goal. D Question 36. When the first air pollute laws were enacted in England in the 14th century, air pollutants were A B limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled. C D IV. Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following questions (2.0 points). Question 37. The company empowered Mr. Johnson to declare their support for the new event. As a matter of fact, he now has more power to do what he wants than ever before. A. forbade B. helped C. authorized D. ordered Question 38. “I think you will have to account for your presence at the scene of crime, Mr. Adamson” said the policeman. A. complain B. compose C. arrange D. explain Page 3/7
V. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the following questions (2.0 points). Question 39. Their wedding party caused great disappointment, but at least there was sufficient food for everyone. A. worthless B. inadequate C. satisfying D. unpleasant Question 40. Vietnam’s admission to the World Trade Organization has promoted its trade relations with other countries. A. restricted B. fostered C. expanded D. revitalized C. READING: I. Study the following pieces of information and choose the option that is SIMILAR in meaning to the given one (10 points). Question 41. ALLOW A. Each tour of the castle lasts less than three hours. AT LEAST THREE HOURS B. Three hours is the minimum time recommended for a visit to the castle. FOR YOUR VISIT C. Visitors are only allowed to spend three hours inside the castle. TO THE CASTLE D. You are not allowed to spend more than three hours in the castle. Question 42. Nancy, Couldn’t wait any longer, didn’t want A. Nancy and Cathy missed each other at the stadium. to miss the start of the match. B. Cathy had to leave without Nancy to get to work. Problem at work? Here’s your ticket C. Cathy has given up waiting for Nancy to arrive. - see you at the stadium. D. Cathy asked Nancy to buy her ticket at the stuadium. Cathy Question 43. THE FOOD IN THIS CONTAINER A. Remove this food from the container before placing in a microwave oven. IS NOT SUITABLE FOR COOKING B. The food in this container is edible if cooked in a microwave oven. C. It is advisable to use a suitable container for cooking this food. IN A MICROWAVE OVEN! D. You should avoid putting this food in a microwave oven. Question 44. From: Sunflowers Health Club To: All Members Sent: April 3 A. Sunflowers Health Club is selling exercise equipment to members at a Subject: Special Offer special price. Introduce a friend to this club and B. Your annual fee for Sunflowers Health Club must be paid now. receive free exercise equipment! C. You will qualify for a gift if you persuade a friend to join Sunflowers. This offer is open to existing D. None of the above. members; your friend must pay full 12-month fee. Question 45. Need to relax after our journey - car A. Ann and Jacob found their drive to the hotel stressful. broke down (fixed now!). At this hotel B. Ann and Jacob’s car needs to be repaired before they leave. until 25th then staying overnight with C. Ann and Jacob stayed with Kate until 25th. Kate on the way home. D. Ann and Jacob will drive straight back after their hotel stay. Ann and Jacob Question 46. The riding school rang. Nobody A. Cathy should join a different riding class because the 12 o’clock lesson from Cathy’s group has booked is full. for the midday class. For this B. Cathy would be the only rider at twelve today, so she should come later. C. Cathy must change groups because riding classes will no longer take week only, she’ll have to ride at 2 place at 12. o’clock instead. D. Cathy should not book for the midday class. Page 4/7
Question 47. BUY SANDWICHES AND DRINKS HERE. A. Sandwiches and drinks are only available at lunchtime. B. The restaurant near the lake serves hot food in the middle of the day. HOT FOOD AVAILABLE AT LUNCHTIME C. You can buy a hot meal in two different places. AT RESTAURANT BY LAKE. D. You can buy both sandwiches and a hot food except at lunchtime. Question 48. LIBRARY A. Please return all borrowed DVDs before May 10th. Increased charges for borrowing B. There will be additional DVDs to borrow from May 10th. C. The charges for DVDs will be in the right place on May 10th. DVDs will be in place from May 10th. D. You will have to pay more to borrow DVDs after May 10th. Question 49. We regret we cannot accept A. If you spend more than £ 20, you must pay by credit card. B. We make a change if you pay by credit card. payment by credit card C. If you spend less than £ 20, you cannot pay by credit card. for sales of under £ 20! D. We prefer cash payment for large sales. Question 50. A. You must get on the train to Stevenage Station at Cambridge. PASSENGERS FOR CAMBRIDGE B. You have to get off one train and get on another if you want to go to CHANGE Cambridge. AT STEVENAGE STATION! C. You must give Stevenage Station a change after arriving in Cambridge. D. You can get off at Cambridge to change to Stevenage Station. II. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points). In Britain, the average young person now spends more money on games each year than on going to the cinema or renting videos. But is this (51)______a bad thing? For years, newspaper reports have been (52) ______that children who spend too much time playing computer games become unsociable, bad - tempered, even violent as a (53) ______. But new research, (54) ______out in both Europe and the USA, suggests that the opposite may be true. Indeed, playing some of the more complicated games may help people of all ages to improve certain skills. Researchers claim that this is because the games (55) ______the brain work harder in certain ways, like noticing sounds and movements quickly and (56) ______ what they are. The fact that people play the games repeatedly (57) ______that they get a lot of practice in these skills which are therefore likely to become highly developed. Social skills may benefit, too. Researchers in Chicago think that fans of first-person shooter games (58) ______“Counterstrike” are better than non-players when it comes to building trust and co-operation, and that this (59) ______them to make good friendships and become strong members of their communities. So rather than (60) ______up computer games, perhaps young people need to spend more time on them? Question 51. A. necessarily B. certainly C. nearly D. fully Question 52. A. speaking B. informing C. saying D. telling Question 53. A. product B. result C. reason D. conclusion Question 54. A. thought B. worked C. turned D. carried Question 55. A. force B. push C. keep D. make Question 56. A. transmitting B. processing C. identifying D. guaranteeing Question 57. A. means B. asks C. brings D. causes Question 58. A. due to B. in order to C. such as D. as well as Question 59. A. supports B. helps C. shows D. serves Question 60. A. giving B. ending C. taking D. stopping Page 5/7
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question (10 points). Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day. Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to dehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication. The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst. Question 61. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals? A. It helps them hide from predators. B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors. C. It helps them see their young at night. D. It keeps them cool at night. Question 62. The word "maintaining" in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to ______. A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying Question 63. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower? A. Just before sunrise B. In the middle of the day C. Just after sunset D. Just after drinking Question 64. The word "tolerate" in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to ______. A. endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce Question 65. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of ______. A. an animal with a low average temperature B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature Question 66. What causes water intoxication? A. Drinking too much water very quickly B. Drinking polluted water C. Bacteria in water D. Lack of water Question 67. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals? A. They do not need to eat much food. B. They can eat large quantities quickly. C. They easily lose their appetites. D. They can travel long distances looking for food. Question 68. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals? A. Variation in body temperatures B. Eating while dehydrated C. Drinking water quickly D. Being active at night Page 6/7
Question 69. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph? A. To show how they use camels. B. To contrast them to desert mammals. C. To give instructions about desert survival. D. To show how they have adapted to desert life. Question 70. What is the main topic of the passage? A. Weather variations in the desert B. Adaptations of desert animals C. Diseased of desert animals D. Human use of desert animals D. WRITING: I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before (5.0 points). Question 71. Though Caroline was competent in her work, she found it hard to deal with that client.  Competent ................................................................................................................................................... Question 72. You can try to get John to take part in the competition, but you won’t succeed.  There’s ........................................................................................................................................................ Question 73. I can say for sure that it wasn’t Bob who broke the window because he was going out with me then.  It cannot ...................................................................................................................................................... Question 74. The police decided to release Mr. Cook only after they had conducted a thorough investigation into the robbery.  It was not..................................................................................................................................................... Question 75. Mary now regrets not having studied harder at school.  Mary now wishes........................................................................................................................................... II. Imagine that you have made an appointment to see Mr. Johnson, your family doctor, next Sunday morning, but now you need to cancel it. In about 80 - 90 words, write an email to him (10 points).  In your email, you should: - make an apology to Mr. Johnson - explain why the appointment has to be cancelled - suggest another time  You are required to sign your name as Jane. III. Some people say that idols usually have strong influences on the development of youngsters’ character, both positively and negatively. Do you agree or disagree with the statement? In about 200 - 220 words, write an essay to express your opinion (15 points). === THE END === Họ và tên thí sinh:……………………………………………………. Số báo danh:…………………… Họ và tên giám thị 1:…………………………………………………. Chữ ký:…………………………. Họ và tên giám thị 2:…………………………………………………. Chữ ký:…………………………. Page 7/7
UBND TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 10 THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH A. LISTENING: I. (5.0 points): Each correct answer: 1.0 point 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. A II. (5.0 points): Each correct answer: 1.0 point 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. C III. (6.0 points): Each correct answer: 1.0 point 11. 14 to 18 (14 - 18) 12. all different styles 13. girls and boys / boys and girls 14. 10 a.m. 15. the square 16. 3949449025 IV. (4.0 points): Each correct answer: 1.0 point 17. T 18. T 19.F 20. F B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS I. (10 points): Each correct answer: 1.0 point 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. D 28. B II. (5.0 points): Each correct answer: 1.0 point 29. INDISPENSABLE 30. ECONOMISTS 31. POPULARIZING 32. SIGNIFICANTLY 33. ACCOMPANIED III. (3.0 points): Each correct answer: 1.0 point 34. C 35. C 36. B IV. (2.0 points): Each correct answer: 1.0 point 37. C 38. D V. (2.0 points): Each correct answer: 1.0 point 39. B 40. A C. READING: I. (10 points): Each correct answer: 1.0 point 41. B 42. C 43. D 44. C 45. A 46. B 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. B II. (10 points): Each correct answer: 1.0 point 51. A 52. C 53. B 54. D 55. D 56. C 57. A 58. C 59. B 60. A III. (10 points): Each correct answer: 1.0 point 61. B 62. C 63. A 64. A 65. C 66. A 67. D 68. D 69. B 70. B E. WRITING I. (5.0 points): Each correct answer: 1.0 point 71. Competent as / though Caroline was in her work, she found it hard to deal with that client. 72. There’s no point in getting John to take part in the competition. 73. It cannot have been Bob who broke the window because he was going out with me then. 74. It was not until the police had conducted a thorough investigation into the robbery that they decided to release Mr. Cook. Or, It was not until they had conducted a thorough investigation into the robbery that the police decided to release Mr. Cook. 75. Mary now wishes (that) she had studied harder at school. II. (1.0 point). 1. Form: Page 8/7
- Correct form of an email (1.0 point) 2. Task fulfillment: - Task completed with relevant information (2.0 points) - Well-organized (2.0 points) 3. Language: - Accurate grammar (2.0 points) - Appropriate vocabulary (2.0 points) - Correct spelling and punctuation (1.0 point) III. (15 points). Score of 14-15: A paragrap at this level:  shows very effective writing skills  is very well organized and well developed  uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas  displays consistent ability in the use of language  demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice Score of 11 - 13: A paragrapat this level:  shows effective writing skills  is well organized and well developed  uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas  displays consistent ability in the use of language  demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice Score of 9 - 10: A paragrapat this level:  may address some parts of the task more effectively than others  is generally well organized and developed  uses details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea  displays ability in the use of the language  shows some variety in sentence structure and range of vocabulary Score of 7 - 8: A paragrapat this level:  addresses the writing topic adequately but does not meet all of the goals of the task  is adequately organized and developed  uses some details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea  shows adequate but possibly inconsistent ability with sentence structure  may contain some usage errors that make the meaning unclear Score of 5 - 6: A paragraph at this level may reveal one or more of the following weaknesses:  inadequate organization or development  poor choice of details or does not provide enough details to support or illustrate generalizations  a noticeably improper choice of words or word forms  numerous errors in sentence structure and/or usage Score of 3 - 4: A paragraph at this level is seriously flawed by one or more of the following weaknesses:  serious disorganization or underdevelopment  little or no detail, or irrelevant specifics  serious and frequent errors in sentence structure or usage  serious problems with focus Score of 1- 2: A paragraph at this level:  may be incoherent  may be undeveloped  may contain severe and persistent writing errors Score of 0: A paragraph will be rated 0 if it:  contains no response  merely copies the topic  is off-topic, written in a foreign language or consists only of keystroke characters Page 9/7