Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Gia Thanh, Gia Viễn

Chia sẻ: _ _ | Ngày: | Loại File: DOCX | Số trang:15

Thêm vào BST

Báo xấu

1
lượt xem 0
download

Download Vui lòng tải xuống để xem tài liệu đầy đủ

Các bạn cùng tham khảo và tải về “Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Gia Thanh, Gia Viễn” sau đây để biết được cấu trúc đề thi cũng như những nội dung chính được đề cập trong đề thi để từ đó có kế hoạch học tập và ôn thi một cách hiệu quả hơn. Chúc các bạn thi tốt!

Chủ đề:

Bình luận(0) Đăng nhập để gửi bình luận!

Lưu

Nội dung Text: Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Gia Thanh, Gia Viễn

PHÒNG GD&ĐT GIA VIỄN MA TRẬN ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT ĐẠI TRÀ TRƯỜNG THCS GIA THANH Năm 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Ma trận đề thi gồm 01 trang) Tổng Tỉ lệ % Tổng điểm Thông Vận TT Nhận biết Kĩ năng hiểu dụng Thời gian Thời gian Thời gian Số Tỉ lệ (%) Tỉ lệ (%) Tỉ lệ (%) Số điểm Thời gian (phút) (phút) (phút) Câu hỏi Phần A: Phonetic 1 10 4-6 10 6-8 5 3-6 5 1 6 10 s Phần B: 2 10 6 - 12 10 5-6 10 2 10 20 Lexico Phần C: Gramma 3 r 10 8 - 12 5 5-6 5 5-7 10 2 10 20 Phần D: 4 5 6 - 12 10 15 3 20 30 Reading Phần E: 5 Writing 5 6 - 12 5 4-6 10 9 - 11 10 2 14 20 Tổng 40 18 - 30 40 20 - 26 20 17 - 24 50 10 60 100 Tỉ lệ (%) 100 40 40 20 Tỉ lệ chung (%) 70
PHÒNG GD&ĐT GIA VIỄN BẢNG ĐẶC TẢ ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT ĐẠI TRÀ TRƯỜNG THCS GIA THANH Năm 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Bảng đặc tả đề thi gồm 03 trang) Số câu hỏi theo mức Tổng số câu Ghi chú độ nhận hỏi thức V ậ Mức độ kiến n thức, kĩ Kĩ năng/ Đơn vị kiến TT năng cần Biết Hiểu ND thức/kĩ năng d kiểm tra, ụ đánh giá n g T TN TN TN N
Pronunciation Nhận biết: - Nhận biết cách phát âm từ kết thúc “s/es” A PHONE thông qua các TICS từ quen thuộc đã học Stress 4 1 5 - Nhận biết các nguyên âm, phụ âm qua các từ quen thuộc đã học. - Xác định trọng âm từ có 2 và 3 âm tiết. Nhận biết: - Từ/ cụm từ liên quan đến các chủ đề đã học. LEXIC - Our B Vocabulary O community - Our heritage - Our world - Our future
Thông hiểu: - Word form 2 2 - Word choice 4 4 - Collocation 1 1 - Phrasal verb 1 1 - Nhận biết: 4 - Thì của động từ - Các dạng so sánh hơn. - Câu điều kiện loại 1 với modal verbs - Dạng của động từ C GRAMMAR 8 - Đại từ quan hệ. who, which - Liên từ phụ thuộc, mệnh đề chỉ nguyên nhân kết quả, mệnh đề nhượng bộ - Câu gián tiếp D READING Cloze test - Lượng từ, giới 2 15 từ - Đại từ quan hệ,
liên từ - Từ vựng (từ, cụm từ) - Mệnh đề - Passage - Advertisement Reading - Annoucement 2 comprehension - Instruction - Sign, poster, … - Câu gián tiếp 1 - Câu điều kiện - Câu bị động Rewriting sentences - Kết hợp thì 4 động từ (HTHT, 1 QKĐ, QKTD, E WRITING QKHT) - Các cấu trúc ngữ pháp khác Combining - Câu ước muốn 1 4 sentences - Mệnh đề quan
hệ - Mệnh đề nhượng bộ, nguyên nhân, kết quả - Các cấu trúc ngữ pháp khác - Sắp xếp từ thành câu. Arranging - Sắp xếp câu 1 2 thành đoạn văn, bức thư, ….
PHÒNG GD&ĐT GIA VIỄN TRƯỜNG THCS GIA THANH ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT ĐẠI TRÀ Năm 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Đề thi gồm 50 câu, 6 trang) PART A: PHONETICS Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. locates B. takes C. proposes D. hopes Question 2. A. functions B. suburb C. suck D. support Question 3. A. mechanic B. touchscreen C. choose D. chance Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 4. A. portable B. possess C. observe D. consist Question 5. A. historic B. confident C. attention D. ambitous PART B: VOCABULARY Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6. I love Ninh Binh! The sights of it make a deep ________ on me. A. impress B. impressed C. impressing D. impression Question 7. Tan Nhan is one of the most ________ singers in our countries. A. succeed B. successfully C. successful D. success Question 8. The government _____ their objective of reducing violent crime. A. succeeded B. managed C. accomplished D. got Question 9. You should avoid walking near the construction _____ for safety reasons. A. sign B. site C. way D. place Question10. The Internet has _____ developed and become part of our daily life. A. carelessly B. rapidly C. unclearly D. carefully Question11. Now, at the age of over 80, the artisan is leaving the craft to his descendants with a desire to ________ this ancient craft. A. preserve B. reserve C. change D. consider Question12. Adolescents should start a healthy lifestyle by exercising ________. A. carefully B. regularly C. slowly D. quickly Question 13. I think we should know our passions and abilities to ________ a good career choice. A. earn B. do C. break D. make Question 14. He has no sense of ________ at all. He never chooses the right colour or the right clothes for herself. A. humour B. style C. community D. direction Question 15. My parents are trying to ________ fattening food and soft drinks. A. carry out B. hand out C. cut down on D. come down with
PART C: GRAMMAR Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 16. they ________ for you since the last train left. A. has waited B. have waited C. am waiting D. was waiting Question 17. Which roles are women expected ________ in the future? A. played B. playing C. play D. to play Question 18. If you want to pass the entrance exam, you ________ study harder. A. can’t B. must C. would D. won’t Question 19. The old building ________ is in front of my house fell down. A. which B. who C. whom D. whose Question 20. English is thought to be ________ than Math. A. harder B. the more hard C. hardest D. the hardest Question 21. She said she ________ to enter the law school. A. are you planning B. were planning C. was she planning D. was planning Question 22. The flight to Hanoi was delayed for twenty minutes______ the weather was bad. A. because B. although C. so D. but Question 23. Paul lives ________ Birmingham. He's a student at Birmingham University. A. in B. at C. on D. up Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 24. A: I’m sorry. I forgot your birthday. B: ________. A. Thank you B. Never mind C. Ok. Thanks D. That’s very kind of you Question 25. A: May I borrow your pen? B: ________. A. Sure. Here you are B. Thanks C. Yes. I think so D. never mind PART D: READING Read the following announcements and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each gap. SEA LIFE CENTER COST Adults $3.70, children $2.00 Special prices for over sixties (1) _______ school groups OPENING TIMES Every day except 25 and 26 December FOR CHILDREN Special quiz Animals are fed every morning from 9.30 am GROUPS Guided tours available - ask at (2) _______information desk NEW ATTRACTION Walk through the big tunnel made of glass For more (3) _______, please call Mr Khanh 0905.384.199 Question 26. A. yet B.so C. but D. and Question 27: A. a B.an C. the D. (no article) Question 28: A. neglect B. information C. ignorance D. suspicion Look at the sign or the notice. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) for each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does sign (A) say? A. You mustn't drive after drinking. B. You shouldn't drive under the influence of drugs. C. You must be careful with drunk drivers. D. You should be careful as there is a pub ahead. Question 30. What does sign (B) say? A. It's okay to copy other students’ work B. Be honest and do your own work C. Help others cheat D. Ignore the rules Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. The most obvious advantage of living green is that it helps reduce environmental pollution. This is done by practising the 3Rs. The first R means choosing products very carefully to reduce waste as much as possible. Reusing involves the repeated use of items. The third R is about separating materials that can be recycled and later used for a new purpose. There are also economic benefits to living green. Reducing the use of energy and water can help save money on household bills. Furthermore, reusing products and materials is another way to make saving. It helps save on production costs since creating new products wastes materials and is expensive. Recycled products also last longer than new ones, making them a better and eco- friendlier option. Lastly, going green offers health benefits. It reduces air pollutants by making the air we breathe cleaner and healthier. This means fewer diseases and doctor's appointments. Another way to improve your health is to purchase organic foods and green products for your household. They don't use harmful chemicals that can lead to health issues. In turn, you are also supporting responsible farming methods that protect the environment. Question 31. What is the main idea of the text? A. The pros of a green lifestyle. B. Difficulties in adopting a green lifestyle. C. Adopting a green lifestyle. D. Trends in green living. Question 32. According to the text, how can we practise the 3Rs? A. By reducing waste as much as possible. B. By reusing and recycling items. C. By doing both A and B above. D. By reducing the use of energy in factories. Question 33. The word “purchase” in the passage most closely means A. detest B. sell C. buy D. sale Question 34. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. creating new products B. reusing products C. making savings D. using products Question 35. There are ___________ positive effects of living green mentioned in the passage. A. two B. three C. one D. four Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Nowadays, robots are used in many areas of life. They are designed to carry out specific programs and tasks. There is a wide range of robots in use in industrial and manufacturing environments. They help to build cars, ships, assemble goods and much more. Robots are becoming more powerful and capable through the use of Artificial Intelligence (AI). This creation of machines with capabilities of perceiving their environment and carrying out tasks they were programmed to perform is leading to much broader use of robotics. Robots can perform tasks in many fields. In restaurants, robots are used in kitchens to prepare food and chop vegetables. Robots also being experimented with to work as receptionists, cleaners in many restaurants and homes. In crime fighting, robots are used in police forces to check buildings to find the location of criminals or dangerous devices. In medicine, robots can be used in the hospital to distribute medication to patients. They can be programmed to interface with intelligent hospital elevators to reach any floor and much more. In education, robots are being utilized as teacher’s assistants and designed to care for children and there are also robotic toys for children. (Adapted from https://didyouknowhomes.com) Question 36. What is the main topic of the passage? A. The use of robots in many areas of life B. The manufacturing industry of robots C. Programs needed to operate robots D. Robotics in education and medicine Question 37. According to paragraph 1, robots are designed to……. A. protect their industrial environments B. carry out specific programs and tasks C. drive cars on dangerous streets D. help ships to avoid imminent storms Question 38. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to………… A. robots B. fields C. program D. task Question 39. The word perceiving in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to……….. A. understanding B. affecting C. changing D. protecting Questions 40. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Robots are used to identify the locations of criminals or dangerous devices. B. Medication can be delivered to patients with the help of robots. C. Children can play with toys which are in the form of robots. D. Human teachers will be made redundant because of robotic teachers Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the sentences given. Question 41. "Will you visit Trang An Complex Grottoes this summer?" my friend said. A. My friends asked if I will visit to Trang An Complex Grottoes that summer. B. My friends asked if I would visit to Trang An Complex Grottoes that summer. C. My friends said if I would visit to Trang An Complex Grottoes this summer. D. My friends asked if would I visit to Trang An Complex Grottoes that summer. Question 42. I lived in an extended family when I was young. A. I was used to live in an extended family when I was young. B. I used to live in an extended family when I was young. C. I used to living in an extended family when I was young. D. I didn’t use to live in an extended family when I was young.
Question 43. Do more exercise and you will stay in shape. A. If you don’t do more exercise, you will stay in shape. B. Unless you do more exercise, you will stay in shape. C. If you do more exercise, you won’t stay in shape. D. If you do more exercise, you will stay in shape. Question 44. I’m sorry that I can’t speak English well. A. I wish I couldn’t speak English well. B. I wish I can speak English well. C. I wish I could speak English well. D. I wish I will speak English well. PART E: WRITING Choose the sentence that best combines each given pair of sentences. Question 45. Nam was having lunch. The phone rang in the middle of his lunch. A. He was having lunch while the phone rang. B. When He had lunch, the phone rang. C. The phone was ringing while He was having lunch. D. While He was having lunch, the phone rang. Question 46. The woman is aunt. She is wearing a red dress. A. The woman which is wearing a red dress is my aunt. B. The woman who is wearing a red dress is my aunt. C. The woman where is wearing a red dress is my aunt. D. The woman whom is wearing a red dress is my aunt. Question 47. This problem is difficult. That problem is more difficult. A. This problem is more difficult than that problem. B. That problem is more difficult than this one. C. This problem is difficult than that one. D. That problem is as difficult as this one. Question 48. It was raining heavily. The children went out without umbrellas. A. Although it was raining heavily, The children went out without umbrellas. B. Because it was raining heavily, The children went out without umbrellas. C. It was raining heavily, so The children went out without umbrellas. D. Since it was raining heavily, The children went out without umbrellas. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/email in each of the following questions. Question 49: Rearrange the sentences to make a meaningful e-mail. Dear Elena, a. After that, I went fishing with my grandpa or helped my grandma with the gardening. b. Sometimes we flew kites or skipped rope together. In the evening, I drew pictures, read books, or watched TV with my grandparents. I went to bed quite early, at about 9 p.m. c. I'm sending you a photo I took of my grandparents' house. I hope you'll like it. d. Thanks for your email. Now let me tell you about my summer holiday in my home town. I live in Da Nang, but my home town is Ninh Binh. My grandparents live there, in a small house surrounded by many paddy fields and tall mountans. e. I went to stay with them in July. It was a wonderful holiday. Every morning, my grandma and I got up early and fed the pigs and chickens. When we finished, we cooked breakfast. Love, Khanh Ngoc
A. b-d-e-c-a B. d-a-c-e-b C. b-d-e-a-c D. d-e-a-b-c Question 50: Rearrange the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph. a. Secondly, the urban areas open avenue for job hunting. Most of the corporate offices, factories, government offices, garments and companies are either situated in a city or close to the city. b. Living in urban areas brings many great advantages. Firstly, it offers a great convenience of services to its dwellers. c.Thirdly, the recent advancements in technology and transportation comfort the urban lifestyle. The large number of transports facilities has made life easy to live in the metropolis areas and the commuting to work is not a problem. d. To sum up, living in a big city is generally considered to be beneficial in multiple ways. e. As a result, they stand the chance to receive the best possible healthcare and enjoy the entertainment options, as there is a huge range of recreational places and healthcare systems available in every city. A. b-e-a-c-d B. d-b-a-e-c C. b-d-a-e-c D. c-b-a-e-d ___THE END___
PHÒNG GD&ĐT GIA VIỄN HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI TUYỂN SINH TRƯỜNG THCS GIA THANH LỚP 10 THPT ĐẠI TRÀ Năm 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 01 trang) I. ĐÁP ÁN Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án 1 C 21 D 41 B 61 2 D 22 B 42 D 62 3 A 23 A 43 D 63 4 A 24 B 44 C 64 5 B 25 A 45 D 65 6 D 26 D 46 B 66 7 C 27 C 47 B 67 8 C 28 B 48 A 68 9 B 29 A 49 D 69 10 B 30 B 50 A 70 11 A 31 A 51 71 12 B 32 C 52 72 13 D 33 C 53 73 14 B 34 B 54 74 15 C 35 B 55 75 16 B 36 A 56 76 17 D 37 B 57 77 18 B 38 A 58 78 19 A 39 A 59 79 20 A 40 D 60 80
THÔNG TIN VỀ ĐỀ THI TÊN FILE ĐỀ THI: TiengAnh_PG2_TS10D_2024_DE_SO_1 TỔNG SỐ TRANG (GỒM ĐỀ THI VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM) LÀ: 07 TRANG. Họ và tên người ra đề thi: Nguyễn Minh Phương Đơn vị công tác: Trường THCS Gia Thanh Số điện thoại: 0963132866
PHẦN KÝ XÁC NHẬN TÊN FILE ĐỀ THI: TiengAnh_PG2_TS10D_2024_DE_SO_1 TỔNG SỐ TRANG (GỒM ĐỀ THI VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM) LÀ: 07 TRANG. NGƯỜI RA ĐỀ THI NGƯỜI THẨM ĐỊNH VÀ XÁC NHẬN CỦA BGH PHẢN BIỆN CỦA TRƯỜNG Nguyễn Minh Phương