intTypePromotion=1
zunia.vn Tuyển sinh 2024 dành cho Gen-Z zunia.vn zunia.vn
ADSENSE

Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Quang Trung, Tam Điệp

Chia sẻ: _ _ | Ngày: | Loại File: DOCX | Số trang:13

1
lượt xem
0
download
 
  Download Vui lòng tải xuống để xem tài liệu đầy đủ

“Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Quang Trung, Tam Điệp” được chia sẻ nhằm giúp các bạn học sinh ôn tập, làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi và các dạng bài tập có khả năng ra trong bài thi sắp tới. Cùng tham khảo và tải về đề thi này để ôn tập chuẩn bị cho kì thi sắp diễn ra nhé! Chúc các bạn thi tốt!

Chủ đề:
Lưu

Nội dung Text: Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Quang Trung, Tam Điệp

  1. PHÒNG GD&ĐT TP TAM ĐIỆP KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT TRƯỜNG THCS QUANG TRUNG Năm 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút I. MA TRẬN ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT Mức độ TT nhận Tổng thức Vận Nội Nhận Thông Vận dụng dung biết hiểu dụng cao Thời Thời Thời Thời Thời Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ gian gian gian gian gian (%) (%) (%) (%) (%) (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) 1 Phoneti 6 3 4 2 10 5 cs 2 Lexico 0 0 8 4 8 5 4 3 20 12 3 Gramm 6 3 6 3 6 3 2 1 20 10 ar 4.1 Cloze- 4 2 4 2 2 1 10 5 test 4.2 Readin 4 2 6 4 6 5 4 4 20 15 Page 1
  2. g compre hension 5 Writing 0 0 2 1 8 5 10 7 20 13 Tổng 20 10 30 16 30 19 20 15 100 60 Tỉ lệ 20 30 30 20 (%) Tỉ lệ chung 50 50 (%) II. BẢNG NĂNG LỰC VÀ CẤP ĐỘ TƯ DUY ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT Cấp độ tư duy Năng lực Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao Ngữ Âm 3 câu 2 câu (1, 3, 5) (2, 4) Từ vựng 4 câu 2 câu 4 câu (6, 11, 14, 15) (10, 13) (7, 8, 9, 12) Ngữ Pháp 3 câu 3 câu 3 câu 1 câu (16, 17, 18) (19, 20, 22) (21, 23, 25) (24) Page 2
  3. 4 câu 5 câu 4 câu 2 câu Đọc hiểu (34, 35) (27, 28, 38, 39) (26, 29, 31, 36, 37) (30, 32, 33, 40) 1 câu 4 câu 5 câu Viết (43) (42, 45, 48, 49) (41, 44, 46, 47, 50) Tổng số câu hỏi theo cấp độ tư 10 15 15 10 duy Tỉ lệ theo mức độ 20 tư duy 20 30 30 III. BẢNG ĐẶC TẢ ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT 1. Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút. 2. Điểm toàn bài: 10,0 điểm. 3. Hình thức: Trắc nghiệm. 4. Phạm vi kiến thức: Trong phạm vi Chương trình GDPT 2018 do Bộ GDĐT ban hành, tập trung chủ yếu ở lớp 9 THCS. Nội dung như sau: Phần Nội Dung Số Câu Số Điểm Phần A: Phonetics - Phát âm đuôi: s/es, 3 1 Phát âm nguyên âm và - Phát âm nguyên âm: đôi/ đơn phụ âm - Phát âm phụ âm U Page 3
  4. Phần Nội Dung Số Câu Số Điểm Xác định trọng âm trong - Trọng âm từ có 2 âm tiết 2 từ - Trọng âm từ có từ 3 âm tiết trở lên tion, ic, ese Từ vựng theo các chủ - Word form 2 điểm đã học: - Word choice 5 - Collocation 2 - Our community Phần B: Lexico 2 - Our heritage - Phrasal verb 1 - Our world - Our future - Thì động từ đơn, dạng động từ9 bỏ quá khứ hoàn thành) - Câu điều kiện 1 - Câu mong ước hiện tại Cấu trúc 8 Phần C: Grammar - Câu so sánh hơn 2 - Câu gián tiếp trần thuật - Liên từ phụ thuộc (mệnh đề nhượng bộ, nguyên nhân, kết quả) Chức năng ngôn ngữ - Đáp lời đề nghị, lời xin lỗi 2 Phần D: Reading Cloze test - Lượng từ, giới từ chỉ nơi chốn (in/on /at) 15 3 - Đại từ quan hệ giới hạn về người, liên từ - Từ vựng (từ, cụm từ) Page 4
  5. Phần Nội Dung Số Câu Số Điểm - Mệnh đề - Passage - Advertisement Reading comprehension - Annoucement - Instruction - Sign, poster, … - Câu gián tiếp yes/no - Câu điều kiện Rewriting sentences - Câu bị động - Kết hợp thì động từ (HTHT, QKĐ, QKTD, QKHT) Phần E: Writing - Các cấu trúc ngữ pháp khác 10 2 - Câu ước muốn Combining sentences - Mệnh đề quan hệ - Mệnh đề nhượng bộ, nguyên nhân, kết quả - Các cấu trúc ngữ pháp khác Arranging - Sắp xếp từ thành câu. - Sắp xếp câu thành đoạn văn, bức thư, …. Tổng 50 10 Page 5
  6. IV. ĐỀ THI PHÒNG GD&ĐT TP TAM ĐIỆP KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT TRƯỜNG THCS QUANG TRUNG Năm 2024 Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) (Đề thi gồm 05 phần, trong 05 trang) PART A: PHONETICS Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. faces B. fishes C. bathes D. garages Question 2. A. lunch B. umbrella C. understand D. united Question 3. A. backache B. character C. scholar D. change Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 4. A. traffic B. itchy C. online D. dusty Question 5. A. reliable B. historic C. situation D. portuguese PART B: VOCABULARY Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6. My neighbourhood is more__________ than before. People should be aware of the environment and they try to keep it clean. A. polluted B. pollutes C. polluting D. pollution Question 7. Many people have made a big __________ to help clean up our community. A. contribute B. contribution C. contributed D. contributing Question 8. He has a talent for fixing things, so he is an excellent …… A. architect B. mechanic C. physicist D. pharmacist Question 9. The clanging sound of the Ha Noi _____ in the 1970s has gone deep into people’s collective memory. A. tram B. skytrain C. flyover D. tunnel Question 10. Adolescents should start a healthy lifestyle by exercising ________. A. carefully B. regularly C. slowly D. quickly Question 11 . John always ______ priority to his study when he has the final exam. A. gives B. makes C. does D. gets Question 12 . Do not forget to eat breakfast and choose a ______ meal with more protein. Page 6
  7. A. fast B. delicious C. healthy D. quick Question 13. She began to________ a cold after being outside in the cold weather. A. turn into B. pick up C. come down with D. drop-off Question 14 Could you __________ this problem? I’m rather busy. A. deal with B. look for C. come to D. set up Question 15. Could you please buy ____of cabbage when you go shopping? A. a kilo B. a pinch C. a bunch D. a head PART C: GRAMMAR Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 16 English is thought to be ________ than Math. A. harder B. the more hard C. hardest D. the hardest Question 17. Tom wakes his parents up_______ playing the guitar very softly. A. because B. in spite of C. because of D. although Question 18 . He said that Linda and John _______ married _______. A. were getting / tomorrow B. are getting / the next day C. were getting / the next day D. will getting / the day after Question 19. I saw Jack yesterday morning while I ________ home from work. A.walked B. was walking C.am walking D.had been walking Question 20. I recommend _____ some time each day for exercise and relaxation. A. setting B. set C. to set D. sets Question 21 The students ________ worked hardest on the project received the highest marks. A. whom B. who C. whose D. which Question 22 . If I work hard, I ____________ pass my exam. A. must not B. won’t C. needn’t D. will Question 23. We enjoy visting some traditional craft villages _______ Hue this summer. A. in B. on C. at D. of Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 24. - Ben: “______” - Jane: “Never mind.” A. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned. B. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday? C. Thank you for being honest with me. D. Congratulations! How wonderful Question 25: Let’s go to Thung Nham Bird Garden this Sunday. A. Good idea B. You can say that again. C. You’re welcome D. Never mind PART D: READING Page 7
  8. Read the following announcements and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each gap. Read the following announcements and circle the letter A, B, C or D Advertisement: The Story of the Eiffel Tower Hi Everyone! We’re excited to tell you about the Eiffel Tower in Paris! � A long time ago, in the late 1800s, Paris was getting ready for a big event. During this time, builders were creating (26) _______ Eiffel Tower, (27) _______ would become a famous monument. The building started in 1887, and the workers were busy working on the metal parts and shaping the tower. While they were building on the tower, many people in Paris were waiting for it to be finished. By 1889, the Eiffel Tower was done and it became a (28) _______ of Paris. Visitors from all over came to see it and were amazed by its design. Today, the Eiffel Tower remains one of the most well-known landmarks in the world! Question 26. A. the B. a C. an D. no article Question 27. A. that B. which C. what D. where Question 28. A. statue B. shape C. simple D. symbol Look at the sign or the notice. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) Question 29. What does sign (A) say? A. You must drive slowly and carefully. B. You shouldn't drive under the influence of drugs. C. You must be careful with drunk drivers. D. You should be careful as there is a pub ahead. Question 30. What does this sign say? A. No U-Turn B. This is a forbidden area for the handicapped. C. No overtaking D. The handicapped must stay here at all times. II. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Our local community plays a crucial role in shaping a vibrant and supportive environment for all residents. One of the most effective ways to strengthen community bonds is through active participation in local events and initiatives. For instance, neighborhood clean-up drives not only enhance the beauty of our surroundings but also foster a sense of pride and collaboration among residents. Additionally, community gardens offer a space where people can grow fresh produce, share gardening tips, and Page 8
  9. enjoy the benefits of working together. By supporting local businesses and attending town festivals, we contribute to the economic and cultural vitality of our area. Engaging with our community helps build lasting relationships, address local issues, and create a more cohesive and resilient neighborhood. Question 31. What is the best title for the passage? A. The Role of Local Government in Communities B. Benefits of Community Gardens C. How to Improve Local Infrastructure D. Importance of Participating in Local Events Question 32. Which of the following words has a similar meaning to "vitality" in the passage? A. Energy B. Sadness C. Loneliness D. Confusion Question 33. Which word is the opposite of "collaboration" in the passage? A. Cooperation B. Assistance C. Isolation D. Partnership Question 34. The word "gardens" in the passage refers to _______. A. Parks B. Houses C. Shops D. Community spaces Question 35. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Neighborhood clean-up drives enhance the beauty of the surroundings. B. Community gardens help people share gardening tips and fresh produce. C. Supporting local businesses contributes to the economic vitality of the area. D. Engaging with the community only helps to address issues but not build relationships. III. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. In the 1960s, life in Vietnamese schools was very different from today. Students wore simple uniforms, often made by their mothers. They walked or rode bicycles to school, as cars and motorbikes were not common. Schools were basic, with wooden desks and chalkboards, and sometimes classes were held outdoors. Discipline was strict, and teachers were highly respected. Students addressed their teachers with great formality and stood up whenever they spoke. Lessons focused on reading, writing, and arithmetic, with a strong emphasis on memorization and recitation. Physical punishment, like a ruler on the knuckles, was not uncommon for misbehavior. During breaks, students played traditional games like "o an quan" and "banh đũa." These activities helped build strong friendships and teamwork. Without modern technology, students found joy in simple pleasures and learned to be creative with limited resources. Exams were a significant part of school life. Students studied hard and often stayed up late to prepare. Success in exams was a source of great pride for families. Education was highly valued, as it was seen as the key to a better future. Page 9
  10. Despite the hardships, many people look back on their old school days with fondness. The friendships made and the lessons learned have left a lasting impact. The simplicity and discipline of the past have shaped many successful individuals today. Reference: Vietnam.Vn Question 36. What is the main idea of the passage? A. The simplicity of Vietnamese schools in the 1960s B. The modern advancements in Vietnamese education C. The traditional games played by students D. The importance of exams in Vietnamese schools Question 37. The word "simple" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____. A. complicated B. basic C. expensive D. modern Question 38. According to the passage, how did students usually get to school in the 1960s? A. By car B. By motorbike C. By walking or bicycle D. By bus Question 39. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to _____. A. teachers B. students C. bicycles D. schools Question 40. According to the passage, which statement is NOT true about Vietnamese schools in the 1960s? A. Teachers were highly respected. B. Students had access to modern technology. C. Physical punishment was sometimes used. D. Education was highly valued. PART E: WRITING Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the sentences given. Question 41 . I’m sorry that I can’t play music well. A. I wish I couldn’t play music well. B. I wish I can play music well. C. I wish I could play music well. D. I wish I will play music well. Question 42. They have lived in that town for over 20 years. A. They used to live in that town for over 20 years. B. They moved to that town more than 20 years ago. C. In 20 years, they will have lived in that town. D. They only lived in that town for a short time. Question 43. "Will you go to Ha Long Bay this summer?" my friend said. A. My friends asked if I will go to Ha Long Bay that summer. B. My friends asked if I would go to Ha Long Bay that summer. C. My friends said if I would go to Ha Long Bay this summer. D. My friends asked if would I go to Ha Long Bay that summer Question 44. Do more exercises and you will keep fit. A. If you don’t do more exercises, you will keep fit. B. Unless you do more exercises, you will keep fit. C. If you do more exercises, you won’t keep fit. Page 10
  11. D. If you do more exercise, you will keep fit. Choose the sentence that best combines each given pair of sentences. Question 45. The old man is my grandfather. He is sitting in front of you. A. The old man which is is sitting in front of you is my grandfather. B. The old man who is is sitting in front of you is my grandfather. C. The old man whose is is sitting in front of you is my grandfather. D. The old man whom is is sitting in front of you is my grandfather. Question 46 . It was raining heavily. The football match went on. A. Because it was raining heavily, the football match went on. B. Although it was raining heavily, the football match went on. C. It was raining heavily, so the football match went on. D. Since it was raining heavily, the football match went on. Question 47 . We learnt Engish to get a good job. We started it when we were in grade 11. A. We have learnt Engish to get a good job since we were in grade 11. B. We learnt Engish to get a good job when we are in grade 11. C. We had learnt Engish to get a good job when we were in grade 11. D. We has learnt Engish to get a good job since we were in grade 11. Question 48. Hung is 65 kg . Quan is 75 kg. A. Quan is heavier than Minh. B. Quan is as heavy as Hung . C. Minh is not shorter than Quang. D. Hung is as tall as Quan. III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/ letter in each of the following questions. Question 49: Rearrange the sentences to make a meaningful letter. A. Dear Neighbors, B. Finally, we hope to see you there and enjoy a fun day with your family and friends! C. Moreover, the festival will take place on Saturday, July 15th, from 10 AM to 4 PM at the community center. D. Firstly, we would like to invite you to our annual town festival next weekend. E. Additionally, there will be food stalls, games, and live entertainment for all ages. A. a-d-e-b-c B. a-d-c-e-b C. a-d-b-e-c D. a-d-b-c-e Question 50: Rearrange the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph. a. First, we were exploring the old library when we discovered a hidden room. b. The room contained many ancient books and artifacts. c. We had been searching for historical treasures in the library for hours. d. Afterwards, we carefully examined the items we found. e. Finally, we took some photos to document our discovery. f. The entire experience was both thrilling and educational. A. a-c-b-d-e-f B. a-b-d-e-f-c C. a-c-b-e-d-f D. a-b-d-f-e-c THE END Page 11
  12. V. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI ĐỀ THI TRẮC NGHIỆM PHÒNG GD&ĐT TP TAM ĐIỆP HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10- TSĐT TRƯỜNG THCS QUANG TRUNG Năm 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 01 trang) I. ĐÁP ÁN Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án 1 C 16 A 31 B 46 B 2 D 17 B 32 A 47 A 3 D 18 C 33 C 48 A 4 C 19 B 34 A 49 B 5 D 20 A 35 D 50 A 6 A 21 B 36 A 7 B 22 D 37 B 8 B 23 A 38 C 9 A 24 A 39 B 10 B 25 A 40 B 11 A 26 A 41 C 12 C 27 B 42 B 13 C 28 D 43 B 14 A 29 A 44 D 15 D 30 C 45 B Page 12
  13. PHẦN KÝ XÁC NHẬN Tên file đề thi: 3_TiengAnh_PG8_TS10D_2024_DE_SO_2 MÃ ĐỀ THI (DO SỞ GD&ĐT GHI): …………………………….. TỔNG SỐ TRANG LÀ: 13 TRANG NGƯỜI RA ĐỀ THI NGƯỜI THẨM ĐỊNH XÁC NHẬN CỦA BGH (Họ và tên, chữ ký) VÀ PHẢN BIỆN CỦA TRƯỜNG (Họ và tên, chữ ký) Đỗ Thị Thanh Page 13
ADSENSE

CÓ THỂ BẠN MUỐN DOWNLOAD

 

Đồng bộ tài khoản
2=>2