Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Tân Bình, Tam Điệp

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MA TRẬN ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT (BÀI THI ĐẠI TRÀ) Năm 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Mức độ nhận thức Tổng Vận Nhận Thông Vận dụng biết hiểu dụng TT Nội dung cao Thời Thời Thời Thời Thời Tỉ lệ (%) gian Tỉ lệ (%) gian Tỉ lệ (%) gian Tỉ lệ (%) gian Tỉ lệ (%) gian (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) 1 Phonetic 6 3 4 2 10 5 s 2 Lexico 0 0 8 4 8 5 4 3 20 12 3 Gramm 6 3 6 3 6 3 2 1 20 10 ar 4.1 Cloze- 4 2 4 2 2 1 10 5 test 4.2 Reading compreh 4 2 6 4 6 5 4 4 20 15 ension 5 Writing 0 0 2 1 8 5 10 7 20 13 Tổng 20 10 30 16 30 19 20 15 100 60 Tỉ lệ 20 30 30 20 (%)
Tỉ lệ chung 50 50 (%) BẢNG MÔ TẢ KĨ THUẬT ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT (BÀI THI ĐẠI TRÀ) Năm 2024 MÔN TIẾNG ANH Số câu Mức độ hỏi kiến theo thức, kĩ mức độ Tổng Số CH Đơn vị năng nhận Kĩ kiến TT cần thức năng thức/kỹ kiểm Vận năng Nhận Thông Vận tra, dụng đánh biết hiểu dụng cao giá TN TL TN TL TN TN TL I. Phần A: Nhận 3 3 Phonetics biết: - - Ph Phát âm 5 câu át đuôi: âm s/es, ed ng - Phát uy âm ên nguyên âm âm: và đôi/
ph đơn ụ - Phát âm âm phụ âm - Xá Thông c hiểu: đị - Trọng nh âm từ trọ có 2 âm ng tiết 2 âm - Trọng tro âm từ ng có từ 3 âm tiết từ trở lên Vận dụng: II. Phần B: Từ Nhận Lexico vựng biết: Thông theo 10 câu hiểu: các - Word chủ form điểm - Word 4 đã choice - học: Colloca - Our tion comm Vận 4 2 6 unity dụng:
- Our herita ge - - Our Phrasal verb world - Our future III. Phần C: Cấu Nhận Grammar trúc biết: - Thì động từ, dạng 1 1 động từ 10 câu - Câu điều kiện Thông hiểu: - Câu mong 3 ước - Câu so sánh Vận 3 1 4 dụng: - Câu gián tiếp
- Liên từ phụ thuộc (mệnh đề nhượng bộ, nguyên nhân, kết quả) Nhận Chức biết: năng - Đáp ngôn 1 1 lời cám ngữ: ơn, lời xin lỗi Thông hiểu: - Đáp lời đề nghị, 1 1 lời mời - Đáp lại quan điểm, ý kiến, … Vận dụng: IV. Phần D: Cloze Thông 2 2 test hiểu:
Reading - Lượng từ, giới từ 15 câu - Đại từ quan hệ, liên từ Vận dụng: - Từ 1 vựng (từ, cụm từ) Vận dụng cao: 1 1 - Mệnh đề Thông 2 2 5 Readi hiểu: ng - compr Adverti ehensi sement on - Announ cement - Sign, poster, …
Vận dụng: 1 4 - Passage Vận dụng cao: 2 2 - Passage Thông hiểu: Phần E: - Kết hợp thì động từ (HTHT, 1 Writing QKĐ, QKTD, QKHT) Rewriting sentences Vận dụng: 10 câu - Câu gián tiếp 1 - Câu điều kiện Vận dụng cao: - Câu bị động 1 2 - Các cấu trúc ngữ pháp khác Thông hiểu: - Câu ước muốn 1 Vận dụng: - Mệnh đề quan hệ 1 1 Combining sentences Vận dụng cao: - Mệnh đề nhượng bộ, nguyên nhân, kết quả 1 2 - Các cấu trúc ngữ pháp khác Arranging Thông hiểu: 1 1 - Sắp xếp từ thành câu.
Vận dụng: - Sắp xếp câu thành đoạn văn, bức 1 thư, …. Tổng 10 15 5 BẢNG NĂNG LỰC VÀ CẤP ĐỘ TƯ DUY ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT (BÀI THI ĐẠI TRÀ) Năm 2024 Môn: TIẾNG ANH Cấp độ tư duy Năng lực Nhận biết Hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao Ngữ Âm 3 câu 2 câu (1, 3, 5) (2, 4) Từ vựng 4 câu 2 câu 4 câu (6, 11, 14, 15) (10, 13) (7, 8, 9, 12) Ngữ Pháp 3 câu 3 câu 3 câu 1 câu (16, 17, 18) (19, 20, 22) (21, 23, 25) (24) 4 câu 5 câu 4 câu 2 câu Đọc hiểu (27, 28, 38, 39) (26, 29, 31, 36, 37) (30, 32, 33, 40) (34, 35) 1 câu 4 câu 5 câu Viết (43) (42, 45, 48, 49) (41, 44, 46, 47, 50) Tổng số câu hỏi theo cấp độ tư duy 10 15 15 10 Tỉ lệ theo mức độ tư duy 20 30 30 20
PHÒNG GD - ĐT TP TAM ĐIỆP KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT TRƯỜNG THCS TÂN BÌNH Năm học 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút ( Đề thi gồm 05 phần trong 06 trang) PART A: PHONETICS Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. proofs B. books C. points D. days Question 2. A. flute B. blue C. bump D. rule Question 3. A. chemical B. character C. technical D. charming Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 4. A. polite B. entrance C. attempt D. agree Question 5. A. depression B. informal C. interview D. attention PART B: VOCABULARY Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6. 1. I have a lot of __________ with people from different countries. A. friend B. friendlyC. friendliness D. friendships Question 7. She __________ the assignment without any mistakes. A. completes B. completes C. completed D. completing Question 8. She had a successful _____ in education and retired at the age of 58. A. employment B. occupation C. work D. career Question 9. Ms. Hoa is a skillful _____ who makes beautiful and unique dresses. A. hairdresser B. mechanic C. tailor D. worker Question 10. You want to become a surgeon? Are you _____ enough? A. fashionable B. calm C. stressful D. well-paid Question 11. To make your pronunciation better, listen to English speakers and try to __________ them.
A. translate B. understand C. guess D. imitate Question 12. People’s average income has increased _______ over the last ten years, from fifty to fifty-one million dong per year. A. considerably B. gradually C. significantly D. dramatically Question 13. Parents should help teenagers to _______ their own decisions on their future career. A. take B. bring C. pay D. make Question 14. The seaside resort always gets overcrowded in _______ season. A. low B. off C. hard D. peak Question 15. She was _______ a magazine as she waited in the doctor’s office. A. looking through B. looking into C. looking after D. looking forward to PART C: GRAMMAR Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 16. She __________ (live) in this city since she moved in 2000. A. lives B. has lived C. is living D. lived Question 17. We intend __________ him the truth for fear that he’ll fly into a fit of madness. A. to tell B. telling C. not tell D. not to tell Question 18. If she _______ to follow the traditional recipe, she should not put curry power in that dish A. want B. wants C. wanted D. wanting Question 19. I must thank the man from _____ I got the present. A. who B. whom C. that D. which Question 20. English is thought to be _____ than Math. A. harder B. the more hard C. hardest D. the hardest Question 21. She said _______ to enter law school. A. am I planning B. she is planning C. was I planning D. she was planning Question 22. _______his physical handicap, he has become a successful businessman. A. Although B. In spite C. Despite of D. In spite of Question 23. Paul lives _______Birmingham. He's a student at Birmingham University. A. in B. at C. on D. up Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 24. An: “I'm sorry I was late for the meeting.” Ba: “__________.”
A. No worries B. Please don't C. It's alright D. Never mind Question 25. An: “Could you help me with my homework?” Ba: “__________.” A. Sure, no problem B. I don't think so C. Maybe later D. I'll think about it PART D: READING Read the following announcements and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each gap. Go EcoTourism: Adventure with Purpose! � Explore, conserve, and make a (10) ____________ with Go EcoTourism! Immerse yourself (11) _______ nature, support local communities, and leave a positive impact. Booking at GoEcoTourism.com or calling 1-800-GO-GREEN connects you to (12) ________ eco-friendly adventure. Join us today for a purposeful travel experience! Question 26. A. difference B. different C. differently D. differ Question 27. A. at B. in C. on D. for Question 28. A. Ø B. the C. a D. an Look at the sign or the notice. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) for each of the following questions. Question 29. What does the sign say? Choose the best option. A. Students must leave their mobile phones at home. B. Students must not show their mobile phones to their friends. C. Students must turn off their mobile phones after getting into campus. D. Students must switch off their mobile phones before getting into campus. Question 30. What does the sign say? Choose the best option.
A. You have got a new email. B. You have to send an email. C. You have forgotten an email. D. You have to delete an email. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Scientists have dreamed for a long time about building a ‘flying train’ which can float through the air above the tracks. With Maglev technology, their dreams are now a reality. Maglev trains have no wheels. Instead, powerful magnets lift them into the air and push them forward, at speeds of up to 500 km per hour. As well as speed, Maglev has a number of advantages over other transport systems. The trains are quieter and the journey is smoother because they don’t have wheels. They are also greener because they don’t use fuel and so create less pollution. Right now there is only one high-speed Maglev train system in the world. It carries passengers from Shanghai city centre to the airport. However, work has started on a new, longer Maglev track in Japan. Trains will go from Tokyo to Nagoya in 40 minutes. But don’t expect to ride on it on your next trip to Japan. It won’t open until 2027! Then, in 2045, the line will extend to Osaka. There is one major problem with Maglev technology: it is incredibly expensive to build the tracks. Transport planners predict that the Tokyo to Osaka line will cost 91 billion dollars. The high cost means that Maglev technology probably won’t replace other forms of transport in the near future. However, the technology is still in development and somebody might find a cheaper and simpler way to build the tracks. And then, who knows? In the future, some of us might fly to work by train. (Adapted from Navigate by Caroline Krantz and Julie Norton) Question 31. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage? A. The End of Trains? B. Flying by Train C. Train System in Shanghai D. The Next Generation of Technology Question 32. The word powerful in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. heavy B. simple C. standard D. strong Question 33. According to paragraph 2, Maglev trains ________. A. don’t do much harm to the environment B. require a special type of fuel C. travel faster than other vehicles D. don’t make any noise Question 34. The word they in paragraph 2 refers to ______. A. wheels B. transport systems
C. Maglev trains D. advantages Question 35. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage? A. A high-speed Maglev train system was first developed in Shanghai. B. The cost of building Maglev train tracks can be enormous. C. Maglev train system in Japan will come into operation in 2045. D. Maglev trains can travel at an incredibly fast speed. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Florists, personal trainers, professors, and nutritionists all have healthy jobs according to research. There are many reasons for this. A florist, for example, sells flowers and plants to customers. This is very relaxing work. A personal trainer, on the other hand, is usually very fit. He or she trains other people to lose weight and to keep fit. However, research also shows that some jobs are 'unhealthy'. They cause a lot of stress and worry. For example, a taxi driver drives all day. He often faces traffic jams and difficult passengers too. A firefighter puts out dangerous fires and sometimes saves people from burning buildings. Most people are looking for the perfect job. They want a job that is interesting, with a good salary and not much stress. However, it is difficult to get everything. Healthy, relaxing jobs are usually not very well paid. On the other hand, people with stressful jobs often get good salaries. For example, the head of a big company gets a lot of money, but he or she does not always have good health, or the time to enjoy life. (Adapted from New Headway Academic Skills by Richard Harrison) Question 36. What does the passage mainly about? A. Ways to find a healthy job B. New evidence about stress C. Work and stress D. Jobs with good salaries Question 37. The word ‘trains’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. shares B. copies C. sings D. teaches Question 38. According to paragraph 2, unhealthy jobs _______. A. make people stressed B. aren’t very dangerous C. are quite relaxing D. cause traffic congestion Question 39. The word ‘They’ in paragraph 3 refers to _______. A. Jobs B. Salaries C. People D. Buildings Question 40. Which of the following is true, according to the passage? A. A personal trainer always follows a healthy diet. B. Only difficult passengers travel by taxi. C. People with relaxing jobs often get high salaries.
D. A president of a large company often has insufficient free time. PART E: WRITING Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the sentences given. Question 41. Mike asked John, “Do you like fruit juice? A. Mike asked John if you like fruit juice. B. Mike asked John if he like fruit juice. C. Mike asked John if you liked fruit juice. D. Mike asked John if he liked fruit juice. Question 42. Don’t tell lies to your boss or you'll be fired at once. A. If you don't tell lies to your boss, you'll be fired at once. B. If you tell lies to your boss, you'll be fired at once. C. You don't tell lies to your boss if you'll be fired at once. D. If you don't tell lies to your boss, you won’t be fired at once. Question 43. My brother doesn’t speak English perfectly well. A. My brother wishes he spoke English perfectly well. B. My brother wishes he speaks English perfectly well. C. My brother wishes he is speaking English perfectly well. D. My brother wishes he has spoken English perfectly well. Question 44. She visited her grandparents two years ago. A. She has visited her grandparents for two years. B. She hasn’t visited her grandparents for two years. C. She hasn’t visited her grandparents since two years. D. She hasn’t visited her grandparents two years ago. Choose the sentence that best combines each given pair of sentences. Question 45. My children had breakfast. Then they went to school on time yesterday. A. My children had had breakfast after they went to school on time yesterday. B. After my children had had breakfast, they went to school on time yesterday. C. After my children went to school on time yesterday, they had breakfast. D. After my children have breakfast, they went to school on time yesterday. Question 46. He had a headache. He stayed up late last night.
A. Although he had a headache, he stayed up late last night. B. In spite of the fact that a headache, he stayed up late last night. C. Though his having a headache, he stayed up late last night. D. Even though having a headache, he stayed up late last night. Question 47. Her old house is big. However, her new one is bigger. A. Her old house is biger than her new one. B. Her old house is bigger than her new one. C. Her new house is bigger than her old one. D. Her old house isn’t bigger than her new one. Question 48. The picture was beautiful. She was looking at it. A. The picture which she was looking it at was beautiful. B. The picture which she is looking at was beautiful. C. The picture which she was looking at it was beautiful. D. The picture which she was looking at was beautiful. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/email in each of the following questions. Question 49: a. Best wishes. b. First of all, self-study gives learners more freedom. They decide what they should study and how to learn depending on their abilities. c. Dear Lucy, I hope you are well. I am thinking about the advantages of self-study - learning at home without a teacher. d. Secondly, they can make learners responsible. They set their learning goals and make study plans to achieve them. e. Finally, it makes them more confident. Completing tasks and solving problems on their own boost learners' confidence. A. a – b – d – e – c B. c – b – d – e – a C. a – b – e – c – d D. c – e – b – d – a Question 50: a. Firstly, it is more convenient for Vietnam to promote its culture and learn about other countries. b. Secondly, this has created more educational opportunities for both Vietnamese and foreign students. c. Viet Nam has gained three main benefits since it joined different international organizations. d. Finally, joining these organizations has also helped Vietnam increase local and international tourism. Because Vietnam has become one of the most popular destinations, many foreign tourists are attracted by its scenic beauty.
e. For example, various cultural exchanges help visitors know more about our country, and Vietnamese people have a better chance of experiencing different cultures. A. c – b – e – a – d C. c – b – a – e – d B. c – a – e – b – d D. c – a – b – e – d ___THE END___
PHÒNG GD - ĐT TP TAM ĐIỆP HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH TRƯỜNG THCS TÂN BÌNH LỚP 10 THPT (BÀI THI ĐẠI TRÀ) NĂM 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 01 trang) I. ĐÁP ÁN. Tổng 50 câu x 0,2= 10 điểm Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án 1 D 21 D 41 D 2 C 22 D 42 A
3 D 23 A 43 A 4 B 24 A 44 B 5 C 25 A 45 B 6 D 26 A 46 A 7 C 27 B 47 C 8 D 28 D 48 D
9 C 29 D 49 B 10 B 30 A 50 B 11 D 31 B 12 B 32 D 13 D 33 A 14 D 34 C
15 A 35 C 16 B 36 C 17 A 37 D 18 B 38 A 19 B 39 C 20 A 40 D