Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Trường Yên, Hoa Lư

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Trường Yên, Hoa Lư

PHÒ ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT NG Năm 2024 GD& Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH ĐT HOA LƯ TRƯ ỜNG THC S TRƯ ỜNG YÊN MA TRẬN ĐỀ THI Mức độ nhận thức Tổng Vận Nhận Thôn Vận dụng biết g hiểu dụng cao TT Nội dung Thời Thời Thời Thời Thời Tỉ lệ gian Tỉ lệ gian Tỉ lệ gian Tỉ lệ gian Tỉ lệ gian (%) (phút (%) (phút (%) (phút (%) (phút (%) (phút ) ) ) ) ) 1 Phon 6 3 4 2 10 5 etics 2 Lexic 0 0 8 4 8 5 4 3 20 12 o 3 Gram 6 3 6 3 6 3 2 1 20 10 mar 4.1 Cloze 4 2 4 2 2 1 10 5 -test 4.2 Readi 4 2 6 4 6 5 4 4 20 15 ng comp
rehen sion 5 Writi 0 0 2 1 8 5 10 7 20 13 ng Tổng 20 10 30 16 30 19 20 15 100 60 Tỉ lệ 20 30 30 20 (%) Tỉ lệ chung (%) 50 50 BẢN ĐẶC TẢ ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT NĂM 2024 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 1. Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút. 2. Điểm toàn bài: 10,0 điểm. 3. Hình thức: Trắc nghiệm. 4. Phạm vi kiến thức: Trong phạm vi Chương trình GDPT 2018 do Bộ GDĐT ban hành, tập trung chủ yếu ở lớp 9 THCS, . Nội dung như sau: Số Phần Nội Dung Số Câu Điểm - Phát âm đuôi: 3 1,0 Phần A: Phát âm s/es. Phonetics nguyên âm - Phát âm và phụ âm nguyên âm: Chữ cái“u” - Phát âm phụ âm: chữ cái
Số Phần Nội Dung Số Câu Điểm “ch” - Trọng âm từ có 2 âm tiết - Trọng âm từ Xác định trọng có từ 3 âm tiết 2 âm trong từ (3 từ có đuôi -ion, -ic/ics, - eer, 01 từ có đuôi bất kì) - Word form Phần B: (02 câu ở 2 2 dạng khác Lexico nhau) Từ vựng theo các chủ điểm - Word choice đã học: (02 câu lựa - Our chọn danh từ, community 01 câu lựa chọn tính từ, 5 - Our heritage 2,0 01 câu lựa - Our world chọn động từ, - Our future 01 câu lựa chọn trạng từ) - Collocation 2 - Phrasal verb 1 Cấu trúc - Thì động từ 8 2,0 Phần C: (HTHT/QKTD) Grammar - Dạng động từ (V+V-ing/to V) - Câu điều kiện loại 1 với modal verbs - Đại từ quan hệ (who/ which làm chủ ngữ)
Số Phần Nội Dung Số Câu Điểm - Câu so sánh hơn - Câu gián tiếp (Statement) - Liên từ phụ thuộc (mệnh đề nhượng bộ, nguyên nhân, kết quả) - Giới từ (nơi chốn in/on/at)/ lượng từ. - Đáp lời lời Chức năng xin lỗi 2 ngôn ngữ - Đáp lời đề nghị Phần D: Cloze test (3 15 3,0 Reading câu) - - Mạo từ Advertisement - Đại từ quan - hệ/liên từ Announcement - Từ vựng - Instruction - Sign, poster, … - Câu biển hình Đọc biển hiệu ảnh (2 câu) - Câu biển chữ Reading Câu hỏi tìm comprehension tiêu đề (1) ( 5 câu) Câu hỏi từ Passage/ vựng (1) Article… Câu hỏi tìm (Lower level) mối liên hệ (1)
Số Phần Nội Dung Số Câu Điểm Câu hỏi tìm thông tin chi tiết (x 2) Câu hỏi tìm tiêu đề (1) Reading comprehension Câu hỏi từ ( 5câu) vựng (1) Passage/ Câu hỏi tìm Article… mối liên hệ (x1) (Higher level) Câu hỏi tìm thông tin chi tiết (x2) - Câu gián tiếp 10 2,0 Phần E: (Yes/No Writing questions) - Câu điều kiện (Loại 1) Rewriting - Câu ước sentences muốn (Hiện ( 4 câu) tại) - Các cấu trúc ngữ pháp khác ( HTHT ↔ QKĐ/ Used to/ Wh-words + to-infinitives) Combining - Mệnh đề quan sentences hệ (MĐQH xác (4 câu) định- trừ That- chỉ người và vật làm CN trong câu). - Mệnh đề nhượng bộ,
Số Phần Nội Dung Số Câu Điểm nguyên nhân, kết quả. - Kết hợp thì động từ (HTHT, QKĐ, QKTD) - Câu so sánh hơn. - Sắp xếp câu thành 1 đoạn văn và 1 bức thư Arranging (Mỗi bài (2 câu) khoảng 5-6 câu, sử dụng các từ liên kết ở đầu một số câu.) Tổng 50 10,0 BẢNG NĂNG LỰC VÀ CẤP ĐỘ TƯ DUY ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT Môn: TIẾNG ANH Cấp độ tư duy Năng lực Nhận biết Hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao Ngữ Âm 3 câu 2 câu (1, 3, 5) (2, 4)
Từ vựng 4 câu 2 câu 4 câu (6, 11, 14, 15) (10, 13) (7, 8, 9, 12) Ngữ Pháp 3 câu 3 câu 3 câu 1 câu (16, 17, 18) (19, 20, 22) (21, 23, 25) (24) 4 câu 5 câu 4 câu 2 câu Đọc hiểu (27, 28, 38, 39) (26, 29, 31, 36, 37) (30, 32, 33, 40) (34, 35) 1 câu 4 câu 5 câu Viết (43) (42, 45, 48, 49) (41, 44, 46, 47, 50) Tổng số câu hỏi theo cấp độ tư duy 10 15 15 10 20 Tỉ lệ theo mức độ tư duy 20 30 30 PHÒNG GD&ĐT HOA LƯ ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT TRƯỜNG THCS TRƯỜNG YÊN Năm 2024 Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) (Đề thi gồm 05 phần, trong 06 trang) PART A: PHONETICS Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. walks B. helps C. cuts D. begins Question 2. A. human B. mute C. forum D. uniform Question 3. A. school B. challenge C. chain D. cheese
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 4. A. reduce B. include C. combine D. balance Question 5. A. volunteer B. automantic C. resonable D. invitation PART B: LEXICO Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6. Now we are still looking for the ________ to the problem of traffic accidents. A. solve B. solver C. solution D. solvable Question 7. You will have to work hard if you want to ___________. A. succeed B. successfully C. success D. successful Question 8. ______ is a type of job that needs special training or a particular skill,especially if you continue to get better jobs and earn more money. A. vocation B. promotion C. profession D. career Question 9. After changing trains three times, we arrived at our ______ in the end. A. arrival B. destination C. departure D. excursion Question 10. I like the street food in Hoi An because it is delicious and ______. A. expensive B. fashionable C. affordable D. cosmopolitan Question 11. Let’s ______ a plan before starting the project. A. make B. do C. take D. perform Question 12. People’s average income has increased ________over the last ten year,from fifty to fifty-one million dong per year. A. dramatically B. considerably C. significantly D. gradually Question 13. He decided to______ an English course before going to work in America. A. take B. earn C. work D. run Question 14. He has a very good sense of______ .He never gets lost . A. rthythm B. direction C. timing D. duty Question 15. We are encouraging the people in our community to cut ______ on plastic bags. A. out B. around C. back D. down PART C: GRAMMAR Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 16. He move to England after he______ English for two years. A. learnt B. had learnt C. has learnt D. learning Question 17. I avoid ______ places where there are crowds of people. A. visiting B. to visit C. visited D. visit Question 18. If you train harder in three months, you ______ run a marthon. A.must B. can C. might not D. should not Question 19.I wish I ______pass the entrance exam. A. can B. did C. am D. could Question 20. No one in my class is______than Peter. A.tall B. taller C.tallest D.the tallest Question 21. My teacher said that she______ meet me next week. A. can B. will C. would D. must
Question 22. The new film is about a boy______can speak several languages. A. which B. who C. whose D. what Question 23. They have a small house near a lake ______the countryside. A. at B. on C. by D. in Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 24. - Mary: “Sorry for keeping you wating” - Peter: “______.” A. Never mind. B. Yes, certainly. C. You can say that again. D. Sorry, I have no idea. Question 25. - Mother: “Would you mind turning down the TV? I’m working.” - Son: “_____________” A. Yes, I am working, too. B. Thank you. I am pleased. C. No, I wouldn’t be working. D. Not at all. I’ll do it now. PART D: READING Read the following announcements and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each gap. Sea Life Center COST Adults $3.70 , children $2.00 Special prices (26)____ over sixties and school groups OPENING TIMES Every day except 25 and 26 December FOR CHILDREN Special quiz Animals are fed every morning from 9.30 am GROUPS Guided tours available – ask at (27)____ information desk NEW (28)_______ Walk through the big tunnel made of glass For more information, please call Mr Dung: 0847.673.252 Question 26. A. in B. on C.at D. for Question 27. A. the B. an C. a D. ∅ ( no article) Question 28. A.attractive B. attraction C. attractiveness D. attract Look at the sign or the notice. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) for each of the following questions. Question 29. What does the sign say? Choose the best option. A. Do not go straight ahead. B. You cannot park here. C. You can't turn left. D. You can turn left.
Question 30. What does the sign say? Choose the best option. A. You can litter here. B. You can’t litter here. C. The place is littering. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Solar energy is a long lasting source of energy which can be used almost anywhere. To generate solar energy, we only need solar cells and the sun! Solar cells can easily be installed on house roofs, so no new space is needed and each user can quietly generate their own energy. Compared to other renewable sources, they also possess many advantages. Wind and water power rely on turbines which are noisy, expensive and easy to break down. Solar cells are totally silent and non- polluting. As they have no moving parts, they require little maintenance and have a long life time. However, solar energy also has some disadvantages. We can only generate solar energy during daytime because the system depends on sunlight. Besides, solar cells require large area to work effectively. The main disadvantage of solar energy is that it costs about twice as much as traditional sources such as coal, oil, and gas. This is because solar cells are expensive. Scientists are hoping that the costs of solar cells will reduce as more and more people see the advantages of this environmentally friendly source of energy. 31. What does the passage primarily discuss? A. Advantages and disadvantages of solar energy. B. Solar energy’s advantages over other sources of energy. C. The cost of solar energy. D. Solar energy as an alternative for fossil fuels 32. What does the word “they” in line 4 refer to? A. solar energy users. B. other renewable resources. C. advantages. D. solar cells. 33. What is NOT mentioned as an advantage of solar cells? A. They require little maintenance. B. They are non-polluting.
C. They cost little to produce. D. They operate quietly. 34. Which of the following is NOT a traditional source of energy? A. solar energy B. oil C. coal D. gas 35.What does the word “advantages” in line 12 mean ? A. very bad B. resources C. benefit D. friendly Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Langston Hughes was one of the greatest American writers of the twentieth century. He was born in Joplin, Missouri, and moved to Cleveland at the age of fourteen. Four years later he went to Mexico and spent one year there before attending Columbia University in New York. For a few years after that he roamed the world as a seaman, visiting ports around the world and writing some poetry. He returned to the United States and attended Lincoln University, where he won the Witter Bynner Prize for undergraduate poetry. After graduating in 1928, he traveled to Spain and to Russia. His best novels include “ Not Without Laughter” and “ The Big Sea”. He wrote an autobiography in 1956 and also published several collections of poetry then. They include The Weary Blues (1926), The Dream Keeper (1932), Shakespeare in Harlem (1942), Fields of Wonder(1947), One Way 15 Ticket (1947), and Selected Poems (1959). A man of many talents, Hughes is one of the most accomplished writers in American literature history. 36. Which can be the best title for the passage? A. African-American writers B. The Harlem Renaissance C. The life of Langston Hughes D. American twentieth-century writers 37. Langston Hughes was_____ years old when he went to Mexico. A. 14. B. 18. C. 16. D. 20 38. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. L. Hughes had lived in Mexico for a year before he left for New York. B. L. Hughes used to travel by ship to many ports around the world. C. L. Hughes attended Columbia University in New York at fourteen. D. “The Big Sea” is one of L. Hughes’s best works. 39. The underlined word ‘they ’ refers to _____. A. collections of poetry B. autobiography C. novels D. writers 40. The underlined word “accomplished” is closest in meaning to _____. A. hardworking B. well-known C. creative D. talented PART E: WRITING Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the sentences given. Question 41. “Do you speak English?"He ask me A. He asked me if do I speak English. B. He asked me if I spoke English. C. He asked me if I speak English.
D.He asked me if do you speak English. Question 42. Get up early or you will be late for school. A.If you don’t get up early , you will be late for school. B.If you get up early, you will be late for school. C.If you will be late for school,you get up early D.If you got up early, you will be late for school. Question 43. I’m sorry that I can’t speak English well. A. I wish I couldn’t speak English well. B. I wish I can speak English well. C. I wish I could speak English well. D. I wish I will speak English well. Question 44. “ What should I do to stop arguing with my sister?” Linh wondered A. Linh wondered what doing to stop arguing with her sister B. Linh wondered what to do to stop arguing with her sister C. Linh wondered what she to do to stop arguing with her sister D. Linh wondered what should she do to stop arguing with her sister Choose the sentence that best combines each given pair of sentences. Question 45. The teacher can’t come to class today. He teaches us English. A. The teacher can’t come to class today who teaches us English. B. The teacher which teaches us English can’t come to class today. C. The teacher whom teaches us English can’t come to class today. D. The teacher who teaches us English can’t come to class today. Question 46. Her living conditions were difficult ;However, she studied very well. A. Although she lived in difficult living conditions, she etudied very well. B. She studied very well because of her difficult living conditions. C. She studied very well ,so she lived in difficult conditions. D. Because her living conditions were difficult, she studied very well. Question 47. I came home last night. My mother was cooking dinner. A. When I came home, my mother was cooking dinner. B. When I was coming home, my mother was cooking dinner. C. While I was coming home, my mother was cooking dinner. D. While I came home, my mother was cooking dinner. Question 48. Her old house is big. However, her new one is bigger. A. Her old house is biger than her new one. B. Her old house is bigger than her new one. C. Her new house is bigger than her old one. D. Her old house isn’t bigger than her new one. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/email in each of the following questions. Question 49: a. The better you feel about yourself, the more likely you are to have a positive view of your life and future goals. b. In short, there are numerous benefits that people can gain by doing volunteer work. c. Doing volunteer brings lots of benefits. d. Firstly, it connects you to others. Volunteering allows you to connect to your community and make it a better place.
e. Moreover, volunteering is good for your mind and body. Doing volunteer can provide a healthy boost to your self-confidence, self-esteem, and life satisfaction. f. Last not but least, you will have a chance to try out a new career when doing volunteer work. A. c-d-e-a-f-b B. c-d-e-b-a-f C. d-b-e-a-c-f D. d-b-e-a-c-f Question 50: a.Best wishes. b.First of all, self-study gives learners more freedom. They decide what they should study and how to learn depending on their abilities. c.Dear Lucy; I hope you are well. I am thinking about the advantages of self-study - learning at home without a teacher. d.Secondly, they can make learners responsible. They set their learning goals and make study plans to achieve them. e.Finally, it makes them more confident. Completing tasks and solving problems on their own boost learners' confidence. A. d-c-a-b-e B. e-c-d-a-b C. c-b-d-e-a D. c-d-a-e-b ___THE END___
PHÒNG GD&ĐT HOA LƯ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM TRƯỜNG THCS TRƯỜNG YÊN ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT Năm 2024 Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH (Hướng dẫn chấm trong 01 trang) Câu 1 Câu 2 Câu 3 Câu 4 Câu 5 Câu 6 Câu 7 Câu 8 Câu 9 Câu 10 D C A D C C A C B C Câu 11 Câu 12 Câu 13 Câu 14 Câu 15 Câu 16 Câu 17 Câu 18 Câu 19 Câu 20 A D A B D B A B D B Câu 21 Câu 22 Câu 23 Câu 24 Câu 25 Câu 26 Câu 27 Câu 28 Câu 29 Câu 30 C B D A D D A B C B Câu 31 Câu 32 Câu 33 Câu 34 Câu35 Câu 36 Câu 37 Câu 38 Câu 39 Câu 40 A A C A C C B C A D Câu 41 Câu 42 Câu 43 Câu 44 Câu 45 Câu 46 Câu 47 Câu 48 Câu 49 Câu 50 B A C B D A A C A C
THÔNG TIN VỀ ĐỀ THI: TÊN FILE ĐỀ THI: 3_TiengAnh_PG3 _TS10D_2024_DE_SO_1 TỔNG SỐ TRANG ( GỒM ĐỀ THI VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM) LÀ 07 TRANG. Họ và tên người ra đề thi: Nguyễn Thị Nhâm Đơn vị công tác: Trường THCS Trường Yên,Hoa Lư,Ninh Bình. Số điện thoại: 0332094996