Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2025-2026 có đáp án - Trường THCS Gia Hòa, Gia Viễn

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Tham khảo “Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2025-2026 có đáp án - Trường THCS Gia Hòa, Gia Viễn” để giúp các em làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi, đồng thời ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức căn bản trong chương trình học. Tham gia giải đề thi để ôn tập và chuẩn bị kiến thức và kỹ năng thật tốt cho kì thi sắp diễn ra nhé!

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2025-2026 có đáp án - Trường THCS Gia Hòa, Gia Viễn

PHÒ KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT NG Năm học 2025 - 2026 GD& MA TRẬN ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO ĐT Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH GIA VIỄN TRƯ ỜNG THC S GIA HÒA Mức độ nhận thức Tổng Vận Nhận Thông Vận dụng biết hiểu dụng TT Nội dung cao Thời Thời Thời Thời Thời Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ gian gian gian gian gian (%) (%) (%) (%) (%) (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) 1 Phon 6 3 4 2 10 5 etics 2 Lexic 0 0 8 4 8 5 4 3 20 12 o 3 Gra mma 6 3 6 3 6 3 2 1 20 10 r 4.1 Cloze 4 2 4 2 2 1 10 5 -test 4.2 Read ing comp 4 2 6 4 6 5 4 4 20 15 rehen sion 5 Writi 0 0 2 1 8 5 10 7 20 13 ng Tổng 20 10 30 16 30 19 20 15 100 60 Tỉ lệ 20 30 30 20 (%) Tỉ lệ chung (%) 50 50 Page 1
BẢNG NĂNG LỰC VÀ CẤP ĐỘ TƯ DUY ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT Môn: TIẾNG ANH Cấp độ tư duy Năng lực Vận Nhận biết Hiểu Vận dụng dụng cao 3 câu 2 câu Ngữ Âm (1, 3, 4) (2, 5) 4 câu 2 câu 4 câu Từ vựng (6, 11, 13, 15) (10, 14) (7, 8, 9, 12) 1 câu 3 câu 3 câu 3 câu Ngữ Pháp (24) (16, 17, 19) (20, 22,25) (18, 21, 23,) 2 câu 4 câu 5 câu 4 câu Đọc hiểu (32, 35) (27, 28, 37, 38) (26, 29, 31, 36, 39) (30, 33, 34, 40) 5 câu 1 câu 4 câu (42, 44, Viết (43) (45, 46, 41, 49) 47, 48, 50) Tổng số câu hỏi theo cấp độ tư duy 10 15 15 10 Tỉ lệ theo mức độ tư 20 duy 20 30 30 Page 2
PHÒNG GD&ĐT GIA VIỄN KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT TRƯỜNG THCS GIA HÒA Năm học 2025 - 2026 Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) PART A: PHONETICS Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. chairs B. desks C. maps D. plants Question 2. A. moon B. food C. pool D. foot Question 3. A. watch B. much C. exchange D. machine Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 4. A. effort B. actor C. perform D. area Question 5. A. disappear B. recommend C. entertain D. fortunate PART B: VOCABULARY Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6. Nowadays, most students use ________ calculators in their studies and examinations. A. electrician B. electric C. electronic D. electrical Question 7. The government is implementing measures to ensure the __________ of the educational system. A. Qualify B. Quality C. Qualitative D. Qualification Question 8. People who make products like pottery or cloth with their hands are called _____ A. artisans B. taxi driver C. delivers D. firefighters Page 3
Question 9. Mr Black always __________ priority to his study when he has the final exam. A. does B. gets C. makes D. gives Question 10. The Internet has __________ developed and become part of our daily life. A. carelessly B. rapidly C. unclearly D. polluted Question 11. Now, at the age of over 80, the artisan is leaving the craft to his descendants with a desire to ________ this ancient craft. A. reserve B. change C. preserve D. consider Question 12. In the past, local ________were chosen to make sophisticated embroidered costumes for the Vietnamese King, Queen and other Royal family members. A. skillful artists B. skill workers C. skillfully works D. skilled artisans Question 13. I prefer to work________ That allows me time to take my children to school. A. full-time B. flexitime C. overtime D. part-time Question 14. Miss Hoa has no sense of ________ at all. She never chooses the right colour or the right clothes for herself. A. style B. humour C. direction D. responsibility Question 15. We are encouraging the people in our community to cut________ on plastic bags. A. out B. around C. down D. back PART C: GRAMMAR Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 16. I saw a terrible accident while I _______ on the beach. A. am walking B. was walking C. were walking D. walked Question 17. Tommy admitted _____ the rock through the window. A. throwing B. being throwing C. to throw D. to be thrown Question 18. I met the woman__________can speak 6 languages. A. whom B. whose C. who D. which Question 19. If he works harder, he _____pass the entrance examination. A. would B. will C. is going to D. could Page 4
Question 20. Mai doesn’t pass the exam. She wishes she_____ the exam. A. pass B. passes C. to pass D. passed Question 21. __________ what she said yesterday, he still loves her. A. In spite of B. Though C. Because D. Because of Question 22. John drivers ______ than we do. A. more careful B. the most careful C. more carefully D. carefully Question 23. David said that his parents ______ very proud of his good marks that day. A. were B. was C . are D. was not Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 24. John: – John: “Thanks for the nice gift.you bought to us” - Henry: “_________________________” A. Not at all, don’t mention it. B. Welcome! It ‘s very nice of you C. All right. Do you know how much does it costs D. No, thanks.I don’t like it Question 25. Mai: “Could you open the window please? - Lan: “_____” A. yes,I can B. I’m of course C. I feel sorry. D. Yes. With my pleasure. PART D: READING Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks Mobile phones: a benefit or social nuisance? Few people under 30 will be able to imagine a time before the existence of mobile phones. Neither will they be (26)_________of the harmful effect that many people predicted text language would have on young people’s language skills. Interestingly, linguists nowadays believe that expressing oneself clearly in texts is evidence of a good background in grammar and sentence structure. Mobile phones are credited with encouraging people to communicate more. They can also provide reassurance to people (27)_________are alone in dangerous situations. Some people use mobile phones as a kind of barrier to unwelcome social contact; texting can signal your unavailability to other people in the same way that wearing sunglasses and headphones does. Some issues with mobile phones are still controversial. Talking loudly on the phone while on public transport is thought to be rude and inconsiderate by many people in the Page 5
UK. (28)_________, a significant minority of people still do it, despite the sighing and other obvious signs of disapproval from their fellow passengers. (Adapted from “AdvancedExpert’’ by Jan Bell and Roger Gower) Question 26. A. anxious B. alert C. aware D. forgetful Question 27 A. which B. when C. where D. who Question 28. A. Therefore B. However C. Moreover D. Otherwise Look at the sign or the notice. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) for each of the following questions. Question 29. What does sign (A) say? A. You mustn't drive after drinking. B. You shouldn't drive under the influence of drugs. C. You must be careful with drunk drivers. D. You should be careful as there is a pub ahead. Question 30. What does sign (B) say? A. It's okay to copy other students’ work B. Be honest and do your own work C. Help others cheat D. Ignore the rules Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their number has varied from one to forty-eight stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to the early years of the twentieth century bore thirteen stars representing the thirteen original colonies. Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in 1794, had fifteen stars because by that time Vermont and Kentucky have joined the Union. At that time it was apparently Page 6
the intention of mint officials to add a star for each new state. Following the admission of Tennessee in 1796, for example, some varieties of half dimes, dimes, and half dollars were produced with sixteen stars. As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this scheme would not prove practical and the coins from 1798 were issued with only thirteen Stars - one for each of the original colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one variety of the 1828 half-cent was issued with only twelve stars. There is also a variety of the large cent with only 12 stars, but this is the result of a die break and is not a true error. Question 31: What is the main topic of the passage? A. Stars on American coins B. The teaching of astronomy in state universities C. Colonial stamps and coins D. The star as national symbol of the United States Question 32: The expression "Curiously enough" is used because the author finds it strange that _____. A. Tennessee was the first state to use half dimes B. Vermont and Kentucky joined the Union in 1794 C. silver coins with fifteen stars appeared before coins with thirteen D. no silver coins were issued until 1794 Question 33: Why was a coin produced in 1828 with only twelve stars? A. Tennessee had left the Union. B. The mint made a mistake. C. There were twelve states at the time. D. There is a change in design policy. Question 34: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the denomination of an American coin? A. Half nickel B. Half-dollar C. Hall cent D. Half dime Question 35: The word "their" in line 1 refers to _________. A. features B. coins C. stars D. colonies Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (low level) After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However, he foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks before his death, he created a fund to be used for awarding prizes to people who had made worldwide Page 7
contributions to mankind. Originally there were five awards: literature, physics, chemistry, medicine and peace. Economics was added in 1968, just sixty-seven years after the first awarded ceremony.It was established by a donation from Sweden's central bank Sveriges Riksbank to the Nobel Foundation to commemorate the bank's 300th anniversary. Nobel’s original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this sum is used for the awards which vary from 30.000 dollars to 125.000 dollars. Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel’s death, the awards (gold medals, illuminated diploma and money) are present to the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important role in the judges’ decision. American have won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes. No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War II. Some people have won two prizes, but this is rare; others have shares their prizes. Question 36: Which can be the best title for the passage? A.The history of dynamite. B.The anniversary of Nobel’s death. C.The Nobel Prize. D. The Swedish-born Alfred Nobel. Question 37: In which area have Americans received the most awards? A. Literature B.Peace C. Economic D. Science Question 38: According to the passage, the Nobel’s prize was established _____. A.to resolve political differences. B.to recognize worldwide contributions to humanity. C.to honor the inventor of dynamite. D.to spend money. Question 39: The underlined word ‘it’ refers to your _____. A.The first awarded ceremony. B.A donation from Sweden's central bank. C.The Nobel award of Economics. D.The Nobel Foundation. Question 40:. The underlined word “numerous” is closest in meaning to _____. A.a lot of B. a number of C. a few D.a little PART E: WRITING Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 41. The last time I saw her was three years ago. Page 8
A. I have not seen her for three years. B. About three years ago, I used to meet her. C. I have often seen her for the last three years. D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her. Question 42. “Will it rain tomorrow morning?” He asked his friend A. He asked his friend if it would rain the next morning. B. He asked his friend if it would rain tomorrow morning. C. He asked his friend if it will rain the next morning. D. He asked his friend whether it would raining the next morning. Question 43.We often flew the kite when we were young but now we don’t. A. we are used to flying the kite when we were young. B. we used to fly the kite when we were young. C.we used to flew the kite when we were young. D. weused to flying the kite when we were young. Question 44. Study hard or you won’t pass the entrance exam. A. If you study hard, you won’t pass the entrance exam. B. If you don’t study hard, you will pass the entrance exam. C. If you will study hard, you will pass the entrance exam. D. If you don’t study hard, you won’t pass the entrance exam. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is best combined from two given sentences. Question 45. The salary is low. she decided to accept the job. A. In spite of the salary is low, she decided to accept the job. B. Dispite the salary is low, she decided to accept the job. C. Though the salary is low, she decided to accept the job. D. She decided to accept the job dispite the salary is low. Question 46. It is a pity. I am not good at English. A. I wish I am not good at English. B. I wish I was not good at English. C. I wish I were good at English. D. I wish I am good at English Question 47. I came back home . My father was watching a football match on TV. A. When I come back home, my father was watching a football match on TV. Page 9
B. When I came back home, my father was watching a football match on TV. C. While I was coming back home, my father was watching a football match on TV. D. While I come back home, my father was watching a football match on TV. Question 48. The woman is my teacher. Her son is my best friend. A. The woman whose son is my best friend is my old teacher. B. The woman who son is my best friend is my old teacher. C. The woman which son is my best friend is my old teacher. . D. The woman whom son is my best friend is my old teacher. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/ letter in each of the following questions. Question 49. Arranging sentences to make a letter a. Best wishes. b. First of all, self-study gives learners more freedom. They decide what they should study and how to learn depending on their abilities. c. Dear Lucy, I hope you are well. I am thinking about the advantages of self-study - learning at home without a teacher. d. Secondly, they can make learners responsible. They set their learning goals and make study plans to achieve them. e. Finally, it makes them more confident. Completing tasks and solving problems on their own boost learners’ confidence. A. d-b-a-c-e B. c-b-d-e-a C. b-d-a-c-e D. c-a-e-b-d Question 50. Arranging sentences to make a paragraph: a. Cross-cultural learning has three main benefits. d. Firstly, it helps understand and respect different backgrounds, making us more open- minded. b. Secondly, it allows us to learn new ways of thinking and problem-solving by exchanging ideas with others. c. Finally, it encourages us to appreciate diversity and work together with people from various cultures e. So it is important to learn about different cultures around the world. Page 10
A. b-d-a-e-c B. a-b-d-e-c C. a-d-b-c-e D. d-b-a-e-c PHÒNG GD&ĐT GIA VIỄN HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 TRƯỜNG THCS GIA HOÀ Năm học 2025-2026 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 01 trang) I. ĐÁP ÁN Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án 1 A 21 A 41 A 2 D 22 C 42 A 3 D 23 A 43 B 4 C 24 A 44 D 5 D 25 D 45 C 6 C 26 C 46 C 7 B 27 D 47 B 8 A 28 B 48 A 9 D 29 A 49 B 10 B 30 B 50 C 11 C 31 B 12 D 32 C 13 B 33 B 14 A 34 A 15 C 35 C 16 B 36 C 17 A 37 D 18 C 38 B 19 B 39 C 20 D 40 A Môn Tiếng Anh: Mỗi câu 0,2 điểm PART A: PHONETICS: 5 câu = 01 điểm PART B: VOCABULARY: 10 câu = 02 điểm PART C: GRAMMAR: 10 câu = 02 điểm PART D: READING: 15 câu = 03 điểm PART E: WRITING: 10 câu = 02 điểm Page 11
THÔNG TIN VỀ ĐỀ THI TÊN FILE ĐỀ THI: 3_TiengAnh_PG2_TS10D_2024_DE_SO_1 TỔNG SỐ TRANG (GỒM ĐỀ THI VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM) LÀ: 09 TRANG. Họ và tên người ra đề thi: Nguyễn Quyết Chiến Đơn vị công tác: Trường THCS Gia Hoà Số điện thoại: 0972725168 Page 12