Đề cương ôn tập học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2020-2021 - Trường THPT Thái Phiên

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Cùng ôn tập với Đề cương ôn tập học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2020-2021 - Trường THPT Thái Phiên được chia sẻ dưới đây, các câu hỏi được biên soạn theo trọng tâm kiến thức từng chương, bài sẽ giúp bạn dễ dàng ôn tập cũng như củng cố vững chắc kiến thức môn học. Chúc các bạn ôn tập thật tốt để làm bài kiểm tra học kì đạt điểm cao.

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TRƯỜNG THPT THÁI PHIÊN TỔ NGOẠI NGỮ ĐỀ CƯƠNG ÔN TẬP KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ 2 - LỚP 10 CT 7 NĂM NĂM HỌC : 2020 - 2021 I. Nội dung kiến thức thống nhất chung của Tổ :( từ tuần 19 đến hết tuần 31 ) NỘI DUNG KIẾN THỨC (TỪ UNIT 9 ĐẾN UNIT 14) A. Pronunciation : I I. Unit 9 :/ iə/, / eə /,/ uə/ IV. Unit 12 : / s / and /z / / iə/ : here, clear , dear , idea / / s/ : Sue , sip ,classical , piece , bus /eə / : careful, square , hair / /z/ : zoo , music , prize , busy , buzz / / uə/ : poor , sure , tour , usual V. Unit 13 : / f / and / v / II. Unit 10 : / b / and / p / / /f /: fan , laugh , enough , photograph / / b/ : bee , cab , ban, bad, back , bright / / v/ : van, view , Stephan , leave / p / : pea , pan, cap , power , provide. VI. Unit 14 : / g / and / k / III. Unit 11: / t / and / d / / / g/ : group , globe , again , together / / t/ : topic, toxic , contain , worked . hoped / / k / : club , kind , kick , compete , because / / d/ : difficulty , invader , dependent , played , lived B. Grammar : I. Conditional sentences (Câu điều kiện ) Type If clause ( Mệnh đề If ) Main clause ( Mệnh đề chính ) II S+ V ( simple past ) S + would + infinitive could III S+ had( not ) + PP S + would have + PP could II. Passive voice : (Câu bị động ) Active voice : ( Câu chủ động ) S + V + O Passive voice : S + be + PP + ( by agent ) Tenses Active Passive 1. Present simple S + V-s / es + O S+ am / is / are + PP 2. Present continuous S + am / is / are + V- ing + O S + am / is / are + being + PP 3. Present perfect S + have / has + PP + O S + + have / has + been + PP 4. Past simple S + V–ed + O S + was/ were + PP 5. Past continuous S + were / was + V- ing + O S + was / were + being + PP 6. Past perfect S + had + PP + O S + had been + PP 7. Simple future S + will + V- inf + O S+ will be + PP 8. Modal verbs S + can / should + inf + O S+ can be + PP III. TO-INFINITIVE TO TALK ABOUT A PURPOSE S+V(O) to + in order to + infinitive so as to Ex: What do you learn English for ? / Why do you learn English ? – I learn English to get a good job . in order to so as to S+V(O) in order not to + infinitive so as not to + infinitive Ex: She studied hard in order not to / so as not to fail the exam. We disconnect our phone in order not to/ so as not to get any phone calls . IV . Adjectives of attitude ( Các tính từ chỉ thái độ ) 1
1. Từ một số đông từ, ta có thể hình thành các tính từ bằng cách thêm –ING hay –ED vào các động từ đó Ex : bore (v) boring (adj ) bored (adj ) 2. Tính từ dạng -ing thường mang nghĩa năng động , dùng diễn tả tính chất , bản chất của một người hay một vật. Ex : The movie was disappointing / boring . Tính từ dạng -ed thường mang nghĩa bị động và thường được sử dụng để mô tả cảm xúc , tình cảm của một người trước một sự việc bên ngoài Ex : We were disappointed / bored with the movie V. IT WAS NOT UNTIL ...THAT : mãi cho đến khi It was not until + year / noun + that + clause Ex : The cinema didn‟t become an industry until 1915. It was not until 1915 that the cinema became an industry . She was not allowed to open her presents until her birthday It was not until her birthday that she was allowed to open her presents It was not until + clause + that + clause Ex : He didn‟t do his homework until his father came home . It was not until his father came home that he did his homework . VI. Articles : 1. Cách dùng mạo từ không xác định a/an : a. Dùng mạo từ không xác định trước các danh từ chỉ nghề nghiệp. Ex: He is a famous doctor . My sister is an engineer . b. Dùng mạo từ không xác định trước các danh từ đếm được số ít được đề cập lần đầu tiên . Ex: This morning I bought a newspaper. 2. Cách dùng mạo từ xác định The : a. Dùng mạo từ xác định trước các danh từ được lặp lại lần thứ hai trở lên . Ex : There is a bedroom and a living room . The bedroom is big . b. Dùng mạo từ xác định trước các danh từ chỉ vật duy nhất . Ex : The moon is full tonight . c. Dùng mạo từ xác định trước các danh từ được xác địnhbởi các mệnh đề hay cụm từ theo sau Ex: This is the manI told you about . d. Dùng mạo từ xác định trước các tên các nhạc cụ . My sister can play the piano very well . e. Dùng mạo từ xác định trước các tên các đại dương , sông . Ex : The Thames flows into the North Sea f. Dùng mạo từ xác định trước dạng so sánh bậc nhất , số thứ tự Ex : You are the first and I am the last. 3. Các trường hợp không sử dụng mạo từ : a. Không dùng mạo từ trước các danh từ số nhiều chỉ chủng loại Ex I like orange juice / I hate ants b. Không dùng mạo từ trước hầu hết các danh từ riêng . Ex : We live in Da Nang c. Không dùng mạo từ trước tên các bữa ăn . Ex : We often have lunch at twelve . d. Không dùng mạo từ trước các phương tiện vận chuyển nói chung chung. Ex : We go to school by bicycle . e. Không dùng mạo từ trước môn học . Ex : I like to learn English . 2
II . “ BE GOING TO + INFINITIVE” AND “ WILL + INFINITIVE” S + am/ is /are + going to + Infinitive S + will + infinitive - Dùng để diễn tả một hành động sẽ xảy ra trong Dùng để diễn tả một hành động sẽ xảy ra trong tương lai mà được quyết định từ trước hay có tương lai mà được quyết định ngay khi nói chứ không kế hoạch từ trước . hề có kế hoạch từ trước . Ex: A: Why are you turning on the television ? Ex :A. I have got a headache . B. Because I’m going to watch the news . B . Have you? Wait here and I will get an aspirin for you. C. VOCABULARY: Topics: 1. Undersea world. 2. Conservation. 3. National parks. 4. Music. 5. Films and cinema. 6. The World Cup. 3
III. Một số đề minh họa: SAMPLE TEST 1 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (6.5 điểm): LISTENING Listen to six railway station announcements and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point) Statements T F Question 1. The train from London Paddington is late. Question 2. The train to Manchester leaves from platform 2. Question 3. The train to Edinburgh leaves at quarter to two. Question 4. The ticket office isn‟t open in the evening. You will listen to an interview with a surfer. Listen and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following questions from 6 to 10. You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point) Question 5. When are his exams? A. This year. B Next year. C. Next month. D. This week. Question 6. In summer, how often does Joshua go surfing on schooldays? A. Once a day. B. Twice a day. C. Three times a day. D. Four times a day. Question 7. Why does Joshua do homework at lunchtime? A. Because he can‟t go surfing at lunchtime. B. Because he wants more time for surfing. C. Because he often studies with his friend. D. Because he works hard. Question 8. Why doesn‟t Joshua surf before breakfast in the winter? A. Because there isn‟t enough light. B. Because it‟s hard to get up early in winter. C. Because the waves are not good. D. Because it‟s too cold. LANGUAGE Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions (0,5 point). Question 9. A. pair B. chair C. nail D. hair Question 10. A. general B. group C. great D. game Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions (1,5 point). Question 11. They were very _________ with the movie. A. disappointment B. disappointed C. disappoint D. disappointing Question 12. My car ____________ at this garage once a month. A. is serviced B. is being stored C. will be serviced D. have been serviced Question 13. We have to work together to _______ a solution to the problem. A. find B. do C. make D. bring Question 14. – “I‟d love to watch the final, but I haven‟t got a ticket.” - “Well, I‟ve got two free tickets to the match. I ____________ you one”. A. am going to give B. give C. am giving D. will give Question 15. He _______ the television in the middle of the program. A. went out B. turned off C. got up D. turned up Question 16. ______ breakfast is ______ first meal of the day. A. The/ the B. A/ ø C. The/ ø D. ø / the READING Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the passage (1,0 point). Westminster Abbey is a very big church in Westminster, London. It is one of the (17) _______ famous buildings in London. Most of the present building, which replaced an earlier one, was built in the 13th and 14th centuries, in the Gothic style. Every English king and queen has been crowned there (18) _______ William the Conqueror in 1066. Many famous English people are buried in the Abbey or have memorials in it, and it contains. Poets Corner and the Tomb of the Unknown Soldier. In 1997, the (19) _______ of Diana Princess of Wales (20) _______ place there. The Abbey was made a World Heritage Site in 1987. 4
Question 17. A. most B. best C. least D. worst Question 18. A. during B. from C. for D. since Question 19. A. wedding B. ceremony C. baptism D. funeral Question 20. A. made B. took C. got D. set Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the questions (1,0 point). All over the world people listen to classical music. Classical music is difficult to describe. It means different things to different people. Some famous classical composers were Bach, Vivaldi, Haydn, and Mozart. In their music, they did not tell a story or show strong emotion. They wanted to make a beautiful, interesting design. They wanted to write lovely sounds. Then composers started to interpret ideas. They told stories about wars, armies and soldiers. They wrote about religion. Sometimes they composed music for holidays. They told love stories and showed strong emotion. Some of these composers were Beethoven, Schumann Chopin, Mendelssohn, Wagner, and Tchaikovsky. Classical music stays with people a long time. Bach wrote about 300 years ago, Beethoven wrote about 200 years ago, and Tchaikovsky wrote over 100 years ago. Sometimes people close their eyes to listen to classical music. When they close their eyes, they can see the design. They can listen to the same classical music many times and enjoy it. Sometimes it is difficult to understand. The listener has to think about it. However, we can all learn to enjoy some classical music. It is very important to people. Question 21. Classical music is popular _____. A. in the Western B. in Europe C. in the United States D. all over the world Question 22. The word 'they' in the second paragraph refers to ______. A. composers B. writers C. dancers D. singers Question 23. The word “important” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______. A. significant B. different C. interesting D. beautiful Question 24. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Classical music is different from people to people. B. Classical music is different to understand so the listener always has to think about it. C. Classical music was composed by famous musicians very long time ago. D. Classical music is necessary for people because it makes life more colorful. WRITING Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction (0,5 point). Question 25. When we came to the beach yesterday, a sun was shining. A B C D Question 26. The bag looks heavy. I am going to help you with it. A B C D II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN Rewrite the following sentences, beginning as shown, without changing their meaning (0,5 point). Question 27. He didn‟t know how to cycle until he was 20. (rewrite the sentence, beginning with the words given.) → It was not until _____________________________________________ ___________________. Question 28. Nam didn‟t work hard, so he failed his examination. (rewrite the sentence, using a Conditional sentence.) → If Nam had ___________________________________________________________________ . Writing Write an announcement about 100 - 120 words, following these guidelines. (1,0 point) You are the head of the Ho Chi Minh Communist Youth Union of your school. Your school‟s football team is going to play a friendly match with the Horizon Football Club at 5 p.m. on Sunday, April 20th in the Youth Football Field. Write an announcement for this match. THE END 5
SAMPLE TEST 2 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (6.5 điểm): LISTENING Listen to Amanda talking to a friend about a birthday party and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point) Statements T F Question 1. Amanda invited eleven people to the party. Question 2. They will have ice cream made with coffee. Question 3. It‟s Amanda‟s birthday party. Question 4. People should arrive at 8:30 p.m. You will hear a woman asking for some information about a job. Listen and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following questions. You will hear the recording twice. (1.0point) Question 5. Where did the woman see the job advertisement? A. on the Internet B. on T.V C. in the newspaper D. in a notice Question 6. What does the shop sell? A. boots B. women‟s coats C. men‟s jackets D. shirts and jeans Question 7. How many days does the woman have to work? A. four B. five C. six D. seven Question 8. How much does the woman earn an hour? A. £5.20 B. £7 C. £5.70 D. £5.27 LANGUAGE Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions (0,5 point). Question 9. A. climb B. number C. dumb D. debt Question 10. A. destroyed B. loved C. watched D. rained Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions (1,5 point). Question 11. The film is _________the 1940s, during the Second World War. A. made for B. based on C. set in D. occurred in Question 12. If you _______ us about the bad service, we'd have eaten there. A. hadn't told B. wouldn't have told C. didn't tell D. told Question 13. The sky is getting really dark and____________. A. it‟ll rain B. it is going to rain C. it is raining D. it has rained Question 14. The children are _________ about their going to the zoo at the weekend. A. interested B. excited C. fascinated D. surprised Question 15. Yosemite National Park was ____________in 1890. A. built B. found C. seen D. established Question 16. They were late for work because their car . A. got down B. put down C. cut down D. broke down READING Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the passage (1,0 point). (17)___________ is the safeguarding and preservation of natural resources so that they can continue (18)____________ and enjoyed. In the past, most people believed that the world‟s resources could never be used up. Today, we know that this is not true. An (19)___________ part of conservation is the prevention of waste – waste of forests, soil, wild-life, minerals and human lives. As important is the fight against pollution of our environment, in particular, the dirtying and poisoning of air and water. Conservation is also concerned with the reclaiming of land by (20)____________ deserts, draining swamps or pushing back the sea. Question 17. A. Destruction B. Conservation C. Damage D. Pollution Question 18. A. used B. using C. to use D. to be used 6
Question 19. A. important B. most important C. importance D. unimportant Question 20. A. eroding B. destroying C. irrigating D. polluting Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the questions (1,0 point). Cricket World Cup is the most awaited event in the world of Cricket. It is by far the biggest event for every cricketer and all cricket fans. The ICC Cricket World Cup is the premier Championship of ODI (One Day International) cricket. The tournament is held every four years. It is the fourth largest and fourth most viewed sport event. Ten test-cricket-playing and ODI-playing nations and other who qualify through World cup Qualifiers contest the tournament. In all the tournaments held till date, Australia is the most successful of the five teams who have claimed ICC world cup trophy. Australia won the championship 4 times, whereas West Indies and India won twice, while Pakistan and Sri Lanka claimed once each. Question 21. How often is the Cricket World Cup held? A. Every two years. B. Every four years. C. Every five years. D. Every year. Question 22. Which is NOT true about Cricket World Cup? A. It is held every four years. B. It is the fourth largest sport event. C. It is the fourth most viewed sport event. D. Sri Lanka has won the championship two times. Question 23. In line 1, the word “It” refers to: A. Cricket World Cup B. event C. the world D. Cricket Question 24. According to the passage, who contest the tournament? A. Anyone who is cricketer or cricket fan. B. Australian. C. Ten test-cricket-playing and ODI-playing nations. D. Ten test-cricket-playing and ODI-playing nations and other who qualify through World Cup qualifiers. WRITING Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction (0,5 point). Question 25. Carlos Dominguez placed the ball careful in front of the goal and suddenly turned, ran and kicked. A B C D Question 26. Lam turned on the radio in order to listening to the news. A B C D II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN Rewrite the following sentences as directed without changing their meaning (0,5 point). Question 27. You can hear great singers of the world at the Sydney Opera House. ( change into the passive voice) → Great singers _________________________________________________________. Question 28 Sally doesn't know what to do for homework because she was absent. (rewrite the sentence, using a conditional sentence.) → If _________________________________________________________________. Write a description ( 120 – 140 words ) about a film you like . ( 1,0 point ) In the description, you should include: the name of the film, some background information, the plot, the main character(s), how you feel about the film… THE END 7
SAMPLE TEST 3 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (6.5 điểm): LISTENING Listen to Grace telling a friend about a hotel and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point) Statements T F Question 1. The hotel is in the mountains. Question 2. At the hotel, Grace could play golf. Question 3. In Grace‟s room, there was a coffee machine. Question 4. Grace says the hotel was noisy. You will hear a conversation about a holiday English course. Listen and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following questions. You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point) Question 5. Who wants to learn the holiday English course? A. the woman B. the woman‟s husband C. the woman‟s daughter D. the woman‟s friend‟s daughter Question 6. Students must be ________ years old or more. A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15 Question 7. Students have to pay £________ for their holiday course. A. 690 B. 16.90 C. 6.09 D. 60.90 Question 8. Where is the college? A. in Fair Street B. in Farley Street C. in Fairy Street D. in Fairly Street LANGUAGE Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions (0,5 point). Question 9 . A. team B. beat C. defeat D. great Question 10. A. champion B. challenge C. character D. chocolate Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions (1,5 point). Question 11. Chaplin‟s movies captivated____________ throughout the world. A. scientists B. musicians C. directors D. audiences Question 12. She is still___________ after her father‟s death. A. mournful B. joyful C. cheerful D. delightful Question 13. Do you have any intention of spending your holiday in Nha Trang? A. Are you having intention of spending your holiday in Nha Trang? B. Are you spending your holiday in Nha Trang? C. Are you intending to spend your holiday in Nha Trang? D. Are you going to spend your holiday in Nha Trang? Question 14. Brazil defeated Italy _________ 4 ________1 in the 1970 World Cup. A. by – by B. to – by C. by – to D. to - to Question 15. I post the card today ____________ there on my mother's birthday. A. to getting it B. in order to get it C. so as it gets D. so that it will get Question 16. It was not until I was 15 years old that I ____________ how to ride a bicycle. A. learned B. had learned C. was learning D. would learn READING Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the passage (1,0 point). Everyone loves music, it seems. And there's little reason to wonder why. There is so much music available from which to choose, and there is a category of music to appeal to every taste. The major groups of music are divided broadly (17) ____________ classical, popular, and jazz. Within these broad groups are many other subcategories. For example, such disparate types of music as movie sound tracks rhythm and blue, rock, and rap all fit within the category of popular music. 8
Another reason why music is so (18) ____________ is the variety of settings in which one can enjoy his or her favourite kind of music. You can go to the church to hear great religious music, or to the concert hall to hear a well-known classical symphony. On another night, you might go to the small club to listen to an up- and-coming jazz group (19) ___________ you enjoy a drink. A few nights later, you might go with some friends to join thousands of other people in a stadium to hear your favorite rock band play in your city on a world tour. And, back your house or apartment, you can (20) ____________ while you put in a tape or CD and listen to your favorite artists again and again in your own home. Question 17. A. on B. into C. to D. up Question 18. A. familiar B. popular C. famous D. cheerful Question 19. A. what B. where C. while D. which Question 20. A. prefer B. appeal C. relax D. interpret Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the questions (1,0 point). THREATS TO BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY Presently the Earth is undergoing an era of unprecedented number of species extinctions. Human influence over the Earth‟s ecosystems has been so extensive within the last 10,000 years, that scientists have difficulty estimating the total number of species lost in this era; that is to say the rates of deforestation, reef destruction, wetlands filling and other human acts are proceeding much faster than human assessment of the Earth‟s species. The matter of ongoing species loss is made more complex by the fact that most of the Earth„s species have not been described or evaluated for endangerment. Historically the main threat to biodiversity has been a set of threats generated from the overpopulation of humans: mass agriculture, deforestation, overgrazing, slash- and- burn, urban development, pesticide use. Worldwide, the effects of global warming add a potentially catastrophic threat to global biological diversity. Question 21. The word “unprecedented” in the line 1 mostly means _______________. A. always occurred B. usually occurred C. sometimes occurred D. never occurred Question 22. According to the reading passage, man has made a great influence on the Earth‟s ecosystems for_________________. A. 100 centuries B. 10 centuries C. 100 decades D. 10 decades Question 23. All of the following are the reasons for endangering the biodiversity EXCEPT __________ A. Humans are enlarging the land for their crops. B. Humans are destroying many forests. C. Humans are paying much attention to the existence of all Earth‟s species. D. Humans are using more pesticides for their crops. Question 24.. Which of the following statements can be the main idea of the reading passage? A. The number of species is becoming extinct because of human influence. B. Human don‟t evaluate the importance of biological diversity. C. Scientists are finding the way to reduce the ongoing species loss in this D. The main reason for species extinction comes from the overpopulation of humans. WRITING Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction (0,5 point). Question 25. There is no doubt that he is a honest person. A B C D Question 26. It was surprised to see my old friends again after a long time. A B C D II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN Rewrite the following sentences as directed without changing their meaning (0,5 point). Question 27. Paulo works on two jobs, so he doesn't have time to help you. (rewrite the sentence, using a Conditional Sentence.) → If _____________________________________________________________________________. Question 28. I will hand in my report at the end of this month. ( change into the passive voice) → My report_______________________________________________________________________ Write a paragraph ( 120 – 140 words) about a football player or a football team that you like. ( 1,0 point ) In your writing, you should include the name of football player/football team, the achievement(s), the reasons why you like the player/team…… THE END 9
SAMPLE TEST 4 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (6.5 điểm): LISTENING Listen to the tapescript and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point) Statements T F Question 1. The speaker managed to speak French fluently in 17 days. Question 2. She thinks writing words down is the best way to learn a new language. Question 3. She believes that listening to French music can improve her listening skill. Question 4. She spent forty-five minutes a day writing about herself in French. You will hear a conversation between Todd and Karen about the places they’ve been. Listen and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following questions. You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point) Question 5. What did Karen like about Uluru in Australia? A. It‟s amazing culture B. It‟s beautiful scenery C. It‟s incredible history D. It‟s famous attraction Question 6. What is Machu Picchu according to Karen? A. an ancient Peruvian town B. an old Muslim palace C. an old Incan relic site D. a beautiful museum Question 7. Where is the Alhambra? A. in South America B. in Australia C. in Europe D. in France Question 8.. Which place in Asia does Karen like best? A. Hokkaido B. Bangkok C. Granada D. Tokyo LANGUAGE Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions (0,5 point). Question 9. A. funeral B. of C. fiction D. flora Question 10. A. school B. score C. scene D. scared Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions (1,5 point). Question 11. These birds _____________to North Africa in winter. A. settle B. go C. relocate D. migrate Question 12. If you _______ us about the bad service, we'd have eaten there. A. hadn't told B. wouldn't have told C. didn't tell D. had told Question 13 .The cars _____ if we had not done such a huge advertising campaign. A. would not have been bought B. would not have be bought C. would have been bought D. would not had been bought Question 14. I‟m working hard these days because __________ buy a car, so I‟m saving as much as I can. A. I will B. I would C. I should D. I‟m going to Question 14. 3. The piano concerto ____________ by a sixteen –year- old pianist. A. was beautifully performed B. was beautifully performing C. beautifully performed D. beautifully was performing Question 15 .The Amazon __________ has been being seriously destroyed for wood. A. rainstorm B. raindrop C. rainforest D. rainfall Question 16. People couldn't enjoy films at home _________the advent of television. A. during B. until C. since D. for. READING Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the passage (1,0 point). Michael Jackson (born 1958) is truly a music legend. He became a superstar ( 17)__________ the age of eleven as a member of his family band The Jackson 5. His solo career earned him the title "King of Pop". His studio albums have all become classics. Jackson is equally (18) ___________ for his high energy and complicated dance techniques such as the Moonwalk. He died in 2009 at the age of 50. His awards and (19) __________ are proofs of the phenomenal success he ( 20) __________ . He won World Music Award's Best-Selling Pop Male Artist of the Millennium, and was the American Music 10
Award's Artist of the Century. 'Thriller' remains the best-selling album of all time. 'Vanity Fair' magazine named him the "Most popular artist in the history of show business". Question 17. A. in B. at C. on D. of Question 18. A. famous B. popular C. talented D. interested Question 19. A. rewards B. presents C. results D. records Question 20. A. created B. passed C. won D. achieved Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the questions (1,0 point). Man is a land animal, but he closely tied to the sea. Throughout history the sea has served the needs of man. The sea provided man with food and convenient way to travel to many parts of the world. Today, nearly two thirds of the world's population live within 80 kilometers of the sea coast. In the modern technological world, the sea offers many resources to help mankind survive. Resources on land are beginning to be used up. The sea, however, still can be hoped to supply many of man's needs. The list of riches of the sea yet to be developed by man's technology is impressive. Oil and gas exploration have been carried out for nearly 30 years. Valuable amounts of mineral exist on the ocean floor ready to be mined. Fish farming- promises to be a good way to produce large quantities of food. The culture of fish and shellfish is an ancient skill practiced in the past mainly by the Oriental people. Besides oil and gas, the sea may offer new source of energy. Experts believe that the warm temperature of the ocean can be used in a way similar to the steam in a steamship. Ocean currents and waves offer possible use as a source of energy. Technology is enabling man to explore ever more deeply under the sea. The development of strong, new materials has made this possible. Question 21. The best title for this passage is _________________. A. Sea Harvest B. Sea Food C. Man and the Sea D. Technology for Exploiting the Sea Question 22. The major things that the sea offers man are _________________. A. fish and oil. B. minerals and oil C. warm temperature and ocean currents. D. food, energy sources, and minerals. Question 23. The words 'Oriental people' in paragraph 4 probably mean________________ . A. the people in Asia B. African people C. European people D. American people Question 24. The words enabling in the fourth paragraph means _____________________. A. understanding B. allowing C. teaching D. helping WRITING Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction (0,5 point). Question 25. The government should be done more to help homeless people. A B C D Question 26. There is an enormously range of courses on offer. A B C D II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN Rewrite the following sentences as directed without changing their meaning (0,5 point). Question 27. The government increased the price of rice export last year. (change into the Passive Voice.) → The prize ________________________________________________________________________. Question 28. Tom‟s family only felt safe after they had crossed the border of France. (rewrite the sentence, beginning with the words given.) → It was not until_________________________________________________________________ Write a paragraph ( 120 – 140 words ) about a sea animal that needs human protection. ( 1,0 point ) In your writing, you should include the name of the sea animal, its range and habitat, lifespan, special feature, conservation concerns … THE END 11
SAMPLE TEST 5 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (6.5 điểm): LISTENING Listen to some information about the school talent show and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will hear the recording twice. ( 1,0 point ) Statements T F Question 1. The school talent show is going to be held on May 8th. Question 2. Caitlyn and Julia are going to dance. Question 3. Lucas is the best singer in the class. Question 4. Jen can do some great skateboarding tricks. You will hear the paragraph about the forest fire and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following questions. You will hear the recording twice. (1,0 point) Question 5. _______________is the season when fire is the greatest danger to woods and foresters. A. summer B. late summer C. Fall D. Spring Question 6. Why people shouldn‟t leave a campfire burning near a heap of leaves? A. Because this often causes a forest fire. B. Because this makes soil pollution. C. Because this will kill wild animals. D. Because this will be safe Question 7. Campers must always remember to put out their campfire and cover the place with___________. A. the tent B. the water C. the earth D. the leaves Question 8. Every fire destroys valuable___________ wildlife, and good soil. A. trees B. wood C. leaves D. plants LANGUAGE Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions (0,5 point). Question 9. A. globe B. cigarette C. percentage D. game Question 10. A. integral B. delight C. emotion D. variety Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions (1,5 point). Question 11. I am very ________ in the information you have given me. A. concerned B. interested C. surprised D. shocked .Question 12. I tried to __________ in my speech how grateful we all were for his help. A. convey B. take C. carry D. compose Question 13. Don't forget we're meeting on _________ Friday for _________ lunch. A. a/ a B. a/ θ C. θ / the D.θ / θ Question 14 . “I can't believe that Jim is marrying the vice-president's daughter.” “That they would get married is ______________.” A. surprised B. surprisingly C. surprising D. surprise Question 15. 'Ms. Jones, please type those letters before noon‟. - 'They've already ___________ sir. They're on your desk.' A. typed B. been typed C. being typed D. been being typed Question 16. 'Here's my phone number.‟- 'Thanks, I _____________ you a call if I _____________ some help.‟ A. will give/ will need B. would give/ needed C. give/ need D. will give/ need READING Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the passage (1,0 point). Cartoon films have become the (17) __________fascinated films recently and have very few limits. If you can draw something, you can make it move on the cinema screen. The use of new ideas and advanced computer programs means that cartoons are becoming exciting again for people of all ages. By the end of the 1970s, the cinema world had decided that cartoons were only for children. But soon (18) ________, one or two directors had some original new ideas. They proved that it was possible to make film in which both adults and children could share the fun. However, not every cartoon film was successful. The Black Cauldron, for example, failed, mainly because it was too (19) _________for children and too childish for adults. Directors learnt from this mistake, and the film companies (20) __________ to make large amounts of money again Question 17. A. most B. best C. least D. worst 12
Question 18..A. later B. then C. afterwards D. after Question 19. A. nervous B. fearful C. scared D. frightening Question 20. A. had B. began C. used D. kept Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the questions (1,0 point). Music can move the soul. It can be a very strong influence. Some music can calm us down, but some music can make us wild! How does music affect us? Music is used in a variety of ways. It is used in the medical field as a source of research and as a sort of therapy as well. Music has been used as therapy for seizures , to lower blood pressure, treat mental illness, treat depression, aid in healing, treat stress and insomnia and premature infants. Musicologist Julius Portnoy found that it can change heart rates, increase or decrease blood pressure, effect energy levels, and digestion, positively or negatively, depending on the type of music. Calming music, such as classical music was found to have a very calming effect on the body, and cause the increase of endorphins, thirty minutes of such music was equal to the effect of a dose of valium. Both hemispheres of the brain are involved in processing music. The music in these studies is not the "lyrics", but the music itself, the melody, the tones, the tunes, the rhythm, the chords. Conversely music has also been documented to cause sickness. The right, or wrong music, rather, can be like a poison to the body. Studies have been done on plants where loud hard rock music, for instance, killed plants and soft classical music, make the plants grow faster. Music is very powerful, like a drug and can even be an addiction. According to Patty Hearst, a researcher on music, it was documented that music was used in the aid of brainwashing some people. In the book,” Elevator Music” by Joseph Lanza, it was stated that certain types of music over prolonged periods in certain conditions were shown to cause seizures. Question 21 What is the main idea of the passage? A. The effects of music B. Powerful music C. Music treatment D. Music used as drugs Question 22. The word “insomnia” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________________. A. unwillingness B. breathlessness C. hypersomina D. sleeplessness Question 23. The word “it” in line 5 refers to________________. A. pressure B. depression C. music D. illness Question 24. It can be inferred from the passage that ___________________. A. Music has positive effects, but it can cause harm when used in the wrong context. B. Music always plays an important role in our life. C. Music can‟t cause addiction D. The negative effect of music has not been proved. WRITING Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction (0,5 point). Question 25. What does your daughter practise singing all day to? A B C D Question 26. Don‟t sit in the sun for too long. I think you are going to get sun-burnt. A B C D II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN Rewrite the following sentences as directed without changing their meaning (0,5 point). Question 27. Carol didn‟t answer the phone because she was studying. (rewrite the sentence, using a Conditional Sentence.) → If ____________________________________________________________________ Question 28. I couldn't comment further until I had all the information. (rewrite the sentence, beginning with the words given.) → It was not until ____________________________________________________________________ Write a paragraph ( 120 – 140 words ) about a kind of music that you like. ( 1,0 point ) In your writing, you should include the kind of music, typical song(s), your favorite singer, when/ how you listen…. THE END 13
SỞ GD&ĐT TP. ĐÀ NẴNG ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II - NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 TRƯỜNG THPT THÁI PHIÊN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 10 (CT 7 NĂM) Đề chính thức Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề Mã đề thi 123 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8,0 điểm): Học sinh dùng bút chì để tô vào phương án trả lời đúng ở ô phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm (Học sinh dùng bút khác thì cho 0 (không) điểm phần này) Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions or do as directed from 1 to 32. 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. A. forks B. instruments C. feelings D. thoughts 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that has a different stress pattern. A. cinema B. museum C. history D. century 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that has a different stress pattern. A. excited B. popular C. suitable D. serious 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. A. feat B. beat C. seat D. great 5. A new hospital _________ near the airport. A. has built B. has been built C. is building D. built 6. - David:“ The phone‟s ringing” - Helen:“ Ok, _________ it.” A. I‟ll answer B. I„m going to answer C. I must answer D. I should answer 7. _________ breakfast is _________ first meal of the day. A. ø/ the B. A/ ø C. The/ ø D. The/ the 8. If we _________ your sister was ill, we would have visited her. A. know B. knew C. had known D. didn‟t know 9. My father used his dogs _________ keep wolves away during the night. A. so that B. for C. in order to D. so as not to 10. We really ought to make a start on campaigns to clean _________ our polluted rivers and seas. A. out B. up C. off D. away 11. She didn‟t write to him until she received his letter. A. It was not until she receives his letter that she writes to him. B. It was not until she received his letter which she wrote to him. C. It was not until she received his letter that she wrote to him. D. It was not until she wrote to him that she receives his letter. 12. They were seeking a solution to the _________ of the rain forests. A. destruction B. destroying C. destroyer D. destroy 13. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. The teacher‟s explanation was confused so most of the students didn‟t understand it. A B C D 14. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. You should to take these tablets and rest for a couple of days. A B C D 15. - Peter: ”Are you doing anything tomorrow evening?” - Helen: “_________.” A. Let‟s go ahead. B. What about the match C. No, I‟m free. Why? D. Everything is OK. 16. - Janet: ” Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?”. - Sarah: ” _________.” A. I don‟t agree. I‟m afraid B. You‟re welcome C. I feel very bored D. That would be great 17. - Can you play any _________ instruments? – No, I can‟t. A. music B. musician C. musically D. musical 18. “ Silence of the Lambs” is a/an _________ film. It makes the audience scared. A. cartoon B. science fiction C. horror D. action 19. Music helps _________ more joyfulness to the atmosphere of the festival. A. boost B. increase C. strengthen D. add 20. They were sent to a local ________ right after their parents‟ death. A. orphanage B. park C. hospital D. orphan 14
21. Germany was the _________ of the 2006 World Cup. The 18th World Cup was held there. A. continent B. host nation C. competitor D. region 22. Tiny green plants are important because the lives of fish _________ on them. A. consist B. depend C. concentrate D. affect 23. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word. Plastic bags can do harm to the environment in the long run. A. good B. benefit C. evil D. damage 24. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word. We had an accidental meeting with an old friend at the party last night. A. unlucky B. unexpected C. arranged D. impossible Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 25 to 28. Scientists around the world have been studying the warming of waters in the Pacific Ocean known as EL Nino. The appearance of EL Nino is known to affect the weather around the world. Scientists still do not completely understand it. Yet they now find they can use it to tell about the future in different areas of the world. One example is the work of two scientists at Columbia University in New York, Mark Cane and Gordon Eshel. A scientist of Zimbabwe, Roger Buckland worked with them. They have found that when EL Nino appears, Zimbabwe has little or no rain. This means corn crops in Zimbabwe are poor. The last EL Nino was in 1991 to 1993. That was when southeastern suffered a serious lack of rain. The scientists wrote about their recent work in the publication "Nature". Their computer program can tell when an EL Nino will develop up to a year before it does. They suggest that this could provide an effective early warning system for southern Africa, and could prevent many people from starving. 25. EL Nino is known as _________. A. the changing of the weather in the southern Africa. B. the warming of waters in the Pacific Ocean. C. the weather which brings drought to Africa. D. the weather phenomenon that brings heavy rains to Africa. 26. Scientists study EL Nino in order that they can _________. A. tell why Zimbabwe has little rain. B. do some research work in this field. C. put all this information into their computers. D. provide a kind of early warning to the place that will suffer drought. 27. Which of the following is NOT true according to the article? A. Nature is the name of the article written recently by the scientists. B. Scientists know when an EL Nino appears by means of a computer program. C. The computer is used in this research work. D. The scientists published their results of the research work. 28. Choose the best title for this article. A. Early Warning System. B. Appearance of EL Nino Predictable. C. Weather in Africa. D. Drought in Zimbabwe. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 29 to 32. Modern cinema audiences expect (29) _______ plenty of thrilling scenes in action films. These scenes, which are known as stunts, are usually performed by stuntmen (diễn viên đóng thế) who are specially trained to do dangerous things safely. Anyone can crash a car, but if you are (30) _______ a film, you have to be extremely precise, sometimes you drive and stopping right in front of the camera and film crew. At an early stage in the production, an expert stuntman is (31) _______ to work out the action scenes and form a team. He is the only person who can go against the wishes of the director, (32) _______ he will usually only do this in the interests of safety. 29. A. see B. to see C. seeing D. seen 30. A. playing B. making C. shooting D. taking 31. A. called in B. came in C. checked in D. taken in 32. A. despite B. in spite of C. so D. although II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (2,0 điểm) Rewrite each of the sentences so that it is closest in meaning to the original one or do as directed. 1. Nam broke the window yesterday. → The window …………………………………………………………………………………………………………... 2. She doesn‟t pay attention to her cooking so the food is horrible. 15
→ If …………………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. I went out into the garden because I wanted to get some fresh air. (Combine the sentences, using phrase of purpose) → ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. Write complete sentence using the words/ phrases given in their correct forms. You can add some more necessary words, but you have to use all the words given. 4. The Fédération Internationale de Football Association/ know/ worldwide/ acronym FIFA.  ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. THE END IV. Một số đề các năm : . SỞ GD&ĐT TP. ĐÀ NẴNG ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II - NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 TRƯỜNG THPT THÁI PHIÊN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 10 (CT 7 NĂM) Đề chính thức Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề Mã đề thi 124 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8,0 điểm): Học sinh dùng bút chì để tô vào phương án trả lời đúng ở ô phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm (Học sinh dùng bút khác thì cho 0 (không) điểm phần này Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions or do as directed from 1 to 32. 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. A. balls B. beds C. eggs D. books 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that has a different stress pattern. A. disappoint B. abandon C. imprison D. discover 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that has a different stress pattern. A. funeral B. industry C. emotion D. joyfulness 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. A. clear B. appear C. idea D. bear 5. Education _________ to be the most important element to develop a country. A. often be considered B. can often be considered C. often considers D. can often consider 6. The sky is getting really dark and it _________. A. will rain B. rains C. is going to rain D. has rained 7. Don‟t forget we‟re meeting on _________ Friday for _________ lunch. A. a/ a B. the/ the C. ø/ the D. ø/ ø 8. If I _________ a camera, I would have taken some pictures. A. hadn‟t had B. had had C. have had D. had 9. She bought some sugar and chocolate _________ a cake. A. make B. to making C. in order to make D. makes 10. The children are excited _________ their going to the zoo at the weekend. A. about B. in C. of D. with 11. She didn‟t do her homework until her father came home. A. It was not until her father comes home that she did her homework. B. It was not until her father came home that she does her homework. C. It was not until her father came home which she did her homework. D. It was not until her father came home that she did her homework. 12. He thought of his newly dead child with deep _________. A. emotional B. emotionally C. emotive D. emotion 13. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. I find these films very bored while my brother finds them exciting. A B C D 14. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. There is only a little food for dinner. I think you should to buy some more to eat. A B C D 15. - Ann: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” - John: “_________” 16
A. No, thanks. B. Sorry, the seat is taken. C. Yes, I am so glad. D. Yes, yes. You can sit here. 16. - Dad: ” Good luck with the exam, Minh!”. - Minh: ” _________, Dad.” A. By no means B. I wish so C. Thank you D. Never mind 17. Our football team sang the national anthem _________ before starting that final match. A. solemn B. solemnity C. solemnly D. solemnize 18. The _________ began to pack into the stadium with great excitement. A. audience B. viewers C. witnesses D. spectators 19. That football championship is _________ every two years. A. located B. taken C. held D. happened 20. Nearly 1,000 of the world's bird species are threatened with _________. A. extinction B. protection C. appearance D. destruction 21. _________ is the variety of different types of plant and animal life in a particular region. A. Interaction B. Herbicide C. Environment D. Biodiversity 22. Cuc Phuong National Park is _________ 160 km South West of Ha Noi. A. lied B. located C. abandoned D. established 23. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word. By July 2006, the world had witnessed the eighteenth World Cup tournaments. A. planned B. seen C. hosted D. noticed 24. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word. One way to protect our environment from pollution is to reduce wasteful consumption. A. costly B. excessive C. economical D. safe Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 25 to 28. During the 19th century, it was common to hear people in Europe and America say that the resources of the sea were unlimited. For example, a noted biologist writing in the mid-19th century commented that none of the great sea fisheries are to be exhausted. Today though, there is evidence that the resources of the sea are as seriously endangered as those of the land and the air, and that the endangered species include Herring and Carp as well as the African Elephant, Indian Tiger, and the American Eagle. Further, the threats to fish are more alarming in some ways than the threats to animals and birds. This is because fish are a much needed food resource and people throughout the world depend on fish as an important part of their dish, and the decline in the fish supply could have extensive effects on hunger and population. Fishermen in the North Atlantic alone annually harvest 20 billion pounds of fish to satisfy food demands, but it is important to recognize that these practices cannot continue without depleting fish storage within the next few years. Sea resources are rapidly declining in many parts of the world, and the problem cannot he ignored. We can predict that food supplies in the sea can not last forever. 25. According to the speaker, what was the attitude in the 19th century toward resources of the sea? A. Declined. B. Depleted. C. Limited. D. Unlimited. 26. What is the range of the decline in fish supply? A. Europe and Asia. B. The whole world. C. Asia and America. D. America. 27. What does the author believe about sea resources? A. Sea resources can last forever. B. None of the great sea fisheries are to be exhausted. C. Fish supply has no effects on people. D. Sea resources are important to people. 28. Which of the following title best describes the purpose of the lecture? A. Unlimited Sea Resources. B. Threats to Animals and Birds. C. Sea Resources on the Decline. D. Protection of Fish. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 29 to 32. The world's first film was shown in 1895 by two French brothers, Louis and Auguste Lumiere. Although it only (29) _______ of short, simple scenes, people loved it and films have been popular ever since. The first films were silent, with titles on the screen to explain the story. Soon the public had (30) _______ favorite actors and actress and, in this (31) _______, the first film stars appeared. In 1927, the first " talkie", a film with sound, was shown and from then on, the public (32) _______ only accept this kind of film. 29. A. consisted B. contained C. belonged D. held 30. A. your B. his C. our D. their 31. A. reason B. way C. method D. result 17
32. A. should B. would C. might D. will II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (2,0 điểm) Rewrite each of the sentences so that it is closest in meaning to the original one or do as directed. 1. Nam broke the window yesterday. → The window …………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 2. She doesn‟t pay attention to her cooking so the food is horrible. → If ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 3. I went out into the garden because I wanted to get some fresh air. (Combine the sentences, using phrase of purpose) → ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....... Write complete sentence using the words/ phrases given in their correct forms. You can add some more necessary words, but you have to use all the words given. 4. The Fédération Internationale de Football Association/ know/ worldwide/ acronym FIFA. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....... THE END 18
SỞ GD&ĐT TP. ĐÀ NẴNG ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II - NĂM HỌC 2018-2019 TRƯỜNG THPT THÁI PHIÊN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 10 CTC Đề chính thức Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề Mã đề thi 121 Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions or do as directed from 1 to 32 : 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. A. cease B. raise C. increase D. chase 2.Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. A. pour B. mournful C. young D. your 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that has a different stress pattern. A. ballad B. concert C. motion D. contest 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that has a different stress pattern. A. character B. organism C. percentage D. herbicide 5. We are now facing the possible_____________ of several rare species. A. danger B. variety C. existence D. disappearance 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word. He was eliminated from the contest in the fourth round. A. qualified for B. participated in C. competed in D. set up 7. We were lucky to get tickets for the first ___________of the new opera. A. publication B. operation C. action D. performance 8. The staff are .working at weekend ____________ delay the project any further. A. so that not to B. to not C. so as not to D. for not 9.Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word. We had an accidental meeting with an old friend at the party last night. A. arranged B. unexpected C. unlucky D. impossible 10. My little brother spends lots of time watching action movies. He____________ A. is so interesting to watch them. B. is so interested in watching them. C. finds it so interesting. D. makes them so interested. 11. The money ___________ to him 2 months ago, but it ___________ back yet. A. was lent/ had not been given B. has been lent/ was not given C. was lent/ has not given D. was lent/ has not been given 12. Thanks to many ___________discoveries and inventions, we can enjoy more and more exciting films with a lot of wonderful scenes. A. science B. scientific C. scientist D. scientifically 13. Some tiny organisms are ___________ along by the currents. A. carried B. taken C. flowed D. moved 14. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction People throughout the world are watching this wonderful final match on the television. A B C D 15. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. Don‟t sit in the sun for too long. I think you are going to get sun-burnt. A B C D 16. All of us must care ________our great forests and save them _______ fire. A. about for B. for/ from C. of/ with D. with/ for 17. Defeated by France in the final match of the 16th World Cup, Brazil became the ___________. A. runner-up B. governor C. champion D. loser 18.If I hadn‟t been very busy , I ____________ you to the circus. A. would have taken B. wouldn‟t have taken C. have taken D. had taken 19.The woman answered us _________ and went away immediately. A. emotionlessly B. emotionally C. emotively D. unemotionally 20. Music may set the ___________ for special events. A. time B. delights C. tone D. atmosphere 21.Tomorrow we____________ tennis instead of football. Would you like to join us? 19
A. play B. are going to play C. will play D. shall play 22. Mary: “Are you doing anything tomorrow evening?” - Helen:“____________” A. Let‟s go ahead. B. No, I‟m free. Why? C. Everything is ok. D. What about the match. 23. Anne:” Make yourself at home”. – John:” _______________ ” A. Yes, can I help you? B. Not at all. Don‟t mention it. C. That‟s very kind. Thank you. D. Thanks! Same to you. 24. Do you have any intention of spending your holiday in NhaTrang? A. Are you having intention of spending your holiday in NhaTrang? B. Are spending your holiday in NhaTrang? C. Are you intending to spend your holiday in NhaTrang? D. Are you going to spend your holiday in NhaTrang? Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 25 to 28: Most people are afraid of sharks, but they usually do not know much about them. For example, there are about 350 species of shark that live in oceans all over the world. All of the sharks are carnivores, but most of them don‟t attack people. Some sharks are very small - the smallest shark is about 6 inches long - about as long as your hand. But some sharks are very large. The largest species sharks may be 60 feet long and weigh 15 tons. Unlike many other kinds of fish, sharks do not have bone. Their bodies are made up of a kind of tough white flexible material ( called cartilage). Sharks do not have ears. However, they hear sounds and movements in the water. Any sound or movement makes the water vibrates. Sharks can feel these vibrations, and they help the sharks find food. Sharks use their large eyes to find food, too. Most sharks see best in low light. They often hunt for food at dawn, in the evening, or in the middle of the night. Nowadays, scientists want to learn more about sharks for several reasons. For example, cancer is common in many animals, including people. However, it is rare in sharks. Scientists want to find out why sharks almost never get cancer. Maybe this information can help people prevent cancer too. 25. Which of the following is NOT true ? A. Large sharks can weigh up to 15,000kg. B. Sharks' bodies are made up of cartilage. C. Sharks can find their food by feeling vibrations. D. Sharks usually attack people. 26. The word " they" in line 8 refers to _________. A. sharks B. sounds C. vibrations D. movements 27. Sharks can hunt for food at night because ______________ A. they hear more clearly at night B. they see well in the dark. C. they feel vibrations in the water. D. their eyes are large. 28.It can be inferred from the last paragraph that _____________ A. sharks are being studied. B. the cancer risk among animals is found to be higher. C. scientists are given permission to catch sharks for their studies. D. information about sharks helps people cure cancer. Read the passage and then choose the one option – A, B, C or D - that best fits each of the numbered blank. (29)___________ is the safeguarding and preservation of natural resources so that they can continue (30)____________ and enjoyed. In the past, most people believed that the world‟s resources could never used up. Today, we know that this is not true. An (31)___________ part of conservation is the prevention of waste – waste of forests, soil, wild-life, minerals and human lives. As important is the fight against pollution of our environment, in particular, the dirtying and poisoning of air and water. Conservation is also concerned with the reclaiming of land by (32)____________ deserts, draining swamps or pushing back the sea. 29. A. Destruction B. Conservation C. Damage D. Pollution 30. A. used B. using C. to use D. to be used 31. A. important B. most important C. importance D. unimportant 32. A. eroding B. destroying C. irrigating D. polluting II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (2,0 điểm) Rewrite each of the sentences so that it is closest in meaning to the original one or do as directed: 1. I will hand in my report at the end of this month. ( Change into passive voice) → My _______________________________________________________________________ 2. People don't realise how important it is to conserve energy, so they can't do anything about it. 20