Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 11 năm 2023-2024 - Trường THPT Lương Ngọc Quyến, Thái Nguyên
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Nội dung Text: Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 11 năm 2023-2024 - Trường THPT Lương Ngọc Quyến, Thái Nguyên
- SỞ GD&ĐT THÁI NGUYÊN ĐỀ THI GIỮA HỌC KÌ II TRƯỜNG THPT LƯƠNG NGỌC QUYẾN NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH -------------------- Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Đề thi có 4 trang) (không kể thời gian phát đề) Họ và tên: ............................................................................ Số báo danh: ....... Mã đề 115 PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: Học sinh làm bài vào phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm A. Questions 1-10: LISTENING Part 1: Listen to the recording. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each question. TRANG AN SCENIC LANDSCAPE COMPLEX Quick facts • Recognized as the first mixed World Heritage Site in (1)_____area. • Famous for its beautiful landscape and long cultural history • Consists of three (2)_______ areas Natural beauty and biodiversity • Beautiful limestone mountains, valleys, and rivers • More than 600 types of plants and 200 types of (3)_______ Cultural heritage • Caves showing how early (4)________lived over a period of 30,000 years • Hundreds of temples and historic pagodas Current condition • The landscape is not changed or damaged by human activities. • Most of the site is still kept in its natural (5)__________, e.g. the original style of architecture. Question 1. A. 2004 B. 2014 C. 2011 D. 2008 Question 2. A. inhabited B. restricted C. protected D. prohibited Question 3. A. horses B. castles C. turtles D. animals Question 4. A. lizards B. humans C. gorillas D. dinosaurs Question 5. A. place B. figure C. state D. shape Mã đề 115 Page Seq/6
- Part 2: Listen to Ann and Tom talking about a TV program and decide whether the following statements are T (True) or F (False). Question 6. Tom feels excited because he is going to college. A. True B. False Question 7. Tom should make friends at university because they can help him study. A. True B. False Question 8. Tom doesn’t know how to do the cooking, cleaning up or washing. A. False B. True Question 9. Ann suggests that Tom have a part-time job. A. False B. True Question 10. Working part-time helps Tom spend money effectively. A. True B. False B. LANGUAGE Choose the word that differs from the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 11. A. finish B. remind C. suggest D. complete Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 12. A. spread B. release C. threat D. death Vocabulary and grammar: Choose the best option Question 13. The red squirrel in England is in danger of ____. A. extinction B. growth C. damage D. destruction Question 14. It was the Spanish explorers ____discovered the Galápagos Islands. A. who B. which C. what D. whom Question 15. The city___ run a marketing campaign to attract more foreign tourists next year. A. should be B. should C. should have D. shouldn’t have Question 16. In order to deal with the deadlines of assignments, students must have skills. A. computer. B. communicative C. time management D. stress management Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Question 17. “Aaron: I have a terrible headache. - Lincoln: ? A. Do you want to see a dentist B. Why don’t you get some rest C. Do you want me to close the door D. Why don't you wake up early Mã đề 115 Page Seq/6
- Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 18. Goverment around the world are doing their best to deter people from illegal hunting by giving tougher punishment to poachers A. prevent B. ban C. order D. reduce Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 19. Invasive species can compete against native species for food when they are released into the environment. A. brought B. captured C. covered D. spread Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 20. There was lots of sunshine this weekend, but the temperature got even up to 10°C. A. up to B. lots of sunshine C. got even D. was Question 21. Drought, rising temperatures and heat waves have been affected the food and water supply. A. water supply. B. been affected C. heat waves D. rising temperatures Read the text and choose the best answer for each question. Do you feel like your teenager is spending most of the day glued to a phone screen? You're not too far off. A new survey from the Pew Research Center reveals the surprising ways that technology intersects with teen friendships – and the results show that 57 percent of teens have made at least one new friend online. Even more surprisingly, only 20 percent of those digital friends ever meet in person. While teens do connect with their friends face-to-face outside of school, they spend 55 percent of their day texting with friends, and only 25 percent of teens are spending actual time with their friends on a daily basis (outside of school hallways). These new forms of communication are key in maintaining friendships day-to-day – 27 percent of teens instant message their friends every day, 23 percent connect through social media every day, and 7 percent even video chat daily. Text messaging remains the main form of communication – almost half of survey respondents say it's their chosen method of communication with their closest friend. While girls are more likely to text with their close friends, boys are meeting new friends (and maintaining friendships) in the gaming world – 89 percent play with friends they know, and 54 percent play with online-only friends. Whether they are close with their teammates or not, online garners say that playing makes them feel "more connected" to friends they know, or garners they've never met. When making new friends, social media has also become a major part of the teenage identity – 62 percent of teens are quick to share their social media usernames when connecting with a new friend (although 80 percent still consider their phone number the best method of contact). Despite the negative consequences-21 percent of teenage users feel worse about their lives because of posts they see on social media – teens also have found support and connection through various platforms. Mã đề 115 Page Seq/6
- In fact, 68 percent of teens received support during a challenging time in their lives via social media platforms. Just as technology has become a gateway for new friendships, or a channel to stay connected with current friends, it can also make a friendship breakup more public. The study reveals that girls are more likely to block or unfriend former allies, and 68 percent of all teenage users report experiencing "drama among their friends on social media." (Source: https://www.realsimple.com) Question 22. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Social media connects friendship. B. The difference of making new friends between girls and boys. C. Teenagers are making and keeping friends in a surprising way. D. Social media affects friendship too much. Question 23. The word "digital friends" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to . A. good friends B. classmates C. Facebook friends D. roommates Question 24. According to the passage, what percentage of teens spend actual time with their friends? A. 25% B. 55% C. 27% D. 23% Question 25. The following sentences are true, EXCEPT . A. According to the survey, more than half of teens have ever made new friends online. B. Most teenagers use video chat to maintain relationship with friends. C. New forms of communication play an important role in keeping friendships. D. Teens only meet face-to-face one fifth of online friends they have made. Question 26: The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to______. A. their teammates B. online-only friends C. teenage users D. online gamers The reading passage has four blanks. Choose the most suitable information for each blank below. Write the appropriate letters (A-D) in the spaces provided. Question 27-30: A - If a site is selected, it receives international recognition and support for its protection and preservation. B - A total of 903 are cultural, 218 are natural, and 43 have both cultural and natural importance, like the Uluru Rock in Australia, which is not only a religious site for people from the first inhabitants of Australia but also a unique rock formation C - The process of choosing these sites is controlled by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). Mã đề 115 Page Seq/6
- D - UNESCO’s World Heritage Committee then checks the value of each site based on its strict rules and decides whether or not to accept the application. How are UN World Heritage sites chosen? At the time of writing, there are 1,164 sites on the World Heritage List, located in 167 countries around the world. (27)__________. But how is a site chosen for the list? World Heritage sites are chosen by considering their cultural or natural importance and their importance to the world as a whole.(28)__________. First, a country that wants a building or a landscape to become a World Heritage site must apply to UNESCO. The application must include a detailed report on the site’s history, architecture, animals, or plants, and its cultural or natural significance. (29)_________. It might be added to the list because it is, for example, a unique human achievement or it has had an important impact on human civilization. (30)___________ The country in which the site is located is also expected to ensure that the site is preserved for future generations. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the following blanks. Plastic pollution has emerged as one of the most urgent environmental issues, as the production of single-use plastic has been estimated differently. An estimated one billion tonnes of plastic waste have been discarded (31) _____the 1950s. Others estimate that the total amount of plastic produced by humans is 8.3 billion tonnes, of which 6.3 billion tonnes are waste and only 9 percent is recycled. In 2018, over 343 million tonnes of plastic waste were produced worldwide. 90% waste. The remainder consisted of waste from producing resin and plastic products. (32) _____ global efforts to limit waste have (33) _____the world's capacity to manage them, the quantity of plastic waste produced over the past century of plastic waste (34) _____ from items already purchased-industrial, agricultural, commercial and municipal plastic plastic trash production, environmental damages are expected to continue. Modelling shows that if there are no major interventions, between 23 and 37 million tonnes of plastic waste could be dumped ( 35) _____ the oceans every year by 2040, and between 155 and 265 million tonnes could be discarded into the environment yearly by 2060. Question 30. A. in B. from C. since D. for Question 31. A. Because B. In spite C. Despite D. Although Question 32. A. overwhelming B. overwhelm C. overwhelms D. overwhelmed Question 33. A. dated B. located C. originated D. translated Question 34. A. into B. with C. through D. within PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: Học sinh làm ra giấy thi 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. Use the given word(s). Question 36. Ms Hoa started teaching English in 2000. Mã đề 115 Page Seq/6
- Ms Hoa has_______________________________________________________. Question 37. “Why don’t you put a better lock on the door, Barbara?” said John. John suggested_________________________________________________________. Question 38. Learning Japanese is very difficult but interesting. It is_____________________________________________________________. 2. Write the correct form of the words in brackets. Question 39. The young student no longer wants to rely on his family because he wants to be____ (DEPEND) Question 40. If you often hand in homework late, you should improve your time _____skills. (MANAGE) 3. Write an essay (150-180 words): Question 41-50. Writing a chain structure problem and solution essay about living independently. You can use some cues below: - don’t know how to cook - sign up for cooking classes - don’t have enough money to pay for things. - learn about budgeting ------ THE END ------ Mã đề 115 Page Seq/6
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