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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học sinh giỏi cấp thị xã môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm 2022-2023 - Phòng GD&ĐT Thị xã Vĩnh Châu
- PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP THỊ XÃ
THỊ XÃ VĨNH CHÂU Năm học 2022-2023
Môn: Tiếng Anh 8
Đề chính thức Thời gian 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 Điểm Điểm Số mật mã
(do Chủ tịch
(ký và ghi rõ họ tên) (ký và ghi rõ họ tên) (bằng số) (bằng chữ) Hội đồng ghi)
(Đề thi có 08 trang)
Lưu ý:
- Kiểm tra số tờ giấy thi trước khi tính giờ làm bài.
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng Từ điển.
- Thí sinh làm phần nghe hiểu trước. Bài nghe gồm 3 phần; mỗi phần được
nghe 2 lần.
- Trước khi nghe, thí sinh có 10 phút để đọc nội dung của phần nghe từ câu 1
đến câu 15.
- Thí sinh có 01 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước kết thúc bài nghe.
A. LISTENING (3 points)
Part 1. Listen to three people talking about their jobs. Mark the letter A, B, C or D
on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1
to 5.
1. What is Mark’s responsibility?
A. taking care of the airline B. looking after people overnight
C. flying 80 hours a week D. flying people from one place to another
2. Where does Stacey work?
A. at home B. in her office
C. she works online. D. in the centre of the town
3. What is Stacey’s job?
A. A video maker B. A computer programmer
C. A smartphone programmer D. An office worker
4. Why is Helen’s job difficult?
A. Because she has to work in the centre of the town.
B. Because she has to work all day.
C. Because she works shifts.
D. Because she has to work at night every day.
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- 5. What does Helen like about her job?
A. She can work at night. B. She enjoys helping patients.
C. She is given food and medicine. D. She can chat with other people.
Part 2. Listen to the conversation and decide whether the statements from question
6 to 10 are True (T) or False (F).
6. Their mum really likes surprise parties. ______________
7. They could get tickets to the musical show.
8. Last year, their mother didn’t watch the opera until the end. ______________
9. Tony thinks the new drama is quite scary. ______________
10. They agreed to take mum to the cinema to see a romantic comedy film . ___________
Part 3. Listen to a talk about a charity organization and complete the notes from
11 to 15. Write NO MORE THAN TWO words and/or a number
Oxford Committee for Famine Relief
Started in (11) __________ in Oxford, UK.
Aimed to deliver (12) __________ to Greek people.
Helped victims of an (13) __________ in 1951.
Changed to Oxfam in 1965
Oxfam groups joined to create Oxfam International in 1995.
At present
Has projects in (14) __________ countries.
Aims to
Teach people to grow crops and build wells
Help people start (15) __________
B. PHONOLOGY (1 points)
Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently form
the others in each group. (0.6 point)
16. A. fund B. unusual C. volunteer D. muddy
17. A. fake B. amaze C. frame D. act
18. A. design B. preserve C. physical D. basic
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- Part 2. Choose the word whose stress position is different form the others’ in
each group. (0.4 point)
19. A. economy B. gratitude C. adventure D. consistency
20. A. unpopular B. unfriendly C. underground D. uncomfortable
C. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (5 points)
Part 1. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete the sentences (1
point)
21. I have heard that he has been doing well ________ he opened his own language
school.
A. since B. while
C. no sooner D. when
22. Where will the refugees go ___________
A. after the camps have been closed? B. after the camps had been closed?
C. before the camps were closed? D. when the camps will be closed?
23. Tennis fans ________ tickets have been queuing all night at Wimbledon.
A. hoped to buy B. hoping to buy
C. who hoping to buy D. whom hoped to buy
24. A ________ diet includes lots of green vegetables.
A. healthy B. health
C. healthily D. healthiness
25. Look up your dictionary when you ________ difficult words.
A. come across B. cut down
C. set out D. set off
26. She ________ for a position with the local newspaper.
A. required B. answered
C. achieved D. applied
27. Villagers are hoping for rain this month after nearly a year of ________
A. hurricane B. landslide
C. drought. D. erosion
28. Sea levels are expected to ________ considerably in the next few decades.
A. lift B. rise
C. raise D. arise
29. The company had some initial problems but now it is ________.
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- A. flying low B. flying high
C. flying round D. flying
30. Nobody has come to see us since we ________in our new house.
A. have been living B. lived
C. are living D. had lived
Part 2. Give the correct form of the verbs in bracketsto complete the following
passage. (1point)
31. I promise I _____________ you when I arrive at the hotel. (call)
32. Brian _____________ to London. He will be back in week. (go)
33. She told me she __________________ to him the day before. (write)
34. As a rule, she ________________ to the town to work. (drive)
35. All of them are tired and exhausted. They ______________ the match. (lose)
Part 3. Write the correct form of the words in CAPITAL LETTERS. (2 point)
36. We should rely more on _______________ source of energy. (NEW)
37. The author's _______________ is communicated through his song. (HAPPY)
38. We find Huong very _______________ (COMMUNICATE)
39. They went to see most of the _______________ places. (INTEREST)
40. His sudden _______________ must be a shock to her and her family. (DIE)
41. Bad marks are _______________results of lazy study. (NECESSITY)
42. One _______________ method for keeping our mind active is doing cross.
(POPULARIZE)
43. In the _______________ environment, relevant work experience can help job
seeker stand out from the crow. (COMPETE)
44. The _______________ spirit of volunteers are highly appreciated. (BREAK)
45. He acted like a/ (an) _______________ person because he blamed others for his
wrongdoings. (RESPONSIBILITY)
D. READING COMPREHENSION (6 points)
Part 1. Complete the passage. For questions 46-55, choose your answers from
the box below. Write your answer on your answer sheet. (2 points)
What matters for children
It is known that the development of children in their early years lays the
(46)__________ for their future physical, cognitive and social skills. It is, therefore,
vital to understand how children grow and what influences their (47)___________.
Research has found four key (48)___________ affecting early childhood
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- development.
A. Many of children's (49)___________ such as body shape, eyes and hair
colours, complexion, intelligence, and some diseases are passed down through
(50)___________ . Although it is impossible to change the natural colours of their
hair, eyes and skin, other elements can be improved through (51)___________ and
training.
B. Any factors in the surrounding environment in which (52)___________ are
brought up can affect their development and growth. The amount of sunshine and
rainfall in the area, the level of (53)___________ , the geographical conditions as
well as the social network and relationships around a child can have a profound
impact on their health, cognition and social skills.
C. A balanced and nutritious diet rich in protein, vitamins, carbohydrates and
fat is essential for a healthy brain and body. Both malnutrition and overeating can
cause serious health (54)___________ and bring about detrimental effects on
children's growth in the long run.
D. The family plays a critical role in the way a child develops socially and
psychologically. Parents' (55)___________ in time, attention and energy to provide
diverse activities, meaningful play and deep conversations contributes to the most
favourable outcomes for children. In contrast, children who suffer from neglect and
abuse at home may have poor social skills and difficulties in bonding with others.
problems – growth - foundation – nurture - genes
characteristics - children - pollution - factors - investment
Part 2. Read the following passage. For each of the questions from 56 to 60, write
T if the statement is TRUE and F if the statement is FALSE.
THE ROYAL BALLET SCHOOL, LONDON
The Royal Ballet School is one of the greatest centres for classical
ballet training in the world. The school has two buildings, one near
Richmond Park for 11 to 16-year-old students and the other in Covent
Garden for older students. Many famous ballet dancers have come from
this school. To get into the school, students have to audition – they have
to perform in front of judges from the school. Over 2,000 children from all over the
world attend auditions for the school each year, but only around 100 boys and girls
get a place. All students live at the school in dormitories separated by gender and
year group.
During the week, students usually wake up at 7 a.m. They have breakfast, and
then come to class to warm up before class begins at 9 a.m. From then until 4 p.m.,
each student completes four hours of academic lessons and two hours of ballet class.
In the late afternoon, there may be more dance classes, rehearsals or free time before
supper. They then do one hour of supervised homework at 7.15 p.m. before bedtime.
Mealtimes are in the dinning hall and are an important part of the day. It’s time for
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- students to relax and socialize. International students also have the option to take
exams in their home country’s academic syllabus while having their dance training in
London. In the evening, when students aren’t in class or practicing ballet, they can
play tennis or play table football in the student halls.
56. All of the students are from the UK. ______________
57. To get into the school, students have to show how good they are.
58. Boys and girls live in different buildings. ______________
59. Students have ballet training lessons and normal academic studies.
60. Students always have time off in the evenings. ______________
Part 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.(1.4 points)
The concept of traffic-free shopping areas goes back a long time. During the
Middle Ages, traffic- free shopping areas known as souks were built in Middle
Eastern countries to allow people to shop in comfort and safety. As far back as 2,000
years ago, road traffic was banned from central Rome during the day to allow for the
free movement of pedestrians, and was only allowed in at night when shops and
markets had closed for the day.
The modern, traffic-free shopping street was born in Europe in the 1960s,
when both city populations and car ownership increased rapidly. Dirty exhaust
fumes from cars and the risks involved in crossing the road were beginning to make
shopping an unpleasant and dangerous experience. Many believed the time was right
for experimenting with car-free streets, and shopping areas seemed the best place to
start.
At first, there was resistance from shopkeepers. They believed that such a
move would be bad for business. They argued that people would avoid streets if they
were unable to get to them in their cars. When the first streets in Europe were closed
to traffic, there were even noisy demonstrations as many shopkeepers predicted they
would lose customers.
However, research carried out afterwards in several European cities revealed
some unexpected statistics. In Munich, Cologne and Hamburg, visitors to shopping
areas increased by 50 percent. On Copenhagen’s main shopping street, shopkeepers
reported sales increases of 25-40 percent. Shopkeepers in Minneapolis, USA, were so
impressed when they learnt this that they even offered to pay for the construction and
maintenance costs of their own traffic-free streets.
With the arrival of the traffic–free shopping street, many shops, especially
those selling things like clothes, food and smaller luxury items, prospered.
Unfortunately, it wasn’t good news for everyone, as shops selling furniture and larger
electrical appliances actually saw their sales drops. Many of these were forced to
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- move elsewhere, away from the city centre. Today they are a common feature on the
outskirts of towns and cities, often situated in out- of-town retail zones with their own
car parks and other local facilities.
61. What can be the best tittle of the passage?
A. Removing cars and other vehicles from streets in towns and cities
B. How traffic-free shopping streets developed
C. The difference between towns and cities now, and towns and cities in the past
D. How towns and cities are planned and built
62. The word “built” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. celebrated
B. constructed
C. assessed
D. supported
63. The word “ they” in paragraph 4 refers to ________.
A. shopkeepers
B. outskirts
C. appliances
D. populations
64. The phrase ‘exhaust fumes” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ______.
A. attractive and comfortable scents
B. odors
C. unpleasant, dangerous gases
D. vapors
65. Why there was resistance from shopkeepers?
A. Because they disagreed with an idea and refused to accept it.
B. Because they were unable to get in their cars.
C. Because they were trying something in order to discover what it is like.
D. Because they wanted to experiment with car-free streets.
66. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of traffic-free shopping areas’
accomplishments?
A. There was a 50% increase in the number of shoppers in Munich, Cologne and
Hamburg.
B. Shopkeepers in Minneapolis, USA even offered to pay for the construction and
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- maintenance costs of their own traffic–free streets.
C. Many clothing, food, or smaller luxury item stores thrived.
D. Shops selling furniture and larger electrical appliances saw their sales growths.
67. Which of the following resulted from the development of traffic-free shopping
areas according to the passage?
A. Shops selling furniture and larger electrical appliances are a common feature on
the outskirts with their own car parks.
B. They built traffic-free shopping areas everywhere.
C. Lots of facilities could be built with traffic-free shopping areas.
D. Shopkeepers might be requested to pay for the maintenance of traffic-free
shopping areas.
Part 4. Write ONE word for each space to have a complete paragraph. (1,6
points)
Just as people have altered their skin’s (68)_________ to denote wealth and
beauty, some cultures around the globe marked their skin to indicate cultural identity
or community status. Tattooing, for (69) _____________ , has been carried out for
thousands of years. Leaders in places (70) ___________ ancient Egypt, Peru and
Britain wore tattoos to mark their status, or their bravery.
In Japan, tattooing has been practiced since around the fifth century B.C. The
government made tattooing illegal (71) __________ 1870 and though there are no
laws (72) __________ it, tattoos are still strongly associated with criminals –
particularly the yakuza, or Japanese mafia, who are known (73) __________ their
full-body tattoos. The complex design of a yakuza member’s tattoo usually includes
symbols of character traits that wearer wants to have.
Not all skin markings are permanent, though. In countries such as Morocco and
India, women decorate their skin with colorful henna designs for (74) __________
such as weddings and important religious holidays. The henna coloring, which comes
from a plant, (75) __________ and disappears over time
E. WRITING (5 points)
Part 1. Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the
same (1 point)
76. Mike hasn’t invited me to his home for three years.
→ The _________________________________________.
77. “ Does Ted ever eat things that are unhealthy?” asked Cassy.
→ Cassy asked _____________________________.
78. I’m seeing the dentist at 3 o’clock this afternoon.
→ I have an ________________________________.
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- 79. Although his family is poor, he tried hisbest to get a scholarship to enter a
university.
→ Despite ________________________________.
80. I am sick now because I went skiing at the weekeend.
→ If _________________ _______________________.
Part 2. Write clauses in the blanks to have complete sentences. (1 point)
81. Do you understand the grammar structure? (aware)
→ ___________________________________________________
82. I am interested in collecting stamps (keen)
→ ___________________________________________________
83. It’s not worth making him get up early. (point)
→ ___________________________________________________
84. I will try to achieve my goal. (effort)
→ ___________________________________________________
85. Taking part in Youth Club gave me a chance to use my creativity. (participate)
→ ___________________________________________________
Part 3. Write a paragraph about 100-150 words (3 points).
“ Describe how you make your final exam study plan.”
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THE END
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