Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 cấp tỉnh năm 2019-2020 có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT Hải Dương

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Việc ôn thi sẽ trở nên dễ dàng hơn khi các em có trong tay Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 cấp tỉnh năm 2019-2020 có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT Hải Dương được chia sẻ trên đây. Tham gia giải đề thi để rút ra kinh nghiệm học tập tốt nhất cho bản thân cũng như củng cố thêm kiến thức để tự tin bước vào kì thi chính thức các em nhé! Chúc các em ôn tập đạt kết quả cao!

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 cấp tỉnh năm 2019-2020 có đáp án - Sở GD&ĐT Hải Dương

SỞ GD - ĐT HẢI DƯƠNG KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (Không tính thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 08 trang) Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết đáp án A, hoặc B, C, D Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài (Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì) A. LISTENING: Hướng dẫn làm bài Nghe: Bài Nghe gồm có 04 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 02 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài. I. Listen to five short conversations and choose the correct answer to each question (5.0 points). 1. How will they book their flights? A. on the Internet B. at the travel agent C. on the phone 2. What has the daughter forgotten to bring on holiday? A. toothpaste B. hairbrush C. shampoo 3. What will the man and the woman do on Sunday? A. do the housework B. go on a picnic C. watch DVDs and read newspapers 4. Which blouse does the girl decide to buy? A. a collar, long sleeves B. no collar, short sleeves C. a collar, without sleeves 5. When is the girl having a party? A. 15th B. 14th C. 13th II. Listen to the recording and choose the correct answer to each question (6.0 points). 6. What made Holly start writing when she was young? A. keeping a diary each day B. wanting to remember her dreams C. completing a homework project 7. Holly tells the story about the starfish to show ______. A. how to enjoy wildlife without hurting it B. how to keep wild animals at home C. how to find the most interesting animals in the wild` 8. What does Holly think is the most interesting thing about nature? A. that animals live so close to us. B. that nature is so beautiful. C. that there is so much to learn. 9. What does Holly say about trees? A. They have lots of uses. B. They are often unnoticed. C. They are everywhere. Page 1/8
10. Holly hopes that her young readers ______. A. go on to study nature at college or university B. improve their genneral reading skills C. learn how to discover nature for themselves 11. What kind of books does Holly enjoy reading in her spare time? A. classic novels B. cookery books C. field guides III. Listen to the recording and fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS / NUMBERS (5.0 points). SUNNINGTON SPORTS CAMP Choice of afternoon activity: Sign list outside the (12) ______ Clothes: Wear track suit, but also bring shorts and a T-shirt (13) ______ sports shoes Food: Lunch served in canteen every half-hour bewteen 12.15 and (14) ______ Snack bar sells drinks, chocolate and biscuits Certificate: Marks given for: - Attitude: (15) ______ and team-work - Performance: strength, speeds and skill - Level six certificate to anyone who gets (16) ______ or more. IV. Listen to the recording and state whether the statements are true (T) or false (F) (4.0 points). T F 17. Maria would like to travel a lot as part of her job. 18. Maria is confident she will be able to work for an airline. 19. Rolf intends to do a job connected with his degree. 20. Maria and Rolf agree it is important to have a good salary B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (8.0 points). 21. The answer Henry gave was so confusing that his lecturer could hardly make ______ of it at all. A. sense B. meaning C. interpretation D. intelligibility 22. Considered America’s first great architect, ______. A. many of the buildings at Harvard University were designed by Henry Hobson Richardson B. it was Henry Hobson Richardson who designed many of the buildings at Harvard University C. Henry Hobson Richardson designed many of the buildings at Harvard University D. Harvard University has many buildings that were designed by Henry Hobson Richardson. 23. “Jack, can you help me push the piano to the corner of the hall to ______ our party?” said the teacher A. give place to B. make place for C. take room for D. make room for 24. The surrealistic movement in art in the 1920s and 1930s placed ______ is pictured in the unconscious and often incorporated dreamlike images. A. to emphasize it B. an emphasis on what C. an emphasis on it D. emphasize what Page 2/8
25. “Frankly, Ms. Adamson works ______ that her figures never need ______,” said the General Manager. A. such efficiently that / to check B. so efficient that / checking C. such an efficient that / to be checked D. so efficiently that / to be checked 26. It is highly recommended that language learners in general and English learners ______ should learn the language in the native community so as to master it. A. in particular B. on the whole C. in short D. on the other hand 27. Lama: “What’s your greatest phobia, Carolina? Carolina: “______” A. I’m afraid not. B. I haven’t made up my mind. C. What an absurd idea! D. Worms, definitely. 28. Waiter: “How would you like your steak, sir? Man: “______” A. Not too bad B. Very good C. Rare, please D. Yes, of course I like it II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5.0 points). 29. The (PREDICT) ______ weather in the mountains can make climbing extremely hazardous. 30. Both sides have shown a distinct lack of (ENTHUSIAST) ______ for discussion. 31. The woman tried to break into a security file for which she was not (AUTHORITY) ______. 32. Life (EXPECT) ______ for both men and women has improved greatly in the past 50 years. 33. Julie Johnson and Mark Thomas, aged 19 and 20 (RESPECT) ______, are taking part in the competition. III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (3.0 points). 34. The American architect Frank Lloyd developed a theory of architecture stressed the needs of the people who used it. A B C D 35. Children subjected to violence, exploration, abuse, and neglect are in risk of death, poor physical and mental A B C health, HIV/AIDS infection, and educational problems. D 36. The works of early American woodcarvers had many artistic qualities, but these craftsmen probably did not A B C think of them as artists. D IV. Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentences (2.0 points). 37. Sarah stood there, looking at his boyfriend without showing any reaction when he told her the news. A. caringly B. indifferently C. heartlessly D. impersonally 38. Martha decided to remain celibate and devoted her life to helping the homeless and orphans. A. married B. separated C. single D. divorced V. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentences (2.0 points). 39. Written sources are considered absolutely indispensable for today’s history teaching. A. unique B. unnecessary C. inexpensive D. affordable 40. The court concluded from the evidence that Mr. Smith was innocent and released him from prison. A. guilty B. benevolent C. innovative D. naive Page 3/8
C. READING: I. There are FIVE blanks in the passage below. From the phrases / sentences in the box, choose the most suitable for each blank. There is ONE EXTRA option that you DO NOT need to use (5.0 points) A. by attracting as many as several hundred thousand international students to their countries B. so are not classed as international students C. as defined by the Immigration Control and Refugee Recognition Act D. in accordance to its own national education system E. preferred by international students are the United States, United Kingdom, Germany, France, Canada and Australia F. by sending hundreds of thousand students to study abroad The definition of "international student" varies in each country (41) ______. In Australia, international students are defined as those studying onshore only with visa subclasses 570 to 575, excluding students on Australian-funded scholarships or sponsorship or students undertaking study while in possession of other temporary visas. New Zealand citizens do not require a visa to study in Australia, (42) ______. In Japan, international students are defined as foreign nationals who study at any Japanese university, graduate school, junior college, college of technology, professional training college or university preparatory course on a “college student” visa, (43) ______. According to the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) in their 2009 World Conference on Higher Education report, over 2.5 million students were studying outside their home country. UNESCO also predicted that the number of international students might rise to approximately 7 million by the year 2020. The main destinations (44) ______. Overall, the number of international students more than doubled to over 2 million between 2000 and 2007. However, the sharpest percentage increases of international students have occurred in New Zealand, Korea, the Netherlands, Greece, Spain, Italy and Ireland. In recent years, some Asian and Middle East countries have started to attract more international students. These regions have entered the market with declared ambitions to become regional education centers (45) ______. II. Choose the most suitable heading from the box for each paragraph below. There is ONE EXTRA heading that you DO NOT need to use (5.0 points). HEADINGS A. The amount that American eat B. Americans even getting fatter C. Changing meal times everywhere D. Why Americans love fast food E. Unhealthy American schools F. How American schools deal with obesity among teenagers 46: ______ In the past year, the adult obesity rate rose in 48 of America’s 52 states. Despite the campaigns to make people aware of the dangers of over-eating, about 119 million, or 64% of US adults are either overweight or obese. Worryingly, this figure is predicted to rise to 73% by the end of this year. What does this mean for America? Already 300,000 deaths each year are caused by obesity (only smoke kills more people), and the annual cost to the country is around $100 billion. Page 4/8
47: ______ Many people blame for the fast food industry, along with sedentary life styles, for the worrying increase. The average American now consumes about three hamburgers and four portions of French fries every week. That’s 90 grams of fat and 2.250 calories (the average person needs about 2.000 calories a day). A recent survey found that every month 90% of America children eat at least one meal in fast food restaurant. 48: ______ Most Americans know that fast food isn’t good for them. It is high in calories, fat, salt and sugar. Yet fast- food restaurants are part of American life. After World War II, higher salaries and productivity, together with technological developments and increased consumerism, made fast food restaurants popular. It presented a modern lifestyle, and is still a popular place for teenagers to get together with friends. The food is cheap, and many say they love the taste. The advertising is often aimed at children, with offers of entertainment and free gifts. 49: ______ Another in fast food sales – not only in the USA, but all over the world – is our increasingly busy lifestyles. In the past, families ate a home-cooked meal together at dinner time. These days, meals can be eaten at any hour of the day, and people rely on easy, instant food – not always nutritious – that is available “24/7”. America invented the “TV dinner”, and it is something most people around the world now enjoy. 50: ______ Finding nutritious food is also difficult in schools, which is often have contracts with fast food supplies and drinks companies. Teenage boys in the US each drink an average of 868 cans of fizzy drinks per year. Exercise in school has become less important too. A recent report showed that half of all US teens aged 12 – 21 got only America’s problem – Europe is also getting faster. It is estimated that over one million children in the UK are obese and this number has trebled over the past 20 years. III. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points). Childhood is the time when there are (51) ______ responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child has good parents, he is fed, looked after and loved, (52) ______ he may do. It is improbable that he will ever again in his life be given so much without having to do anything in return. In (53) ______, life is always presenting new things to the child - things that have lost their interest for older people because they are too well-known. A child finds pleasure playing in the rain, or in the snow. His first visit to the seaside is a marvellous adventure. (54) ______, a child has his pain. He is not so free to do as he wishes as he thinks older people are: he is continually told not to do things, or being punished (55) ______ what he has done wrong. His life is therefore not perfectly happy. When a young man starts to (56) ______ his own living, he becomes free from the discipline of school and parents, but at the same time he is forced to accept responsibilities. He can no longer expect (57) ______ to pay for his food, his clothes and his room, but he has to work if he wants to live comfortably. If he spends most time playing about in a day he used to as a child, he will be hungry. And if he breaks the laws of society as he used to break the laws of his parents, he may go to prison. If, however, he works hard, keeps out of troubles and has good health, he can have the greatest happiness of seeing himself make steady (58) ______ in his job and of building up for himself his own position in society. Old age has always been thought of as the worst age to be, but it is not necessary for the old to be unhappy. With old age (59) ______ wisdom and the ability to help others with advice wisely given. The old can have the joy of seeing their children making progress in life: they can watch their grandchildren growing up around them, and perhaps best of all, they can, if their life has been a useful one, feel the happiness of having come (60) ______ the battle of life safely and of having reached a time when they can lie back and rest, leaving others to continue the fight. Page 5/8
51. A. little B. few C. a little D. a few 52. A. whenever B. wherever C. whatever D. whosoever 53. A. short B. term C. reality D. addition 54. A. However B. But C. Therefore D. Moreover 55. A. because B. for C. at D. by 56. A. take B. have C. create D. earn 57. A. other B. another C. others D. someone 58. A. progress B. achievement C. improvements D. accomplishments 59. A. coming B. come C. came D. had come 60. A. out B. across C. through D. back IV. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question (10 points). Paul Bunyan is perhaps America’s best-known folk hero. A fictional logger of incredible strength, he was most likely based on an actual nineteenth-century logger from the northern United States or Canada. As a folk hero, he struck a chord with Americans on some level, perhaps because Line he was incredibly strong but also because he was hard-working and capable, ingenious in solving (5) problems, and fun-loving. Though there is evidence that Paul Bunyan tales were part of oral tradition in the nineteen century, Paul Bunyan stories did not appear in written form until the early twentieth century. Journalist James McGillivray included descriptions of Bunyan in a series of essay entitled “The Round River Drive” which appeared in a number of Midwestern newspapers between 1906 and 1910. (10) However, it was through an extensive advertising campaign that Paul Bunyan moved solidly into print. Recognizing the appeal of Paul Bunyan as a figure for his company’s advertising, William Laughead, an advertising executive for the Red River Lumber Company, initiated a campaign that consisted of a series of publications featuring Paul Bunyan. For several decades, the company distributed these publications free of charge and made no attempt to obtain a copyright on them. In (15) fact, the company vigorously encouraged other writers to make use of Paul Bunyan because it felt that the use of this character enhanced the name recognition of the Red River Lumber Company inasmuch as the name of the folk hero and the name of the company had become interwoven. The Bunyan stories published by Red River and further circulated by others were tall tales of gigantic proportions. In these tales, Banyan is depicted as a man of superhuman proportions, who is (20) strong, hard-working, entrepreneurial, and innovative. In one story, for example, Paul is credited with digging the Great Lakes in order to create a watering hole for his giant ox, Babe. In another of these tales, Paul caused an entire winter of blue snow to fall by swearing a blue streak after he injured himself by smashing his thumb with a large hammer. A third story in the series describes Paul’s role in establishing the Mississippi River. (25) Fascination with Paul Bunyan has continued to grow, and today he is a standard of American folklores. The prevalence of Bunyan as a figure of folklore today is evidenced by references to him in countless stories, cartoons, poems, and songs as well as the numerous community festivals and logging competitions featuring Paul Bunyan that can be found throughout the sections of the country where logging has strong tradition. 61. The purpose of this passage is to ______. A. present the actual feats of a real-life logger B. provide an overview of American folktales C. describe logging in North America D. discuss a “larger than life” folk hero Page 6/8
62. It is NOT stated in the passage that Paul Bunyan is known for his ______. A. unusual strength B. dedication to work C. ingenuity in difficult situations D. serious nature 63. The passage states that Paul Bunyan tales first appeared ______. A. in oral stories B. in advertising C. in newspapers D. in a series of essays 64. Which of the following CANNOT be inferred about the Red River Lumber Company’s advertising campaign featuring Paul Bunyan? A. It endured for quite a time. B. The company did not protect its ownership of the stories. C. The campaign did little to enhance the company’s profitability. D. The company wanted the name Paul Bunyan to be known as widely as possible. 65. The pronoun “them” in line 14 refers to ______. A. publications B. series C. decades D. writers 66. The word “interwoven” in line 17 could be best replaced by ______. A. unfashionable B. mixed together C. not compatible D. too separate 67. Where in the passage does the author discuss a weather phenomenon that Paul Bunyan supposedly caused? A. Lines 3-5 B. Lines 14-17 C. lines 20-23 D. Lines 25-29 68. The word “countless” in line 27 could be best replaced by the expression ______. A. an overestimated number of B. an insubstantial number of C. a large number of D. a specified number of 69. Which paragraph describes the plots of some of the tales of Paul Bunyan? A. The second paragraph B. The third paragraph C. The fourth paragraph D. The fifth paragraph 70. The author’s tone in this passage is ______. A. humorous B. neutral C. sarcastic D. pessimistic D. WRITING: I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before (5.0 points). 71. Something must be done to help the victims of the earthquake in Mexico.  Urgent …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………………… 72. It was careless of you to allow your 16-year-old son to drive your car.  You should ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………………………………………………………………………… 73. I shall never lend John any money, no matter what happens.  Under no ………………………………………………….…………………………………………………………………….………………………………………………………………………………… 74. Someone has suggested abolishing income tax.  It …………………………………………………………………………………………….………………………….………………………………………….……………………………………………….…… 75. Thank you for reminding me about the timetable, otherwise I would have missed the last train.  If……………………..……………………………………………………………………….…………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………….…… II. This is a part of a letter that you have received from David, a pen friend from New Zealand. In about 100 - 120 words, write a letter to answer his questions (10 points). I cannot decide whether I should go to Vietnam to work after my graduation. Can you give me some advice? Page 7/8
You are required to begin and finish your letter as followed: Dear David, ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………………………………………………………… Yours, Tran Thuy Hanh III. Vietnamese society has changed significantly in the past decades. However, many traditional values and practices have been lost, which is a pity. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? In about 230 - 250 words, write an essay to support your opinion (15 points). === THE END === Page 8/8
UBND TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH ĐÁP ÁN CHÍNH THỨC A. LISTENING: I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C II. (6.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. C 11. C III. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 12. changing room 13. Two / 2 pairs of 14. 1.45 15. effort 16. 180 marks IV. (4.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 17. T 18. F 19. F 20. T B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS I. (8.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 21. A 22. C 23. D 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. D 28. C II. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 29. UNPREDICTABLE 30. ENTHUSIASM 31. AUTHORIZED / SED 32. EXPECTANCY 33. RESPECTIVELY III. (3.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 34. C 35. C 36. D IV. (2.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 37. B 38. C V. (2.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 39. B 40. A C. READING: I. (5 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 41. D 42. B 43. C 44. E 45. A II. (5 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 46. B 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. E III. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 51. B 52. C 53. D 54. A 55. B 56. D 57. C 58. A 59. B 60. C IV. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 61. D 62. D 63. A 64. C 65. A 66. B 67. C 68. C 69. C 70. B D. WRITING: I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 71. Urgent actions must be taken to help the victims of the earthquake in Mexico. 72. You should not have allowed your 16-year-old son to drive your car. 73. Under no circumstances will / shall I lend John any money. 74. It has been suggested that income tax (should) be abolished. 75. If you had not reminded me about the timetable, I would have missed the last train. Page 9/8
II. (10 points): 1. Form: - Informal letter (1.0 point) 2. Task fulfillment: - Task completed with relevant information (2.0 points) - Well-organized (2.0 point) 3. Language: - Accurate grammar (2.0 points) - Appropriate vocabulary (2.0 points) - Correct spelling and punctuation (1.0 point) III. (15 points): Score of 14-15: An essay at this level:  shows very effective writing skills  is very well organized and well developed  uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas  displays consistent ability in the use of language  demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice Score of 11 - 13: An essay at this level:  shows effective writing skills  is well organized and well developed  uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas  displays consistent ability in the use of language  demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice Score of 9 - 10: An essay at this level:  may address some parts of the task more effectively than others  is generally well organized and developed  uses details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea  displays ability in the use of the language  shows some variety in sentence structure and range of vocabulary Score of 7 - 8: An essay at this level:  addresses the writing topic adequately but does not meet all of the goals of the task  is adequately organized and developed  uses some details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea  shows adequate but possibly inconsistent ability with sentence structure  may contain some usage errors that make the meaning unclear Score of 5 - 6: An essay at this level may reveal one or more of the following weaknesses:  inadequate organization or development  poor choice of details or does not provide enough details to support or illustrate generalizations  a noticeably improper choice of words or word forms  numerous errors in sentence structure and/or usage Score of 3 - 4: An essay at this level is seriously flawed by one or more of the following weaknesses:  serious disorganization or underdevelopment  little or no detail, or irrelevant specifics  serious and frequent errors in sentence structure or usage  serious problems with focus Score of 1- 2: An essay at this level:  may be incoherent  may be undeveloped  may contain severe and persistent writing errors Score of 0: An essay will be rated 0 if it:  contains no response  merely copies the topic  is off-topic, written in a foreign language or consists only of keystroke characters Page 10/8
Họ và tên thí sinh:……………………………………………………. Số báo danh:…………………… Họ và tên giám thị 1:…………………………………………………. Chữ ký:…………………………. Họ và tên giám thị 2:…………………………………………………. Chữ ký:…………………………. Page 11/8