Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT Vĩnh Lộc

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Để đạt thành tích cao trong kì thi sắp tới, các bạn học sinh có thể sử dụng tài liệu Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT Vĩnh Lộc sau đây làm tư liệu tham khảo giúp rèn luyện và nâng cao kĩ năng giải đề thi, nâng cao kiến thức cho bản thân để tự tin hơn khi bước vào kì thi chính thức. Mời các bạn cùng tham khảo đề thi.

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 cấp huyện năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT Vĩnh Lộc

PHÒNG GD & ĐT ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN HUYỆN VĨNH LỘC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 Năm học: 2020-2021 (Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút) PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (150.2 = 3.0 pts) Schools There are different (1)............................................... of schools. There is an elementary school. The children at the elementary school are young. There is a (2)............................................... for them to play in. The classrooms are bright and airy. There are blackboards in the classrooms. The children sit in desks to do their work. There is a (3)............................................... lot for the teachers to park in. There is a (4)............................................... for the students to get food. The principal has an office. Nobody wants to go to the principal's (5)................................................ It usually means that you are in trouble if you have to go to the principal's office. When you (6)............................................... elementary school, you go to high school. Most of the students in high school are (7)................................................ There is a parking lot outside the high school. There is also a football field outside. The students go to classes in different classrooms. They move from classroom to classroom for (8)............................................... subject. There is a cafeteria where they can get their (9)............................................... or eat the lunches that they have brought from home. There is a gymnasium (10)............................................... students have physical education. Dances are also held in the gymnasium. Some students go on to university (11)............................................... high school. Students at the university are older. Some of the students are even senior citizens. People come from all over the (12)............................................... to attend the university. There are lots of different things at the university. There is a (13)............................................... where plays and concerts are held, there is a bookstore where students can buy their textbooks, there is a physical education (14)............................................... that has a swimming pool in it. The parking lot at the university is very big. They call the (15)............................................... that the university is on a campus. Some of the students live on campus in residences. PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt) 16. A. tables B. brushes C. watches D. glasses 17. A. coach B. armchair C. Christmas D. children 18. A. arrived B. laughed C. looked D. watched 19. A. nervous B. scout C. household D. mouse
20. A. together B. teenager C. grow D. regular II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. receive B. number C. disease D. decide 22. A. vacation B. tomato C. material D. surgery 23. A. writer B. soccer C. prefer D. chopstick 24. A. restaurant B. general C. satellite D. arrival 25. A. delicious B. journalist C. favorite D. chemistry PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. When my brother was a boy, he ............................................ games to lessons. A. prefer B. preferring C. prefers D. preferred 27. Mrs. Hanh prefers clothes made ............................................ silk ............................................ those of cotton. A. of/ to B. from/ than C. in/ to D. from/ more 28. Does it take Mr. Hoang 20 minutes............................................ to his office by motorbike? A. go B. to go C. going D. went 29. We don't have anything to do now. Shall we go to our club? - ............................................ A. Yes, let’s B. Yes, we should C. Yes, we go D. Yes, I shall 30. You looked very ............................................ this morning. What was the problem? A. unhappy B. unhappily C. to be unhappy D. being unhappy 31. Don't let your brother play video games so often because it can make him............................................. A. addictive B. wonderful C. interesting D. beautiful 32. My mother told me that: "Being a girl, you ought to learn .......................................... to cook meals." A. how B. when C. what D. where 33. Ba: "I didn't go to school late this morning." Hoan: " ............................................ " A. So did I B. I didn't, too C. Neither did I D. Either didn't I 34. – "............................................... do you play badminton?” - “Every afternoon.” A. Why B. When C. How long D. How often 35. My father is very.......................................... in watching news on TV. A. interest B. interested C. interesting D. to interest II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts) 36. John is riding his motorbike so .......................... that he is sure to have an accident. CARE 37. Hoang 's parents sometimes punished him for his .......................... LAZY 38. Ha's mother is a teacher of physical .......................... in my school. EDUCATE 39. Miss Lien sings the most.......................... in our town. BEAUTY 40. My Linh is a very pleasant girl, but her friend is a little .......................... FRIEND
41. The twins aren't the same. They always do things.......................... DIFFER 42. It is......................... to advise Mr. Thinh. He never takes anyone’s advice. USE 43. My teacher of Maths has a .......................... computer. PORT 44. Miss Anh is a .......................... She sells so many flowers in Ha Noi. FLOWER 45. One of the most popular.......................... at recess in the USA is talking. ACT III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. You can’t make an omelette without (break) .................................... eggs. 47. Daddy, could you tell me how (use) ....................................this laptop? 48. (Take) .................................... these pills and you will feel better then! 49. Your father (be) …………..angry if I use his bicycle? 50. You shouldn't spend all of your time (play) ……………..video games. PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (100.2 = 2.0 pts) One of the first novels in the history of literature (51)…………written in England in 1719. It was Robinson Crusoe by Daniel Defoe. Daniel Defoe was born in London in the family (52)………… a rich man. When Daniel was a schoolboy, he began to write stories. After (53)…………school, he worked in his father’s shop and (54)…………articles for newspapers. Defoe visited many countries and met many people. That helped him (55)…………in his writings. In 1719, when Defoe was sixty years old, he wrote the novel Robinson Crusoe which (56)…………him famous. Defoe used in his book a true story about a sailor who (57)…………on an island for four years. Robinson Crusoe in Defoe’s novel lived on an island for twenty- eight years. People liked (58)…………novel in England and in many other countries, Daniel Defoe wrote other books. (59)…………; his novel Robinson Crusoe was the (60)…………famous. Defoe was not a rich man when he died in 1731. 51. A. was B. were C. has D. have 52. A. on B. at C. of D. to 53. A. coming B. leaving C. staying D. getting 54. A. wrote B. sold C. bought D. read 55. A. some B. many C. plenty D. much 56. A. brought B. took C. made D. let 57. A. lived B. came C. went D. visited 58. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø 59. A. And B. However C. So D. Because 60. A. very B. much C. best D. most II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 =2.0pts) My Favorite Hobby My (61).....………….…. is Susan. My favorite hobby is reading. I enjoy reading books when I (62).....………….…. free time. I started to do it when I was five years old. The first time I read a book, I felt interested (63).....………….…. that book immediately. So I kept reading. My teachers and my
parents usually taught me (64).....………….…. read the difficult words. I was very happy when I read a story with a happy ending but I was thrilled when I read a detective story. I enjoy (65).....………….…. books because I like to explore the imaginative world of my favorite author, J.K. Rowling (66).....………….…. writes “ Harry Potter” . There are a lot of advantages (67).....………….…. reading. Reading can make me feel relaxed and calm. I can also learn new vocabulary items. Then I can further improve my English. Moreover, it can give me an unlimited imagination, so I can write books in (68).....………….…. future. I can learn the different cultures and customs of other (69).....………….…. in the world, too. I read at least one hour every day. I read books by myself. I usually read it at home. I wish I could read different kinds (70).....………….…. books because it might be very challenging. III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) Thank you for calling the North London Arts Cinema. It opens 7 days a week, showing a variety of British and foreign films. Next week, we still show an Italian film called “Midnight Meeting”. It is set in Milan in the 1950s. You can see that film from Monday to Thursday. It will be on twice a day in the evenings. That’s at 6.45 and 9.15. The film lasts two hours and fifteen minutes. Tickets are ₤4, but there is a special student ticket at ₤2.80 for all our midweek films. Please bring your student card if you want the cheaper ticket. The nearest car park to the cinema is in Victory Street. It’s just five-minute walk from the cinema. Thank you for calling the North London Arts Cinema. If you require further information, phone during office hours – 9am to 4.30 pm, Monday to Friday. 71. How many days/ week/ the North London Arts Cinema/ open? ……………………………………………………………………………………………? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 72. What/ title/ film next week? ……………………………………………………………………………………………? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 73. How long/ film/ last? ……………………………………………………………………………………………? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 74. What/ a student/ have to do/ if/ he wants/ the cheaper ticket? …………………………………………………………………………………………….? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 75. How far/ it/ from/ nearest car park/ the cinema? …………………………………………………………………………………………….? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. Did your father spent the whole morning repairing his car? -> Did it take..............................................................................................................? 77. You shouldn't stay up too late. It's not good for your health.
-> You had........................................................................................................................... 78. Our newcomers didn’t come to our club last weekend. -> Our newcomer were...……………………………………………….…..….…………… 79. The driving test this morning was easier than my brother thought. -> The driving test was not……………….......…………………………………………….. 80. Learning Chinese is very difficlult for me. -> It ……………….......……...................................……………………………………….. II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (50.2=1.0 pt) 81. The monitor / always goes / class/ on time to be / good example /for the class. -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 82. Lan/ go/ the doctor/ yesterday because/ she/ have/ an awful stomachache. -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 83. Now, my parents / are / pleased / with/ improvement in my work. -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 84. Minh / was / absent / school / last Monday / because / he / ill. -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 85. It/ take/ Hoa/ twenty minutes/ walk to school/ yesterday? -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about the person you love most of all: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) ĐÁP ÁN PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (150.2 = 3.0 pts) 1. types 2. playground 3. parking 4. cafeteria 5. office 6. finish 7. teenagers 8. each 9. lunches 10. where 11. from 12. world 13. theater 14. building 15. land PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt) 16. A. tables 17. C. Christmas 18. A. arrived 19. A. nervous 20. B. teenager II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. B. number 22. D. surgery 23. C. prefer 24. D. arrival 25. A. delicious PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. D. preferred 27. A. of/ to 28. B. to go 29. A. Yes, let’s 30. A. unhappy 31. A. addictive 32. A. how 33. C. Neither did I 34. C. How often 35. B. interested
II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts) 36. carelessly 37. laziness 38. education 39. beautifully 40. unfriendly 41. differently 42. unuseful/ useless 43. portable 44. florist 45. activities III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. breaking 47. to use 48. Take 49. Will ….be 50. playing PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (100.2 = 2.0 pts) 51. A. was 52. C. of 53. B. leaving 54. A. wrote 55. D. much 56. C. made 57. A. lived 58. C. the 59. B. However 60. D. most II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (100.2 =2.0pts) 61. name 62. have 63. in 64. to 65. reading 66. who 67. of 68. the 69. countries 70. of III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 71. How many days a week does the North London Arts Cinema open? -> It opens 7 days a week. 72. What is the title of film next week? -> It is “Midnight Meeting” 73. How long does the film last? -> It lasts two hours and fifteen minutes. 74. What does a student have to do if he wants the cheaper ticket? -> He has to bring his student card. 75. How far is it from the nearest car park to the cinema? -> It is just five – minute walk. PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. Did it take your father the whole morning to repair his car? 77. You had better not stay up too late. It's not good for your health. 78. Our newcomer were absent from our club last weekend. 79. The driving test was not so/ as difficult as my brother thought. 80. It is very difficult for me to learn Chinese. II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (50.2=1.0 pt) 81. The monitor always goes to class on time to be a good example for the class. 82. Lan went to the doctor yesterday because she had an awful stomachache. 83. Now, my parents are pleased with the improvement in my work. 84. Minh was absent from school last Monday because he was ill. 85. Did it take Hoa twenty minutes to walk to school yesterday?
III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about the person you love most of all: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “Who he/she love most; …”. (0.5pt) - The body: Write that person's relation; his/her appearance/ characteristics/ good points/ the sentences must have connectors and link words... (2,0 pts) - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas, feeling or thoughts about the person he/she loves (s). (0.5 pt) * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have: - Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more). - Correct vocabulary and structures. - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).