Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 cấp tỉnh năm 2019-2020 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT Tĩnh Gia

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Mời quý thầy cô tham khảo Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 cấp tỉnh năm 2019-2020 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT Tĩnh Gia để đánh giá kết quả học tập của học sinh từ đó đưa ra phương pháp ôn thi cho các em có hiệu quả hơn, đồng thời tích lũy kiến thức bài giảng và kinh nghiệm ra đề. Chúc quý thầy cô tìm được nguồn tài liệu hay và hữu ích!

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 cấp tỉnh năm 2019-2020 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT Tĩnh Gia

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT ĐỘI TUYỂN HS GIỎI CẤP TỈNH TĨNH GIA Năm học 2019 - 2020 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn: Tiếng Anh 9 - Bài số 2 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 06 trang PART A: LISTENING (15 points) HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU * Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. * Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe. * Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. Part I: Courtney is describing her recent trip. Are these statements true or false? (5 pts) True False 1. She went to New York by hersefl. 2. She had been to New York before. 3. She thought New York would be dangerous. 4. They ate ethnic food. 5. She thought New York was very expensive. Part II: You are going to listen to a conversation with a woman who wants to join an international social club. Listen and complete the form. (5 pts) International Social Club Application form Name: Jenny Foo Age: 21 Nationality: (6) _________________. Address: (7) _________________, Road Bondi Mobile phone: (8)_________________. Occupation: (9)__________________. Free time interests: (10)_______________. Part III: Listen to a supervisor talking to a group of new nurses at a large hospital and choose the best answer according to what you hear. (5 pts) 11. According to Debbie, why do some people fail to eat a balanced diet? A. They don’t know how to cook. B. They don’t have enough time to cook. C. They don’t feel hungry enough to cook. 12. Debbie recommends that staff should keep fit by A. Using a gym. B.Taking up a new sport. C. Changing some daily activities. 13. Which benefit of exercise does Debbie think is most important? A. It helps you sleep. B. It keeps your heart healthy. C. It improves mental skills. 1
14. What advice does Debbie give the nurses about health and safety? A. To avoid drinking coffee. B. To use the canteen at night. C. To take regular breaks. 15. When she talks about hygiene, Debbie asks the nurses to A. Wash their hands regularly. B. Keep away from germs. C. Help with the cleaning SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 points) Question I: Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in the group. (3 pts) 16. A. housed B. released C. advised D. cleansed 17. A. put B. putt C. puss D. pulpit 18. A. canary B. share C. baron D. pharaoh Question II: Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. (2 pts) 19. A. dormitory B. university C. institute D. scholarship 20. A. oceanic B. documentary C. magazine D. encyclopedia SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points) Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pst) 21. Many road accidents occur because motorists cannot ____the speed of approaching vehicles. A. assume B. count C. assess D. value 22. I can’t help ____________what I should do next. A. but to wonder B. except wonder C. but wonder D. apart wondering 23. Jane was shocked when I disagreed with her . She’s so used to getting her own_______ . A. mind B. way C. opinion D. views 24. He kept his marriage a secret for years ,but eventually the truth_______ . A came out B. came through C. went out D turned out 25. The school was closed for a month because of serious _________of fever. A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak 26. To solve this problem, it is advisable _________________. A. a drastic measure to be adopted B. that to adopt a drastic measure C. that a drastic measure be adopted D. that a drastic measure is adopted 27. For months I sat with my binoculars watching birds ____________ its young. A. rear B. breed C. bring up D. grow 28. It was _____________a victory that even Smith’s fans couldn’t believe it. A. such surprising B. so surprising C. too surprising D. surprising enough 29.D.W. Griffith pioneered many of the stylistic features and filmmaking techniques________as the Hollywood standard. A. that establish B. that became established C. what established D. what became established 30. She is __________. A. a well-known but not a widely-read poet. B. a well-known poet but not read widely. C. a well-known but not a poet which is read widely. D. a well-known poet but who is not a widely-read. Question II: Write the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (8 pts) 31. At this time next week, they (sit) ___________in the train on their way to Paris. 2
32. He got the highest mark in the test yesterday. He (prepare) _____________well for it. 33. I’d sooner they (not deliver)_____________ the new furniture now. 34. At no time he (know)__________________ she was a teacher. 35. The price of gold is said ( go up) ______________ now. 36. Most films are made (show) ______________ in the theatre. 37. He insisted that his method (be) ____________ correct. 38. My plane has been delayed. Daniel and Susana (wait)___________for me at the airport for hours. Question III: Supply the correct form of the words in brackets. (7 points) 39. He won the discus event at the Olympic Games but was later ____when a (QUALIFY) medical check proved that he had been taking drugs. 40. The inn is _______ situated on the banks of the river. (PICTURE) 41. Turn the knob in a _______ dirrection to open the door. (CLOCK) 42.___________ marriage has been made illegal by most modern societies. (AGE) 43. Her father doesn’t work because he is seriously sick. Her mother is therefore (WIN) the main _______of the family. 44. He led a simple life, with few ____, and never owned a home in his own. (BELONG 45. The slice of pork was________, so she refused to eat it . She was afraid of having (COOK) stomachache. Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text ( from 46 to 50 ). Identify each mistake, write it down and give your correction. (5pts) Although a certain percent of graduates will still be unemployed six months after Line 1 leaving university, the majority will have found employment by then. Many of Line 2 these will even have offered a job while at university, as a result of visiting a job Line 3 fair. Job fairs are held at many universities each year. Companies come along to Line 4 advertise jobs, that are usually in management, and the career structures and benefit Line 5 packages, that go with them. Job fairs are an effective way for undergraduates to Line 6 find out what kind of job they might be interested in. Line 7 If you go to a fair, dress professionally. Don’t wear jeans and a T-shirt. Wear a Line 8 suit! You don’t want to look irresponsibly when you have your first meeting with Line 9 your potential employer. If you are interested in a job on offer, you may have to fill Line 10 out an application form, so it’s helpful to take along relevant information with you. Line 11 You’ll also need proof of all your qualifications, so not forget to take photocopies Line12 of all your certificates with you. SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts) Question I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts) THE VALUE OF WALKING New research reveals that walking just 9.5 kilometres (six miles) a week may keep your brain sharper as you get older. Research published in the October 13 online issue of Neurology suggests that walking may protect aging brains from growing smaller and, in (51)____, preserve memory in old age. “Brain size shrinks in late adulthood, which can cause memory problems”, study author Kirk Erickson of the University of Pittsburgh said in a news release. “Our findings should encourage further well-designed scientific (52)______ of physical exercise in older adults as a very(53)____ approach for preventing dementia and Alzheimer’s disease.” For the study, the team asked 299 dementia-free seniors to record the (54)_______ they walked each week. 3
Four years later, the participants were tested to see if they had developed (55)______ of dementia. Then after nine years had passed, scientists (56)______ the participants’ brains to measure size. At the four- year test , researchers discovered subjects who walked the most and had(57)_____ their risk of developing memory problems by 50 per cent. At the nine-year check point, those who walked at least 9.5 kilometers a week, had brains with a larger (58)_______ than those who didn’t walk as much. This is not the first study to(59)______ the benefits of walking in seniors. For example, the last spring, Harvard University found that women who walked regularly at a (60)_____ pace had an almost 40 percent lower risk of stroke. 51. A. result B. turn C. sequence D. case 52. A. trials B. attempts C. searches D. courses 53. A. indicative B. promising C. fortunate D. ideal 54. A. distance B. length C. duration D. extent 55. A. signals B. factors C. signs D. features 56. A. skimmed B. scanned C. screened D. sounded 57. A. depressed B. declined C. reduced D. dropped 58. A. volume B. amount C. dimension D. quantity 59. A. advertise B. promote C. respect D. admire 60. A. brisk B. hard C. crisp D. brief Question II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (10pts) NEIL ARMSTRONG Neil Armstrong was born on 5 August 1930, in Ohio, United States. He was (61) _______ in flying from an early age. When he was only eight years old, he (62) ___________his first model plane. When he was ten years old, he got a part-time job mowing grass so that he could have (63)_________money to purchase newer and bigger planes. When Armstrong was a high school student, he continued to (64) ______up different part-time work. He wanted to earn more money (65)________was needed to pay for his flying lessons. On his (66) _______birthday in 1946, Armstrong was very exhilarated on learning that he had gained his pilot's license. The following year, 1947, Armstrong finished high school and went to Purdue University to study aeronautical engineering. However , before he could finish his university studies, he was called up by the Navy to fight in the Korean War. In 1952, Armstrong returned to the USA to (67) ______his studies at Purdue. He graduated from the university in 1955 and worked as a research pilot, testing new aircraft. In 1962, Armstrong was selected by National Aeronautics and (68)_____Administration (NASA) to be an astronaut. He and several others had to go (69)________an intensive program of training to prepare (70)_______for America's first mission to land on the moon. He is still famous for his saying “It's only a small step of ours, but it is a giant leap of the human”. Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions below.(10 pts) American Online is one of the big names on the Internet, and unlike many other digital companies, it actually makes a profit. But the company which its rivals call the “Cyber – cockroach” was launched only in 1992. Before that, it was a small firm called control Video Corporation, and it made video games. Then Steve Case, a former Pizza Hut marketing executive arrived and took the company online, innovative, fast moving, and user - friendly, 4
American online appeals to people who want to search the Internet, but who do not have a lot of experience. For the same reason “teachies”, people who think they are more expert with computers, look down on American Online and its users. Recently, American Online (or AOL, as it calls itself) joined with Time Warn – a multi - million dollar movie and magazine company - to create a multi media giant. Now, AOL has begun to expand abroad. In many European countries, including the United Kingdom, it is hard to buy a computer magazine that does not have a free AOL introductory offer. The company also puts advertisements onto the television, and employs people to hand out its free introductory disks at places like train stations. As the Internet gets faster, AOL is changing. With many homes getting high - speed connection through fiber optic cables, or the new ADSL technology, the “Cyber - cockroach” will have to show that like real cockroaches, it can survive in almost any environment. 71. What is the passage about? A. a computer company B. a software company C. an Internet company D. a video company 72. The word “it” in line……..refers to: A. American Online B. Cyber - cockroach C. Control video corporation D. digital company 73. Who does Steve Case work for? A. Pizza Hut B. AOL C. Control video Corporation D. None of these 74. How do “teachies” feel about American Online? A. They think it is a Cyber - cockroach B. They think it is for experts C. They think it is a movie and a magazine company D. They feel superior to its users 75. American Online has the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. innovative B. experienced C. user - friendly D. fast moving 76. People who use American Online are probably: A. video game players B. “teachies” C. movie fans D. people new to the Internet 77. American Online is an unusual digital company because: A. it used to make video games B. it is innovative C. it makes money D. is has joined with another company 78. Which marketing idea is NOT mentioned? A. advertisements on the Internet B. advertisements on TV C. free disks in journals D. people giving disks away 79. What does the article say about AOL’s future? A. it will do well B. it will do badly C. it will face challenges D. The article doesn’t say 80. What is this passage mainly concerned with? A. technology B. a history of the Internet C. computer users D. a successful business SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts) Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed above it. (5 pts) 81. His jealousy increases with his love for her.  The ______________________________________________________________. 5
82. She discovered a new chemical element in her experiment.  Her experiment__________________________________________________________ 83. It was wrong of you to allow a 4-year-old child to walk home alone.  You _____ _____________________________________________________________. 84. It’s such a difficult question that I can’t find the answer.  So ___________________________________________________________________. 85. The truth only came out on the publication of the general’s personal diaries.  Only when ______________________________________________________________. Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, using the words given. (5 pts) 86. People say that the pyramids are worth visiting. (SUPPOSED)  ___________________________________________________________________. 87. I was about to go out for dinner when he phoned. (POINT)  ___________________________________________________________________. 88. You are tired because you stayed up late last night (IF)  ___________________________________________________________________. 89. I suggested he phone his mother and he did it immediately. (THEN)  ___________________________________________________________________. 90. She began to suffer from irrational fears. (PREY)  ___________________________________________________________________. Question III. Write a paragraph 120 - 150 words ( 10 pts) "What do you think about the values of libraries?" Use your experiences and examples to support your ideas …………….. THE END ………………. 6
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH SECTION A: LISTENING (15 points) Part I: Courtney is describing her recent trip. Are these statements true or false? (5 pts) 1.F 2.F 3.T 4.T 5.T Part II: You are going to listen to a conversation with a woman who wants to join an international social club. Listen and complete the form. (5 pts) 6. Malaysian 7. 13 Anglesea 8. 040 422 9160 9. Economist 10. dancing Part III: Listen to a supervisor talking to a group of new nurses at a large hospitaland choose the best answer according to what you hear. (5 pts) 11.B 12.C 13. A 14. C 15. C SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 points) Question I: Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in the group. (3 pts) 16. B. released 17. B. putt 18. C. baron Question II: Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. (2 pts) 19 B. university 20. D. encyclopedia SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points) Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pst) 21- C 22- C 23- B 24- A 25- D 26- C 27- A 28- B 29- B 30- A Question II: Write the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (8 pts) 31. will be sitting 32. must have prepared 33. didn't deliver 34. did he know 35. To be growing up 36. To be shown 37. (should) be 38. will have been waiting Question III: Supply the correct form of the words in brackets. (7 points) 39. disqualified 40 picturesquely 41. clockwise 42. underage 43. breadwinner 44. belongings 45. Undercooked Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text ( from 46 to 50 ). Identify each mistake, write it down and give your correction. (5pts) 46. Line 1: percent -> percentage 47. Line 3: have offered -> have been offered 48. Line 5: that -> which 49. Line 9: irresponsibly -> irresponsible 50. Line 12: not -> don’t SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts) 7
Question I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts) 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 A A C C B D D C D B Question II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (10pts) 61- interested 62- made 63- enough 64- take 65- which/that th 66- sixteenth/ 16 67- continue 68- Space 69- through 70- themselves Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions below.(10 pts) 71. C 72. A 73. B 74. D 75. B 76. D 77. C 78. A 79. C 80. D SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts) Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed above it. (5 pts) 81. The more he loves her, the more jealous he is. 82. Her experiment resulted in discovering/ the discovery of a new chemical element 83. You should not have allowed a four-year-old to walk home alone. 84. So difficult is a/the question that I can’t find the answer. 85. Only when the general’s personal diaries were published did the truth come out Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, using the words given. (5 pts) 86. The pyramids are supposed to be worth visiting. 87. I was on the point of going out for dinner when he phoned. 88. If you hadn’t stayed up late last night, you wouldn’t be tired now. 89. I suggested he phone his mother and he did it there and then. 90. She fell prey to irrational fears. Question III. Write a paragraph 120 - 150 words ( 10 pts) Marking criteria: giám khảo căn cứ mức độ hoàn thành bài viết của thí sinh, đối chiếu với hướng dẫn sau đây để cho điểm: - Task completion: 3 points Thí sinh hoàn thành bài viết với nội dung và số lượng từ yêu cầu cho từ 2-3 points - Vocabulary and grammar: 2 points Từ vựng và ngữ pháp phong phú , ít lặp lại cho từ 1-2 points - Spelling mistakes and grammar mistakes: 3 points Dưới 5 lỗi cho 3 points, 5- 8 lỗi cho 2 points, trên 9-10 lỗi cho 1 point, trên 10 lỗi ko cho điểm phần này. - Coherence and cohesion: 2 points Bài viết mạch lạc, có tính liên kết tốt cho tối đa 2 points, nếu sự mạch lạc, liên kết quá kém không cho điểm. Tổng số points Tổng điểm toàn bài = 5 Điểm toàn bài được làm tròn đến 0,25 8