ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC ĐỢT II (2010-2011)

Chia sẻ: Thanh Cong | Ngày: | Loại File: PDF | Số trang:13

Thêm vào BST

Báo xấu

68
lượt xem 9
download

Download Vui lòng tải xuống để xem tài liệu đầy đủ

Tham khảo tài liệu 'đề thi thử đại học đợt ii (2010-2011)', tài liệu phổ thông, ôn thi đh-cđ phục vụ nhu cầu học tập, nghiên cứu và làm việc hiệu quả

Chủ đề:

Bình luận(0) Đăng nhập để gửi bình luận!

Lưu

Nội dung Text: ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC ĐỢT II (2010-2011)

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC ĐỢT II (2010-2011) Trường: Lương Thế Vinh – Hà Nội Thời gian: 90 phút Questions: 1 - 10 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (1) ………….. as much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (2) …………… and tone of voice are obvious ways of showing our (3) .................. to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express views that we are trying to hide. The art of being ( 4) ………… lies in picking up these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact (5) …………… to answer our question, and so we stop pressing them. Body movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down. However it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance, while what many employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character traits, and (6) ………….. stability. This raises the awkward question of whether job candidates should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually produce (7) …………….. results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an objectionable (8) ……………….. into their private lives. After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his or her family doctor to provide (9) …………… medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can such tests predict whether a person is likely to be a (10) ……………… employee or a values colleague? Question 1: A. reckon B. rely C. trust D. estimate Question 2: A. manner B. image C. expression D. looks Question 3: A. notion B. feeling C. view D. reaction Question 4: A. successful B. humble C. good at D. tactful Question 5: A. hesitant B. reluctant C. tending D. used Question 6: A. psychological B. physical C. similar D. relevant Question 7: A. reliable B. predictable C. faithful D. regular Question 8: A. invasion B. infringement C. intrusion D. interference Question 9: A. confidential B. secretive C. reticent D. classified Question 10: A. laborious B. particular C. thorough D. conscientious
Questions 11 – 15: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 11: Schools are important, vital means by which modern education is A B C provided. D Question 12: The philosophers and artists of ancient Greece and Rome emphasized the A B study of human as fundamental to their doctrine. C D Question 13: Everything we think we have disposal of still here on our planet and in A B C D the ecosystem. Question 14: So extensive the lakes are that they are viewed as the largest bodies of A B C fresh water in the world. D Question 15: As you may know, these data in the table concerning with pressure and A B temperature are going to change, following the next experiment. C D Questions 16 – 45 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions: Question 16: Doctors advise people who are deficient …………. Vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables. A. in B. of C. from D. for Question 17: “Many happy returns!” – “ _______________!” A. You too B. The same to you C. Thanks D. Good luck Question 18: I suggest we ……….. outside the cinema tomorrow at 8.30. A. meet B. meeting C. met D. will meet Question 19: Determining the mineral content of soil samples is an extracting process; ……………, experts must perform detailed tests to analyze soil specimens.
A. so that B. afterwards C. therefore D. however Question 20: Some animals are on the …………… of becoming extinct. A. tip B. verge C. edge D. side Question 21: “How kind, you really shouldn’t have bothered.” – “______________.” A. It was nothing, really B. Don’t worry, I didn’t bo ther C. Why not? I was happy D. It was a very good thing Question 22: Down into the cave ………………… A. did the rescue party go B. the rescue party went C. went the rescue party D. did go the rescue party Question 23: “I thought that the tour began at 3:00.” - “Oh, no, you’re ______________. It began at 1:30.” A. too much late here B. too much here late C. here too late much D. here much too late Question 24: This ticket ………… one person to the museum. A. admits B. permits C . enters D. allows Question 25: The latest crisis was brought ………… by the mishandling of the economy. A. over B. in C. about D. down Question 26: On leaving prison, Vic decided to turn over a new …………... and to give up his old life of crime. A. leaf B. chapter C. book D. page Question 27: The best way of writing a compos
ition in a foreign language is to try and write ……………. thinking in your own language. A. expect B. unless C. apart from D. wit hout Question 28: The names of some synthetic fabrics, including rayon, are rapidly passing into the popular speech without public apprehension that they are registered trade names. A. realization B. questioning C. notice D. gratitude Question 29: I agree with most of what you said, but I can’t ……….. your idea of letting children leave school at 14. A. catch up with B. keep up with C. go along with D. put up with Question 30: Many children who get into trouble in their early teens go on to become ………. offenders. A. consistent B. insistent C. persistent D. resistant Question 31: His father is a bank manager, …………. Makes him easy to have a good job. A. whom B. who C. that D. wh ich Question 32: …………. drivers usually drive very slowly. A. Learner B. Student C. Learning D. Practic e Question 33: The bank manager said that he ………. Appreciated that we were having problems, but there was nothing he could do to help. A. fully B. greatly C. utterly D. largely Question 34: When facing problems, it is important to keep a sense of ……….. A. comparison B. relativity C proportion D. introspection Question 35: “What have you been ______?” – “Oh, nothing much. The usual things.” A. about B. up to C. out with D. dow n to Question 36: When he realized the police had spotted him, the man ………… the exit as quickly as possible. A. made up B. made for C. made off D. made out Question 37: The professor noticed that the student’s essay ………… a strong resemblance to an article he had seen published in a journal. A. held B. contained C. carried D. bore Question 38: Ralph Nader was the most prominent leader of the U.S consumer protection movement. A. aggressive B. significant C. discriminating D. promiscuous Question 39: The choir stood in four rows according to their ……… heights. A. respective B. respected C. respectful D. respectable Question 40: Being quick on the ………., the student made rapid progress. A. takeover B. intake C. take -off D. uptake
Question 41: “David seemed very angry.” – “______________.” A. He seemed B. He had C. He was D. He did Question 42: ………… further rioting to occur, the government would be forced to use its emergency powers. A. Had B. Were C. Should D. Did Question 43: UNICEF has assumed the responsibility of aiding children in need. A. evaded B. affected C . violated D. taken on Question 44: He manages to get ……….. his monthly salary in a couple of weeks. A. through B. by C. round D. over Question 45: My husband doesn’t treat me with as much consideration as he used to; I rather feel that he takes it for ……….. A. supplied B. granted C. given D. accepte d Questions 46 – 50: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your sheet to indicate the correct and natural way of combining of each pair of sentences given: Question 46: We’d better leave them a note. It’s possible they’ll arrive later. A. If they arrive late, we’d better leave them a note. B. We’d better leave them a note as they possibly arrive later. C. They’ll probably arrive later so that we’d better leave them a note. D. We’d better leave them a note in case they arrive later. Question 47: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the pa st. A. In the past, women cover their heads but they do so today in some countries. B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in th past. C. Women still cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past. D. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past. Question 48: Father has been working all day. He must be tired now. A. Father must work all day and tired now. B. Father thinks he is tired now because he has been working a ll day. C. I’m sure that father is tired after working all day. D. I think father was tired all day working. Question 49: Her husband died. When she heard the news, she fainted. A. On hearing the news of her dead husband, she fainted. B. When hearing the news from her dead husband, she fainted. C. On hearing the news of her husband’s death, she fainted.
D. When she heard the deadly news of her husband, she fainted. Question 50: Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment. Others feel that it allows more jobs to be created. A. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment, so others feel that it allows more jobs to be created. B. Arguing that new technology causes unemployment, other economists feel that it allows more jobs to be created. C. Besides the argument that new technology causes unemployment, some economists feel that it allows more jobs to be created. D. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment whereas others feel that it allows more jobs to be created. Questions 51 – 60: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions. Sex – trait stereotypes may be defines as a set of psychological attributes that characterize men more frequently than women. Thus, males are often described as ambitious, unemotional, and independent and, on the other hand, Line selfish, unrefined, and insensitive. Females are described as emotional, (5) irrational, high-strung, and tentative. In spite of the egalitarian movement, recent studies have demonstrated that sex-trait stereotypes remain common among young adults today. In fact, such stereotyping has proved to be the psychological justification for social beliefs concerning the appropriateness of various activities for men and women that further perpetuate the different sex (10) roles traditionally ascribed to men and women. The awareness of sex – trait stereotypes in the United States developes a linear fashion between the ages of four and ten. Generally, knowledge of male stereotypical characteristics develops earlier, whereas knowledge of female characteristics increases more rapidly between the ages of four and seven. (15) While the reasons for this learning are not fully understood, evidence suggests that at the preschool level children’s literature and television programs provide powerful models and reinforcement for stereotyped views. Studies designed to compare sex-trait stereotypes cross – nationally show a high degree of correspondence in the characteristics ascribed to men and (20) women. As finding have been obtained in the other countries, two hypotheses have been advanced to explain the commonalities in sex trait stereotyping. One states that pancultural similarities play a role in the psychological
characteristics attributed to men and women, and the second states that the general picture is one of cultural relativism. Question 51: The passage is probably an excerpt from an article on A. sociology B. demographics C. psychotherapy D. sociobiology Question 52: Which of the following statements is supported in the passage? A. The beliefs of young adults are more common among the old. B. The beliefs of young adults have shown little change. C. Young adults have participated in many common studied. D. The egalitarian movement has been a resounding success. Question 53: In line 3, the word ambitious is closest in meaning to A. anxious B. ambiguous C. enterprising D. honest Question 54: In line 4, the word high-strung is closest in meaning to A. nervous B. hideous C. high-class D. fair-minded Question 55: In line 9, the word perpetuate is closest in meaning to A. perplex B. maintain C. mount D. personalize Question 56: According to the passage, characterizations of men and women as having particular sets of attributed are A. found in several coutries B. reflected in modern fashion C. uniform across all groups D. contingent on a socioeconomic class Question 57: It can be inferred from the second paragraph that young children learn about sex-trait stereotypes A. by watching their parents B when their learning is reinforced C. by being exposed to various media D. after they start school Question 58: It can be inferred from paragraph that social beliefs precipitate A. nontraditional gender roles B. the rationalizatio n for stereotyping C. the on-going egalitarian change D. concerns for the legitimacy of sex traits Question 59: The author of the passage would most probably agree with which of the following statements? A. Social attitudes are not likely to change radically B. Social attitudes toward women have been updated and made more balanced. C. Social attitudes toward men are continually nullified and modernized. D. The women’s liberation movement has borne little fruit. Question 60: Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. A Cross – examination of Stereotypical Behaviors B. A Relativist Perspective on Stereotyping C. The Pervasiveness of Sex – Trait Stereotypes
D. A Unilateral Approach to Sex – Trait Stereotyping Questions 61 – 65 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions: Question 61: A. futurologist B. deforestation C. humanitarian D. entrepreneurial Question 62: A. evacuate B. originate C. sanitary D. certificate Question 63: A. industrial B. infrequent C. initial D. integrate Question 64: A. neglect B. digest C. decent D. defend Question 65: A. personal B. semester C. eternal D. opponent Questions 66 – 75: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface Line movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The (5) currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep. The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality, (10) however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies. The tidal (15) movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times, the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward (20) against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon, and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time
during the month. Question 66: The word felt in line 4 is closest in meaning to A. explored B. dropped C. detected D. ba sed Question 67: The words In reality in line 9 are closest in meaning to A. characteristically B. similarly C. surprisingly D. actually Question 68: The word correspondingly in line 13 is closest in meaning to A. unusually B. interestingly C. similarly D. unpredic tably Question 69: The word configuration in line 22 is closest in meaning to A. surface B. arrangement C. unit D. cente r Question 70: Neap tides occur when A. the Sun counteracts the Moon’s gravitational attraction B. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon’s gravitational attraction C. the Moon is full D. the Moon is farthest from the Sun Question 71: What is the cause of the spring tides? A. Seasonal changes in the weather B. The triangular arrangment of the Earth, Sun, and Moon C. The Earth’s movement around the Sun D. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth Question 72: Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than those caused by tides? A. Lines 11 - 13 B. Lines 2 – 6 C. Lines 19 - 23 D. Lines 13 – 16 Question 73: What is the main point of the first paragraph? A. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only mo ves surface water C. The waves created by ocean currents are very large D. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water Question 74: According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true EXCEPT: A. Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides B. The time of high tide is later each day C. The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon D. Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do Question 75: It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in
determining how much gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is A. temperature B. distance C. size D. density Questions 76 – 80: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer which completes each of the following sentences: Question 76: The knee is ____________ most other joints in the body because it cannot twist without injury. A. to be damaged more than likely B. more likely to be damaged than C. likely to be more than damaged D. more than likely to be damaged Question 77: Written to be performed on a ____________, Thornton Wilder’s play Our Town depics life in a small New England community. A. stage scenery of bare B. scenery bare of stage C. stage bare of scenery D. bare of stage scenery Question 78: According to some educators, the goal of teaching is to help students learn what _____________ to know to live a well-adjusted and successful life. A. they need B. as the may need C. do they need D. they are needed Question 79: Following the guidelines for speaking and voting established by the book Robert’s Rules of Order, _____________, during meetings. A. are avoiding procedural confusion in large decision – making organizations B. and avoid large decision – making organizations’ procedural confusion C. is procedural confusion avoied by large decision – making organizations D. large decision – making organizations avoid procedural confusion Question 80: Not until Kentucky’s Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972 ____________. A. when was its full extent realized
B. the realization of its full extent C. was its full extent realized D. that its full extent was realized The end KEY 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. B (bỏ important hoặc vital vì hai từ nghia tuong duong nhau) 12. C (humans) 13. C (being) 14. A (are the lakes) 15. B (concerned) 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. B 21. A 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. C
26. A 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. C 31. D 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. B 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. D 41. B 42. B 43. A 44. D 45. B 46. D 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. D 51. A 52. B 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. A 57. C 58. B 59. A 60. C 61. A 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. A 66. C 67. D 68. C 69. B 70. A
71. D 72. B 73. A 74. C 75. B 76. B 77. C 78. A 79. D 80. C