Đề thi thử kỳ thi THPT quốc gia lần thứ 2 năm 2015 có đáp án môn Tiếng Anh - Trường THPT Lý Tự Trọng (Mã đề 123)

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"Đề thi thử kỳ thi THPT quốc gia lần thứ 2 năm 2015 có đáp án môn Tiếng Anh - Trường THPT Lý Tự Trọng (Mã đề 123)" giới thiệu 64 câu trắc nghiệm giúp và 5 câu tự luận giúp các em học sinh có thể ôn tập lại các kiến thức đồng thời làm quen phương pháp làm bài thi Tiếng Anh, chuẩn bị thật tốt cho kỳ thi quan trọng sắp tới.

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SỞ GD & ĐT BÌNH ĐỊNH TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ TỰ TRỌNG ĐỀ SỐ 123 KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015 - ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 2 MÔN TIẾNG ANH. THỜI GIAN 90 PHÚT Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 1/. A. biodiversity B. habitat C. rhinoceros D. urbanization 2/. A. growth B. although C. within D. southern Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. 3/. A. compulsory B. September C. primary D. computing 4/. A. interviewer B. preparation C. university D. education 5/. A. forgettable B. philosophy C. humanism D. objectively Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions 6/. There were so many members of the political party who had gone against the leader that he signed. A. apposed B. insisted C. invited D. opposed 7/. I didn’t go to work this morning. I stay at home due to the morning rain. A. thanks to B. on account of C. in spite of D. in addition to 8/. Currently, there are more deer in the United States than at any other time in our history. A. At present B. At once C. Before long D. Up to now Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 9/. It was a very wonderful opportunity for us to catch. A. break B. destroy C. hold D. miss 10/. There were more than 5,000 participants in the marathon race. A. under B. below C. underneath D. less than Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11/. He really deserved the award because he performed _________ what was expected of him. A. much better than B. much better which C. the most that D. much more as 12/. He had to explain the lesson very clearly _________. A. in order that his students could understand it B. so that his students to understand it C. in order for his students to understand it D. for his students could understand it 13/. We found the exam extremely easy. We ________ so hard. A. needn't study B. needn't be studying C. needn't have studied D. needn't have been studied 14/. ______, give her this map of the city. A. When Mr. Leat’s wife will arrive B. When Mr. Leat’s wife arrived C. When Mr. Leat’s wife arrives D. When is Mr. Leat’s wife arriving 15/. By the end of next year, George _____ English for 2 years. A. would learn B. will have learnt C. will learn D. has learnt 16/. Only when he started to explain _________the reason for this. A. she had realized B. she realized C. had she realized D. did she realize 17/. - Tom: “I have never seen such a perfect thing on you”. - Mary: “ _______.” A. Haven’t you? B. I am so happy C. Really? D. Thank you. That’s a nice compliment 18/. I didn’t know exactly how old he was, but he _________about 30 the first time we met. A. should be B. should have been C. must be D. must have been 19/. Susan’s doctor insists_________ for a few days. A. her resting B. that she rest C. her to rest D. that she is resting 20/. ________ your help, I wouldn't have got the scholarship. A. If I had had B. Unless I had C. Had not it been for D. But for 21/. My friend said that she ……………………. the job two weeks before. A. has offered B. would offer C. had been offered D. was offered 22/. Finishing his speech, to make questions. A. the students asked him B. he asked the students C. the students asked D. he asked 23/. I wish you here with me now. A. would be B. will be C. were D. had been
24/. She asked me to another country in the region. A. if I had been B. weather I had been C. I had been D. had I been 25/. Well, it was nice talking to you, but I have to dash – . A. Yes, I enjoyed talking to you too B. OK, see you C. Why don’t you stay for a while D. You are so polite 26/. Did you notice _______ at the fair? A. special anything B. anything specially C. special thing D. anything special 27/. “How’s Joe after the accident?” –“ .” A. Thanks B. He seems to be OK C. Not at all D. You’re very nice 28/. You are supposed to lock all the doors before . A. you are leaving B. you will leave C. you leave D. you have left 29/. I used to live in a village people had a close relation to one another. A. where B. which C. which in D. in that Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. 30/. Singapore has a highly developed market-based economy. Singapore, along with Hong Kong, A B C South Korea and Taiwan, are one of the Four Asian Tigers. D 31/. The value of the dollar declines as the rate of inflation raises. A B C D 32/. The proposed rationale was that a regional sports event will help promote cooperative, A B C understanding and relations among countries in the Southeast Asian region. D 33/. No other quality is more important for a scientist to acquire as to observe carefully. A B C D 34/. It is said to water covers most of the earth's surface A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks. BECOMING A NURSE: THE INTERVIEW The reality of an interview is never as bad as your fears. For some reasons, people imagine the interview is going to jump on every tiny mistake they (35) _____. In truth, the interviewer is as keen for the meeting to go well (36) _____ you are. It is what makes his or her job (37) ______. The secret of a good interview is preparing for it. What you wear is always important as it creates the first impression. So (38) _____ neatly, but comfortably. Make (39)______ that you can deal with anything you are asked. Prepare for questions that are certain to come up, for example: Why do you want to become a nurse? What is the most important (40) ______ a good nurse should have? Apart from nursing, what other careers have you (41) ______? What are your interests and hobbies? Answer the questions fully and precise. For instance, if one of your interests is reading, be prepared to talk about the sort of books you like. (42)_____, do not learn all the answers off by heart. The interviewer wants to meet a human (43) ____, not a robot. Remember, the interviewer is genuinely interested in you, so the more you relax and are yourself, the more (44) ____you are to succeed. 35/. A. perform B. do C. make D. have 36/. A. as B. like C. the same D. than 37/. A. enjoy B. enjoyable C. enjoyably D. enjoyment 38/. A. dress B. wear C. put on D. have on 39/. A. evident B. define C. clear D. sure 40/. A. character B. quality C. nature D. point 41/. A. thought B. regarded C. considered D. wondered 42/. A. However B. Although C. Despite D. Therefore 43/. A. person B. being C. somebody D. nature 44/. A. easy B. possible C. likely D. probable Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider. Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings
that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work ?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you. The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission. Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one. 45/. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _________ A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing 46/. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to _________ A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different. B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process. C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time. 47/. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to_________ A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs 48/. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to live in a big city? A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising 49/. It can be inferred from the paragraph 4 that _________ A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid. B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career. C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion. D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career. 50/. The word “evoke” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _________ A. agree on B. bring to mind C. be related to D. differ from 51/. The word “that” in paragraph 5 refers to _________ A. the traveling life B. occupation C. a flight attendant D. commission 52/. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that _________ A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future. B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling. C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully. D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future. 53/. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 5? A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber. B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception. C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen. D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant. 54/. According to the passage, which of the following is true? A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary. B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs. C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these
symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot. Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings. (Source: TOEFL Reading) 55/. Which of the following best summarizes this passage? A. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners. B. Everybody uses only one form of communication. C. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication. D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest. 56/. The word “these” in paragraph1 refers to A. sign language motions B. tourists C. the deaf and the mute D. thoughts and feelings 57/. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT _________ A. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication B. there are many forms of communication in existence today C. verbalization is the most common form of communication D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language 58/. Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people? A. Body language B. Picture sig C. Signal flags D. Braille 59/. How many different forms of communication are mentioned here? A. 11 B. 7 C. 5 D. 9 60/. The word “wink” in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as A. close one eye briefly B. close two eyes briefly C. bob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side 61/. Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for A. expressions B. ideas C. whole words D. spelling 62/. People need to communicate in order to A. create language barriers B. express thoughts and feelings C. keep from reading with their fingertips D. be picturesque and exact 63/. What is the best title for the passage? A. Ways of Expressing Feelings B. The Important of Sign Language C. The Many Forms of Communication D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication 64/. Who would be MOST likely to use Morse code? A. A scientist B. An airline pilot C. A telegrapher D. A spy WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. 1/. They have taught English in this country for years. English has been taught in this country for years. 2/. She is the most beautiful girl in the class. No one in the class is more beautiful than her 3/. Those boys and girls are intelligent. How intelligent those boys and girls are! 4/. Daisy seldom went to the concert on her own. Seldom did Daisy go to the concert on her own. 5/. He lost his job because he was late everyday. If he hadn’t been late everyday, he wouldn’t have lost his job. Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about “A person you love/ admire most” …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. _________The end__________
TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ TỰ TRỌNG KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015 - ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 2 MÔN TIẾNG ANH. THỜI GIAN 90 PHÚT HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ SỐ 123 I/. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM. 64 câu x 0,125 = 8đ II/. WRITING Part I. 5 x 0,1 = 0,5đ Part II. 1,5đ