Giáo trình Phát triển năng lực ngôn ngữ tiếng Anh thông qua các dạng thi quốc tế - Trường Cao đẳng Sư phạm Lạng Sơn
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Giáo trình Phát triển năng lực ngôn ngữ tiếng Anh thông qua các dạng thi quốc tế cung cấp cho giáo viên và sinh viên tài liệu giảng dạy và học tập cho học phần thay thế thi tốt nghiệp “Phát triển năng lực ngôn ngữ tiếng Anh” gồm 2 tín chỉ (30 tiết); Giúp cho sinh viên làm quen và luyện tập với các dạng thi tiếng Anh học thuật quốc tế: FCE/B2 và IELTS; Giúp sinh viên rèn luyện và phát triển kỹ năng ngôn ngữ Nghe, Nói, Đọc, Viết.
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Nội dung Text: Giáo trình Phát triển năng lực ngôn ngữ tiếng Anh thông qua các dạng thi quốc tế - Trường Cao đẳng Sư phạm Lạng Sơn
- TRƯỜNG CAO ĐẲNG SƯ PHẠM LẠNG SƠN KHOA NGOẠI NGỮ CHỦ BIÊN: HOÀNG MINH THÚY GIÁO TRÌNH PHÁT TRIỂN NĂNG LỰC NGÔN NGỮ TIẾNG ANH THÔNG QUA CÁC DẠNG THI QUỐC TẾ (LƯU HÀNH NỘI BỘ) Ngành đào tạo: Sư phạm tiếng Anh Trình độ đào tạo: Cao đẳng NĂM 2019 1
- TRƯỜNG CAO ĐẲNG SƯ PHẠM LẠNG SƠN KHOA NGOẠI NGỮ GIÁO TRÌNH PHÁT TRIỂN NĂNG LỰC NGÔN NGỮ TIẾNG ANH THÔNG QUA CÁC DẠNG THI QUỐC TẾ (LƯU HÀNH NỘI BỘ) Chủ biên: Ths. Hoàng Minh Thúy Các thành viên: Ths. Lê Thị Thanh Hương Ths. Nguyễn Thị Mai Lan CN.Tô Lan Anh NĂM 2019 2
- Lời giới thiệu Mục tiêu của giáo trình • Cung cấp cho giáo viên và sinh viên tài liệu giảng dạy và học tập cho học phần thay thế thi tốt nghiệp “Phát triển năng lực ngôn ngữ tiếng Anh” gồm 2 tín chỉ (30 tiết) • Giúp cho sinh viên làm quen và luyện tập với các dạng thi tiếng Anh học thuật quốc tế: FCE/B2 và IELTS • Giúp sinh viên rèn luyện và phát triển kỹ năng ngôn ngữ Nghe, Nói, Đọc, Viết • Phát huy tính chủ động học tập và nghiên cứu của sinh viên • Giúp nhà trường kiểm tra đánh giá được năng lực tiếng Anh của sinh viên Đối tượng sử dụng Giáo trình được sử dụng nội bộ cho giảng viên và sinh viên trường CĐSP Lạng Sơn. Cụ thể: • Sinh viên: năm 3 chuyên ngành CĐSP tiếng Anh – học kỳ 6 • Giảng viên giảng dạy học phần “Phát triển năng lực ngôn ngữ tiếng Anh” Nội dung của giáo trình Gồm 06 module và 03 phần bổ trợ: • Module 1: giới thiệu về các phần thi, cách đánh giá của đề thi FCE/B2 • Module 2-5: cung cấp các ngữ liệu học tập phát triển năng lưc ngôn ngữ thông qua các dạng phần trong bài thi FCE, bài tập ôn luyện các cấu trúc ngữ pháp. • Module 6: Giới thiệu hình thức, thời lượng, kỹ thuật làm bài, cách đánh giá kỳ thi IELTS • Phần bổ trợ 1: cung cấp các bí quyết làm các dạng bài thi trong FCE/B2 • Phần bổ trợ 2: Lời giải/ đáp án cho các hoạt động học tập cho các module 2-5 • Phần bổ trợ 3: Đề mẫu FCE/B2 và IELTS 3
- CONTENTS MUDULE 1 INTRODUCTION TO FCE ....................................................................................1 MODULE 2 YOURSELF AND OTHER ……………………………………………………… 8 FCE Listening: Part 1 multiple choice Grammar: Review of past tenses FCE Reading and Use of English: Part 1 Multiple -choice cloze Part 7 Multiple matching FCE Writing: Part 1 Essay FCE speaking: Part 1Talking about yourself MODULE 3 EATING AND MEETING ……………………………………………………… 18 FCE Listening: Part 2 Sentence completion Grammar: Review of present tenses FCE Reading and Use of English: Part 2 Open cloze Part 6 Gapped text FCE Writing: Part 2 Formal letter of application FCE speaking: Part 2 Giving opinions and comparing MODULE 4 GREEN ISSUES ………………………………………………..……………… 29 FCE Listening: Part 3 Multiple matching Grammar: Review of conditional 1-3 FCE Reading and Use of English: Part 4 Transformation Part 6 Gapped text FCE Writing: Part 2 Informal letter FCE speaking: Part 3 Agreeing and politely disagreeing MODULE 5 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY …………………………………………….…. 38 FCE Listening: Part 4 Multiple choice Grammar: Review of passive voice FCE Reading and Use of English: Part 3 Word formation Part 5 Multiple choice FCE Writing: Part 2 Report FCE speaking: Part 4 Adding more points MODULE 6 INTRODUCTION TO IELTS …………………………………………………... 49 EXAM GUIDE ………………………………………………………………………………… 57 ANSWER KEY ………………………………………………..……………………………… 78 REFERENCES ………………………………………………………..……………………… 98 SAMPLE FCE TEST (FCE 2015) SAMPLE IELTS TEST (Cambridge IELTS 13) 4
- MODULE 1: AN INTRODUCTION TO FCE/ B2 TESTS 1. What is FCE/ B2 test? FCE stands for First Certificate in English produced by Cambridge ESOL. It is a test of all language ability. FCE is a part of a suite of general English examination produced by Cambridge ESOL. This suite consists of five examinations that have similar characteristics but are designed for different levels of English language ability. Within the five levels, FCE is at Level B2 in the Council of Europe’s Common European Framework of Reference for Language: Learning, teaching, assessment (CEFR) Examination Council of Europe Framework Level CPE C2 Certificate of proficiency in English CAE C1 Certificate in Advanced English FCE B2 First Certificate English Test PET B1 Preliminary English Test KET A2 Key English Test CEFR Outlines the levels a B2 speaker must have as the following: • Reading: Can understand the main ideas of complex text on both concrete and abstract topics, including technical discussions in his/her field of specialization. • Speaking: Can interact with a degree of fluency and spontaneity that makes regular interaction with native speakers quite possible, and can take an active part in discussion in familiar contexts, accounting for and sustaining their views. • Listening: can understand extended speech, follow even complex lines of argument, understand most TV news and follow the majority of films in standard dialect. 5
- • Writing: Can produce clear, detailed text on a wide range of subjects and explain a viewpoint on a topical issue giving the advantages and disadvantages of various options. 2. What is the format of FCE tests? The Cambridge English: First examination has four papers. Reading and Use of English: 1 hour 15 minutes Parts 1 and 3 mainly test your vocabulary; Part 2 mainly tests grammar. Part 4 often tests both. Answers are marked on a separate answer sheet. Reading texts in Parts 5, 6 and 7 are about 550-650 words each. They are taken from newspaper and magazine articles, fiction, reports, advertisements, correspondence, messages and informational material such as brochures, guides or manuals. Answers are marked on a separate answer sheet. Part Task type Questions Format 1 Multiple choice gap-fill 8 You choose from words A, B, C or D to fill in each gap in a text. 2 One gap-fill 8 You think of a word to fill in each gap in a text. 3 Word transformations 8 You think of the right form of a given word to fill in each gap in a text. 4 Key word 6 You complete a sentence with a transformations given word so that it means the same as another sentence. 5 Gapped text 6 You read a text followed by questions with four options: A, B, C or D. 6 Multiple matching 10 You read 4-6 short texts and match the relevant sections to what the question say. 6
- Writing 1 hour: 20 minutes You have to do Part 1 plus one of the Part 2 tasks. In Part 2 you can choose one of questions 2-4. Answers are written in the booklet provided. Part Task type Words Format 1 Question 1 Essay 140-190 You write an essay giving your opinion on given topic. You can use the ideas given and any of your own. 2 Questions 2-4 possible 140-190 You do a task based on the tasks: article, situation. The topic, reader and email/letter, report or reason you are writing will be review. explained. Listening: about 40 minutes You both hear and see the instructions for each task, and you hear all four parts twice. If one person is speaking, you may hear information, news, instructions, a commentary, a documentary, a lecture, a message, a public announcement, a report, a speech, a talk or an advertisement. If two people are talking, you might hear a conversation, a discussion, an interview, part of a radio play, etc. Answers are marked on a separate answer sheet. Part Task type Questions Format 1 Multiple choice 8 You hear one or two people talking about 30 seconds in eight situations. For each question, you choose from answers A, B or C. 2 Sentence 10 You hear one person talking for about completion three minutes. For each question, you complete sentence by writing a word or short phrase. 3 Multiple 5 You hear five extracts, of about 30 matching seconds each, with a common theme. 7
- For each one. You choose from a list of six possible answers. 4 Multiple choice 7 You hear two people talking for about three minutes. For each question, you choose from answers A, B or C. Speaking: 14 minutes You will probably do the Speaking test with one other candidate, though sometimes it is necessary to form groups of three. There will be two examiners, but one of them does not take part in the conversation. Part Task type Minutes Format 1 The examiner asks you 3-4 You talk about yourself. some questions. 2 You talk on your own for 3-4 You talk aout two pictures and the one minute. comment on the other candidate’s picture(s). 3 You talk to the other 3-4 You discuss some prompts candidate. together. 4 You talk about things 3-4 You take part in a discussion with connected with the topic both the other candidate and the of Part 3. examiner. 2. How to calculate the score? READING In Cambridge B2 First you do Reading and Use of English together in one exam paper, but to calculate your score we have to break them up again. The exam paper has seven parts and for the reading portion we have to look just at parts 1, 5, 6 and 7. 1. Reading counts 20% towards your overall result. 2. Parts 1, 5, 6 and 7 of the Reading & Use of English paper count towards your reading score. 8
- 3. For parts 1 and 7 you get 1 mark and for parts 5 and 6 you get 2 marks for each correct answer. 4. There is a total of 42 possible marks in this part. USE OF ENGLISH Because parts 1, 5, 6 and 7 make the reading portion of the exam, you have to calculate your score for Use of English from parts 2, 3 and 4. 1. Use of English counts 20% towards your overall result. 2. Parts 2, 3 and 4 of the Reading & Use of English paper count towards your Use of English score. 3. For parts 2 and 3 you get 1 mark and for part 4 you get up to 2 marks for each correct answer. 4. There is a total of 28 possible marks in this part. LISTENING Listening is easy to calculate. You don’t have to break up the exam or worry about different marks in different parts. Everything is straightforward. 1. Listening counts 20% towards your overall result. 2. Every part of the listening exam counts. 3. You get 1 mark for each correct answer. 9
- 4. There is a total of 30 possible marks in this part. WRITING Calculating your score in the writing paper is a little bit more difficult than in the three previous parts. First of all, you have to write two texts so you have to take the sum of the two results and secondly, there are four different criteria to mark your writing. In total, that’s eight different marks to combine. 1. Writing counts 20% towards your overall result. 2. The two texts you write in the exam count in equal parts towards your result. 3. You can get up to 5 marks for each of the following criteria: o Content o Communicative achievement o Organisation o Language 4. With two texts and four marks for each text there is a total of 40 possible marks in the writing paper. SPEAKING 1. Speaking counts 20% towards your overall result. 2. The different criteria in the speaking exam count differently towards your total score. 3. You can get up to 5 marks for each of the following criteria: o Grammar & Vocabulary (Multiply your marks by 2, so there are 10 possible marks) 10
- o Discourse management (Multiply your marks by 2, so there are 10 possible marks) o Pronunciation (Multiply your marks by 2, so there are 10 possible marks) o Interactive communication (Multiply your marks by 2, so there are 10 possible marks) o Global (Multiply your marks by 4, so there are 20 possible marks) 4. With five different criteria and different weight for each of them, there is a total of 60 possible marks. 3. How to grade • Overall score: This is the overall Cambridge English Scale score for the whole exam. It is the average of the five individual scores that candidates receive for the four skills and Use of English. This is the most important piece of information. • Individual scores: Candidates will be given a Cambridge English Scale score for each of the four skills (Reading, Writing, Listening and Speaking) and Use of English. With these individual scores it is easy for candidates to see how they performed across the exam and if they need to improve in any of the skills. Cambridge English Scale Score Grade/CEFR CEFR level 180–190 Grade A C1 173–179 Grade B B2 160–172 Grade C B2 140–159 Level B1 B1 4. sample FCE/B2 tests (See in references) 11
- MODULE 2: YOURSELF AND OTHERS LISTENING Part 1: Multiple-choice questions - short texts 1. Look at the pictures. What are they doing? How much time each day do you spend: a) studying or working, b) travelling, and c) relaxing? 2. Look at question 1 in the Exam Task. Answer these questions. 1 How many speakers will you hear? Are they female or male? What is the situation? 2 Part 1 questions may focus, for instance, on opinion, purpose or place. What is the focus of Where is he? 3. Read the recording script for question 1. Which is the correct answer (A, B or C)? Why? Why are the other two wrong? I'm standing here in Church Avenue with about thirty other media people, but by the look of the place there isn't anybody in (C). Nobody's quite sure if et he'll be back later this afternoon — or whether he's spending the weekend away, perhaps at a luxury hotel in the city centre (B). What does seem clear, though, is that he's unlikely to play in Sunday's big match — otherwise these TV crews would be waiting at the gates of the club's training ground to film him, not here (A). 12
- 4. Work in pairs. For each questions 2-8, ask and answer the questions in 1.1 Exercise 2. Then listen and do the task ask. Quick steps to Listening Part 1 • Don’t choose an answer until you’ve heard the whole extract. • You can always change your mind about an answer while you’re listening or when you listen again. Exam Task You will hear people talking in eight situations. For each questions 1-8, choose the best answer (A, B or C) 1 You hear a reporter talking on the radio. 5 You overhear a conversation in a Where is he? holiday resort. Who is the woman? A outside a training ground A a waitress B outside an expensive hotel B a tourist C outside somebody's house C a café owner 2 You hear a woman talking about 6 You hear a man talking about staying travelling to work every day. How does healthy. What is he doing to improve his she feel about the daily train journey? fitness? A It is often quite tiring. A eating less food B It is a good opportunity to talk to people. B going to the gym C It is a relaxing way to begin the day. C walking to work 3 You overhear a woman talking on the 7 You hear a woman talking about her phone. Why is she calling? home. Where does she live? A to apologise for a mistake A in a city-centre flat B to refuse to do something B in a house in the suburbs C to deny she did something C in a country cottage 4 You hear a man talking about reading 8 You overhear two people talking books. Why does he enjoy reading at about finding something. How does the home? woman feel? A It helps him pass the time. A grateful B It enables him to spend time alone. B relieved C It makes a change from his job. C concerned 13
- GRAMMAR R Review of present tenses 1. Match extracts a-g from the recording in Listening with rules 1-7. a. I'm standing here in Church Avenue. b. I live a long way out in the suburbs. c. Whenever I can, I go into the study. d. The traffic into town is getting worse all the time. e. Somebody is always pushing. f. A south-facing room gets lots of sunshine. g. This month I'm working particularly hard. We use the present simple to talk about: 1 a routine or habit 2 a permanent situation 3 something which is always true We use the present continuous to talk about: 4 something happening right now 5 a temporary situation 6 a situation that is changing or developing 7 something irritating or surprising, using always Note: verbs which describe states, e.g. think, own, have, understand, are normally used in simple tenses, but some can be continuous when they describe something we do, e.g. I'm thinking of buying a bike. 2. Correct the mistakes in these sentences written by exam candidates. 1 I suppose that you are understanding my situation. 2 This evening, people are playing music and have fun. 3 I know that you are liking your job, but in my opinion you are working too hard. 4 I wait for your answer to my letter. 5 Nowadays, I'm preferring to go to work by bicycle. 6 In summer it's nice to go on a boat and having dinner on the lake. 7 'Sara, can you hear me? I stand on your left, by the bridge.' 3 Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. 1 Katie's in, but she ……………. (write) an email to someone at the moment. 2 Scientists believe that sea levels ……………. (rise) because of global warming. 3 My brother Oliver ……………. (quite often / go) mountain biking on Sundays. 14
- 4 My neighbours ……………. (always / shout) early in the morning. It's really annoying. 5 That notebook on the table ……………. (belong) to me. 6 I ……………. (stay) with my friends this week while my family are away. 7 In every continent on Earth, the sun ……………. (set) in the west. 8 Listen! Ellie ……………. (have) an argument with her boyfriend. Present simple in time clauses Look at these extracts from the recording in Listening. Do all the verbs refer to the future? What tense do we use after time expressions like when? I'll move back into my place when they finish repainting it on Friday. Next time I want things like that, I'll buy them online instead. 5 Choose the correct option. 1 I get / 'll get some more milk when I go / 'll go shopping tomorrow. 2 I wait / 'll wait here until you come / 'll come back later on. 3 As soon as the film ends / will end tonight, I catch /’ll atch the bus home. 4 I don't / won't move house before I start /’ll start my new job next month. 5 By the time you arrive / 'll arrive at 8.30, I am /'ll be ready to go out. 6 I talk /’ll talk to my flatmates tonight once I get / 'll get home. 6 Complete the sentences about yourself. Then tell your partner. 1 I'll have a meal as soon as ... 2 I'll spend less money the next time ... 3 I'm going to buy a house when ... 4 I don't think I'll have children before ... 5 I won't stop studying English until ... 6 I think I'll watch TV after ... READING AND USE OF ENGLISH Part 1: Multiple-choice cloze 1. Look at the exam task. Answer the questions. 1. How many words are missing? 2. How many possible words are there for each gap? 3. What do these words have in common? Quick steps to Reading and Use of English Part 1 • For each gap, decide what kind of word, e.g. adjectives, the four options are. • Study the words either side of the gap, underlining any dependent prepositions. • Try each word in the gap, checking whether it fits the grammar of the sentence. 15
- 2. Do the task with your own. Exam Task For questions 1-8, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. There is an example at the beginning (0). Example: 0. A are B is C is going to be D will Physical activities People spend a lot of time and money on physical activities. The object of these activities (0) …B... not only enjoyment. Doctors have found that vigorous exercise keeps people healthier and (1) ………. them look better. So, those who are doing exercise or playing sports are also maintaining or recapturing their (2) ………. and vigor. Many people do their exercise at health club, (3) ………. has exercise equipment, and (4) for tennis or table tennis. Other people (5) ……….. clubs with golf courses and swimming pools. Those who want privacy (6) ………. their homes with exercise bicycles or walking machines to work out in their bedroom or family room. Walking, running, and jogging are also popular (7) ………. of keeping the body fit. Many people jog a few miles before (8) ……….to work in the morning, using jogging trails in parks or simply running around their house several times. 0. A. are B. will be C. is D. was 1. A. makes B. lets C. causes D. does 2. A. young B. younger C. youngest D. youth 3. A. that B. which C. who D. what 4. A. fields B. stadiums C. courts D. yards 5. A. approach B. arrive C. come D.join 6. A. set up B. make up C. decorate D. provide 7. A. roads B. ways C. paths D. trails 8. A. go B. to go C. going D. went Part 7: Multiple matching 1. Look at the exam task. Answer these questions. 1. What’s the text about? 2. How many people can you choose from? 3. What must you find? 4. How many questions are there? 16
- Quick steps to Reading and Use of English Part 7 • Look at the instructions, title and layout, then read quickly through the questions. • Remember that the information you need may not be in the same order as the questions. • Be careful with words that only seem to say the same as a particular question, but in fact mean something quite different. 2. Do the task. Underline the words or sentences that tell you the right answers. Which person earns less money than their friend? 1 ……….. says the two of them did not like each other at first? 2 ……….. denies that their friend is bossy? 3 ……….. has had a similar upbringing to their friend's? 4 ……….. once fell out with their friend? 5 ……….. shares a hobby with their friend? 6 ……….. says their friend has a good sense of humour? 7 ……….. describes their friend as rather shy? 8 ……….. has a friend who is very optimistic? 9 ……….. has a very ambitious friend? 10 ……….. The best of friends A. Nadia Hassan has been friends with Amina since they were fourteen. 'We were born in the same month,' says Nadia, 'and we grew up in the same small town, though the funny thing is we didn't actually know each other until we both took up horse riding, something we still enjoy.' There are, according to Nadia, some differences between them. 'Whereas I tend to be a bit negative about the future, always expecting the worst to happen, Amina is the complete opposite. Maybe between us we just about strike the right balance. Though of course having such different ways of looking at the same thing can lead to tensions, and a couple of years ago we actually stopped speaking for a while, but that didn't last long.' B. Liam Doherty first met his friend Marc when they were both doing summer jobs at a seaside hotel. Marc has since moved to another part of the country, but they still keep in touch by email and chatting online. 'He comes round to my house whenever he's in town, which is actually quite often. He's got a good job and can travel 17
- wherever he likes every weekend, which is something I wish I could afford to do on my salary. But he's differentjom me in that he's always had this strong desire for success in life whereas I prefer to take things a bit easier, with plenty of time for hobbies like hill-walking and reading.' C. Maxim Salenko has been friendly with Andriy ever since they were at primary school. 'We grew up in much the same kind of family environment and we usually sat together at school and enjoyed the same sports, though in some ways he's not like me. I'm fairly quiet, perhaps a little shy at times, but Andriy is always a fun guy to be with,' says Maxim. 'He can be noisy and some people say he tries to tell everyone what to do, but I don't think that's true. He just likes to make sure everyone else has a good time, too. Once or twice I've felt a bit irritated by things he said but that was probably because I was in a bad mood at the time, and I don't think he even noticed I was annoyed.' D. Camille Leroy and her friend Lara have known each other for three years now. 'We're from different backgrounds,' says Camille, 'and to be honest when we were introduced at a party we didn't hit It off at all. She seemed a bit unfriendly and it took quite a while before I realised that she was in fact lacking in self-confidence, particularly when meeting new people. To some extent she still is, but once you get to know Lara you realise what good company she is. She always has interesting things to say, and she tells some great jokes, too. I often see her on the bus home from work because nowadays she lives just round the corner from me. She moved there to be close to the golf course. and I'm thinking of taking it up too.' WRITING Part 1: Essay 1. Which of these linking expressions do we use in an essay for: a) the first point, b) more points, c) the final point, d) the conclusion? First of all, Next, For one thing, In the first place, Lastly, For another thing, On balance, To conclude, 2. Look at the exam task instructions and answer these questions 1 What is the situation and the topic? 2 Who will read your essay? 3 What question must you answer? 4 What points must you include? 5 What must you add to those points? 18
- Exam Task In your English class you have been talking about the advantages and disadvantages of taking holidays near home rather than travelling abroad. Now, your English teacher has asked you to write an essay. Write an essay using all the notes and give reasons for your point of view. Is it better to have holidays near home rather than travel abroad? Notes Write about: 1 which is cheaper 2 which is better for the environment 3 your own idea Write your essay in 140-190 words. You must use grammatically correct sentences with accurate spelling and punctuation in an appropriate style. 3. Read the model essay and answer these questions. 1 Which kind of holiday does the writer say is better? 2 Which paragraph covers each of the points? 3 Which addition links, e.g. firstly, are used? 4 What other addition links do you know? Some people believe we should not travel long distances for our holidays, that we ought to spend our free time in our own country, enjoying the local countryside. I, however, disagree. To begin with, budget flights and package holidays enable ordinary people to travel to exotic locations that previous generations could only have dreamt of visiting. Inexpensive student railcards also make it possible to take trains to exciting international destinations. In fact, it often costs less to travel abroad than at home. Secondly, green holidays in distant countries are now widely available. Much of the journey can be done by ship, train or bus. Once there, accommodation may be in tents or in country houses that use little energy, with local travel by horse, by bicycle or on foot. Finally, it is natural for young people to want to see more of the world, meet people in different cultures and understand the problems that other societies face. They cannot do this by staying in their home town. 19
- To sum up, I am absolutely convinced that holidays abroad are positive experiences that can be both economical and environmentally friendly. Quick steps to writing a Part 1 essay • Read the question or statement in the instructions and decide what your opinion is. • Write in a fairly formal style if the intended reader is a teacher. • Connect your points with addition links. 4. Follow the exam task instructions and write your essay. 5. When you finished, check the following: • Correct length • All the content asked for in the instructions • Good organisation into pagargaphs • Correct grammar, spelling and punctuation • Suitable style of language SPEAKING In Part 1 1. Personal questions The examiner may ask you questions like these: What are they about? Which verb tense would you mainly use to reply? 1 Where are you from? 2 What do you like about living there? 3 Tell me a little about your family. 4 Which time of the year is your favourite? Why? 5 What do you enjoy doing when you are on holiday? 6 What do you use the Internet for? 2. In pairs, read this example conversation from Part 1. What is wrong with Nico's and Lena's replies (1-6)? Correct two mistakes. Then study the Quick steps for ways of improving the other four replies. Examiner: Is your routine at weekends different from your daily routine in the week? Nico: (1) Yes Examiner: What way? Nico: (2) I am staying in bed later, of course. I go out with friends after lunch. Examiner: And what about your routine at weekends, Lena? Is it different from your daily routine? Lena: (3) Not really. I have to get up at about the same time. Examiner: Why? 20
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