Bộ 11 đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2020-2021 (Có đáp án)

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Tham khảo Bộ 11 đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2020-2021 (Có đáp án) để bổ sung kiến thức, nâng cao tư duy và rèn luyện kỹ năng giải đề chuẩn bị thật tốt cho kì thi học kì sắp tới các em nhé! Chúc các em ôn tập kiểm tra đạt kết quả cao!

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BỘ 11 ĐỀ THI HỌC KÌ 1 MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 NĂM 2020-2021 (CÓ ĐÁP ÁN)
1. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT Bình Xuyên 2. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT huyện Đông Hưng 3. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT thành phố Thủ Dầu Một 4. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường PTDTBT THCS cụm xã Chà Vàl - Zuôich (2 kỹ năng) 5. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường PTDTBT THCS cụm xã Chà Vàl - Zuôich (4 kỹ năng) 6. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường PTDTBT THCS Nậm Xe 7. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường THCS Gia Thụy 8. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nghi Sơn 9. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường THCS Sơn Đông 10. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường THCS Tây Sơn 11. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020-2021 có đáp án - Trường THCS Trưng Vương
THE MATRIX Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao Tổng TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL Listening 2 2 1 5 Phonetics 1 2 1 1 5 and vocab Lexico 5 5 3 2 15 Gram. Reading 3 3 3 1 10 Writing 2 2 1 5 Tổng 13 (32.5%) 14 (35%) 8 (20%) 5 40 (12.5%)
PHÒNG GD&ĐT BÌNH XUYÊN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ I, NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) QUESTIONS A. LISTENING Listen to Dave talking about his plan for the next week and decide if the statements below are True (T) or False (F). 1. Dave doesn’t have any class at school next week. ....................... 2. Dave’s piano class starts at 7 pm. ....................... 3. His piano teacher comes from Australia. ....................... 4. Dave is going swimming with his friend. ....................... 5. Dave is going to Henry’s party with his brother. ....................... B. PHONETICS I. Choose the word that has underlined part pronounced differently from the others 1. A. posters B. chairs C. takes D. drives 2. A. cheap B. peaceful C. between D. interview 3. A. month B. post C. homework D. hope II. What is the odd one out? 4. A. curly B. creative C. friendly D. confident 5. A. amazing B. interesting C. doing D. boring C. USE OF ENGLISH I. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences 1. His two daughters are named___________ his favorite singers. A. with B. for C. after D. at 2. My neighborhood is very ________ because everything is near my house. A. convenient B. exciting C. comfortable D. inconvenient 3. - “Would you like to come to Mai’s birthday party with us?” - “_______________.” A. Yes, I would B. Yes, I’d love to C. Yes, thanks D. Thank you very much 4. My car is yours. A. more fast and economical than B. more fast and more economical than C. faster and economical as D. faster and more economical than 5. I __________ to the football match tonight. I am busy. A. come B. like coming C. am not coming D. am coming 6. Da Lat is very nice. There ________ a lot of things to see and lots of tourists too. A. is B. are C. have D. has 7. There __________ a big table and some chairs __________ the right ___________ the bed. A. is-on-in B. are-on-of C. are-in-on D. is-to-of 8. My close friend is ready ____________ things with her classmates. A. share B. to share C. shares D. sharing 9. Tam is very pretty with her __________. A. brown long hair B. hair long brown C. long brown hair D. brown hair long 10. _________ your teacher often give you homework? A. Is B. Are C. Do D. Does 11. You____________ pick up flowers in the school garden. A. must B. mustn’t C. can’t D. should II. Give the correct form of the verb in the blank a. My brother likes (12. live)____________ in the city because the city is more modern and convenient. b. What do you usually do at break time, Duy and Phong? - I play football but my friend Phong (13. not play) ________ football. He (14. read) _________ in the library. c. It's cold! The students (15. wear) _______________ warm clothes. D. READING
I. Read the email, choose the best answer A, B, c or D to the questions below. From: an@fastmail.com To: nick@fastmail.com Subject: My best friend Hi Nick, It’s great to hear from you. I want to tell you about my best friend. My grandma is my best friend. She’s 68 years old. She lives with our family. She was a maths teacher at a secondary school. She likes getting up early and watering the flowers in our garden, she usually helps me with my homework. In the evening, she tells me interesting stories. She also listens to me when I’m sad. I love my grandma very much. What about you? Who’s your best friend? Please write to me soon. Bye bye, An 1. The e-mail is about …………………………………… A. An’s best friend at school B. An’s grandma C. An’s math teacher D. An’s mom 2. …………………………………… is his grandma’s hobby. A. Helping An do his homework B. Watering flowers C. Telling stories D. Listen to music 3. An usually listens to his grandma’s stories in the ………………………………… A. morning B. afternoon C. evening D. at noon 4. An likes his grandma best because …………………………………… A. she lives with his family. B. she gets up early every morning, C. she always listens to him when he’s sad. D. she is a Maths teacher. II. Choose the word (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each of the blank spaces. We live in the suburbs, very far (1)_________ the city and it’s just too quiet! There aren’t (2) shops, and there are certainly (3) clubs or theaters. (4) a lot of parks, good schools, and very (5) crime: nothing ever really happens here. I would really love (6) downtown. (suburb (n): ngoại thành) 1. A. from B. for C. to D. of 2. A. much B. many C. more D. a lot of 3. A. not B. nothing C. none D. no 4. A. Has B. Having C. There is D. There are 5. A. little B. less C. many D. lots of 6. A. to live B. living C. to living D. a & b E. WRITING I. Rewrite the sentence, use the suggested words/phrases. Stay the meaning the same. 1. The weather is very awful. What _____________________________________________________ ! 2. Country life isn’t as interesting as city life. City life is ___________________________________________________ 3.Why don’t we go out for a drink now? How _____________________________________________________? II. Rearrange the words to make a meaningful sentence. 1. camping/ is/ next/ my/ class/ in/ weekend/Cuc Phuong forest/ going/. ____________________________________________________________ 2. friendly/ because/ don’t/ I/ Joana/ she/ like/ isn’t __________________________________________________________ ------------------ HẾT-----------------
ANSWER KEYS Total questions: 40 questions: 0.25 point for each correct answer Total points: 10 points A. LISTENING Listen to Dave talking about his plan for the next week and decide if the statements below are True (T) or False (F). 1. T 2. T 3. F 4. F 5. T B. PHONETICS Choose the word that has underlined part pronounced differently from the others 1. C 2. D 3. A What is the odd one out? 4. A 5. C C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR I. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. B II. Give the correct form of the verb in the blank 12. living 13. doesn’t (does not) play 14. reads 15. are wearing D. READING I. Read the email, choose the best answer A, B, c or D to the questions below. 1. B 2.B 3.C 4.C II. Choose the word (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each of the blank spaces. 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. A E. WRITING: 1. Rewrite the sentence, use the suggested words/phrases. Stay the meaning the same. 1. What awful weather! 2. City life is more interesting than country life. 3. How about going out for a drink now? 2. Rearrange the words to make a meaningful sentence. 1. My class is going camping in Cuc Phuong forest next weekend. 2. I don’t like Joana because she isn’t friendly. THE END
UBND HUYỆN ĐÔNG HƯNG ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG CUỐI HỌC KỲ I PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021 Môn: TIẾNG ANH 6 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Đề gồm 04 trang. Học sinh làm trực tiếp vào đề) A. LISTENING I. Listen to a conversation, then fill in each blank with ONE word you hear. Interviewer: Hi, Phong. Phong: Hi. Interviewer: Your New Year is called Tet, isn’t it? Phong: That’s right. Interviewer: The Vietnamese celebrate Tet at different times each year, don’t they? Phong: Yes. This year, we will celebrate Tet at the end of (1) ………… . Interviewer: What should people do to celebrate Tet? Phong: A lot. It’s the (2) ………… time of the year. Interviewer: What, for example? Phong: You should make your house look beautiful at Tet so you should clean and (3) ………… it. You should also buy flowers and plants. But you shouldn’t buy fireworks. Interviewer: Do you travel (4) ………… Tet? Phong: Not often. Tet is a time for family (5) ………… . Interviewer: Yes, and … Do you eat a lot? Phong: Yes, eating great food is the best thing about Tet! Oh, and getting lucky money. Interviewer: Great! Thank you, Phong. Answers: 1. ………………… 2. ………………… 3. ………………… 4. ………………… 5. ………………… II. Listen to Dave talking about his plan for the next week. Write T (True) or F (False) for these following statements. 6. Dave doesn’t have any class at school next week. 7. Dave’s piano class starts at 7 p.m. 8. Dave is going swimming with his friend. Answers: 6. ………………… 7. ………………… 8. ………………… B. READING COMPREHENSION I. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each blank. Tam Dao is 85 km far from Ha Noi center. It takes 2 hours to get there. You can go (9) ………… car, bus, taxi or motorbike. Getting there, you can (10) ………… Tam Dao National Park, ancient church, Van Pagoda, Silver Waterfall and Sky Gate. You can also (11) ………… some special dishes like Su Su. This vegetable is planted everywhere here. Hill chicken is another good dish. The trip is great, (12) ………… not expensive at all. 9. A. on B. by C. with D. in 10. A. to visit B. visiting C. visits D. visit 11. A. enjoy B. sell C. make D. drink 12. A. and B. so C. but D. or Answers: 9. ………………… 10. ………………… 11. ………………… 12. ………………… 1
II. Read the e-mail and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each of the following questions. From: an@fastmail.com To: nick@fastmail.com Subject: My best friend Hi, Nick, It’s great to hear from you. I want to tell you about my best friend. My grandma is my best friend. She’s 68 years old. She lives with our family. She was a maths teacher at a secondary school. She likes getting up early and watering the flowers in our garden. She usually helps me with my homework. In the evening, she tells me interesting stories. She also listens to me when I’m sad. I love my grandma very much. What about you? Who’s your best friend? Please write to me soon. Bye bye, An 13. The e-mail is about ………………… . A. An’s best friend at school B. An’s grandmother C. An’s maths teacher D. An’s mom 14. ………………. is his grandma’s hobby. A. Watering flowers B. Listening to music C. Telling stories D. Helping An do his homework 15. An usually listens to his grandma’s stories ………………… . A. in the morning B. in the afternoon C. in the evening D. at night 16. An likes his grandma best because ………………… . A. she always listens to him when he’s sad B. she gets up early every morning C. she lives with his family D. she is a maths teacher Answers: 13. ………………… 14. ………………… 15. ………………… 16. ………………… C. WRITING I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. 17. It’s important for you to do the test carefully. (must) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 18. I think English is easier than French. (difficult) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 19. Her father drives his car to work every day. (goes) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 20. What about going camping this weekend? (Let’s) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… II. Rewrite the sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as those printed before. Use the words given at the beginning of the sentences. 2
21. There is a lot of vitamin C in oranges. Oranges ………………………………………………………………………………………………… 22. It is not good to stay up late to play computer games. You shouldn’t ………………………………………………………………………………………… D. GRAMMAR AND LEXICO I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others in each of the following sentences. 23. A. weather B. speak C. beach D. easy 24. A. changes B. brushes C. torches D. tables 25. A. celebrate B. special C. practice D. city 26. A. homework B. memorial C. sofar D. hope 27. A. mother B. these C. bathroom D. feather Answers: 23. ……………… 24. ……………… 25. ……………… 26. ……………… 27. ……………… II. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate to the correct answer to complete each of the following sentences. 28. The Nile River is ………… river in the world. A. long B. longer C. the longest D. much longer 29. We shouldn’t ………… fireworks. A. burn B. eat C. decorate D. gather 30. “What ………… you ………… tomorrow?” – “ I don’t know.” A. are – do B. do – do C. will – doing D. are – doing 31. We ………… celebrate Tet at the beginning of February this year. A. should B. can C. will D. must 32. There ………… milk left. I’ll go to buy some. A. is no some B. is not any C. are some D. are not any 33. ………… are you going to stay when visiting Da Lat? - In a homestay. A. Where B. What C. When D. How 34. They believe that ………… on New Year Day decides the family’s luck for the rest of the year. A. lucky money B. a rooster C. special food D. the first footer 35. We’re ………… . Pass me the compass . A. careful B. lost C. reliable D. excited Answers: 28. ……… 29. ……… 30. ……… 31. ……… 32. ……… 33. ……… 34. ……… 35. ……… III. Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchange. 36. Travel agent: “………………………………………………………………...?” Tourist: “I’d like to know some information about Ha Long Bay, please.” A. How can I help you B. What do you do C. Would you like D. How are you Answer: 36. ………………… 3
IV. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following sentences. 37. Minh walks to school every morning. A. rides a bike B. runs a long way C. goes on foot D. jogs 38. The street is not wide with a lot of traffic, so we can’t move fast. A. large B. narrow C. crowded D. long Answers: 37. ………………… 38. ………………… V. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following sentences. 39. Sally can draws beautiful pictures. She is very creative. A B C D 40. Is playing games more funny than going for a picnic?. A B C D Answers: 39. ………………… 40 .………………… = THE END = 4
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG CUỐI HỌC KỲ I 0,25đ/ ý đúng x 40 = 10 điểm NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021 (Không làm tròn điểm toàn bài) Môn: TIẾNG ANH 6 A. LISTENING I. Listen to a conversation, then fill in each blank with ONE word you hear. 1. January 2. busiest 3. decorate 4. during 5. gatherings II. Listen to Dave talking about his plan for the next week. Write T (True) or F (False) 6. T 7. T 8. F B. READING COMPREHENSION I. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each blank. 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. C II. Read the e-mail and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each of the following questions. 13. B 14. A 15. C 16. A C. WRITING I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. 17. You must do the test carefully. 18. I think French is more difficult than English. I think English is not as/so difficult as French. 19. Her father goes to work by car every day. 20. Let’s go camping this weekend. II. Rewrite the sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as those printed before. 21. Oranges have a lot of vitamin C. 22. You shouldn’t stay up late to play computer games. D. GRAMMAR AND LEXICO I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others in each of the following sentences. 23. A 24. D 25. B 26. B 27. C II. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate to the correct answer to complete each of the following sentences. 28. C 29. A 30. D 31. C 32. B 33. A 34. D 35. B III. Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchange. 36. A IV. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following sentences. 37. C 38. B V. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following sentences. 39. A 40 . B = THE END =
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I - NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 QUẢNG NAM Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6- Chương trình 7 năm (2 kỹ năng) TRƯỜNG PTDTBT THCS Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) CỤM XÃ CHÀ VÀL - ZUÔICH (Học sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy riêng) ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Đề gồm 02 trang) MÃ ĐỀ 2A I. Chọn từ có phần gạch chân được phát âm khác với các từ còn lại trong mỗi câu sau. (1 điểm) (Ghi số câu hỏi và phương án chọn A, B, C hay D vào giấy làm bài. Ví dụ: 1A, 2B ...) 1. A. zoo B. floor C. too D. room 2. A. stadium B. eraser C. bakery D. factory 3. A. morning B. night C. motorbike D. rice 4. A. doors B. desks C. windows D. boards II. Chọn phương án đúng (A, B, C hay D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau đây.(2,5 điểm) (Ghi số câu hỏi và phương án chọn A, B, C hay D vào giấy làm bài.) 5. There is ________eraser and two books on the table. A. a B. the C. an D. this 6. This is Son’s sister. ________ name is Lan. A. She B. He C. Her D. His 7. Mai: “What does your ________do?” - Nga: “He’s a doctor.” A. teacher B. father C. mother D. sister 8. Nam: “________ do you go to school every day?” - Lan: “At 5 o’clock.” A. What time B. Where C. How D. When 9. I ________ a big breakfast at 6 o’clock every morning. A. have B. has C. eats D. gets 10. Nam and his friends often________ soccer after school. A. plays B. to play C. playing D. play 11. Tan: “Good morning, Thu.” - Thu: “________, Tan.” A. Goodbye B. I’m fine C. I’m a student D. Good morning 12. Ba: “Do you have English on Tuesdays and Fridays?” - Hoa: “________” A. Yes, it is. B. Yes, you do. C. Yes, we are. D. Yes, I do. 13. Mai: “How are you?” - Nga: “________” A. I’m a student. B. I’m eleven. C. I’m fine, thanks. And you? D. I live in Hanoi. 14. Are there ________ pictures in your room? A. a B. the C. any D. some Trang 1/2 –Mã đề 2A
III. Đọc đoạn văn sau và làm bài tập A, B bên dưới.(3,5 điểm) Hello. My name is Thu. I’m twelve years old and I’m in grade (15) __________. My school is in the country. It’s a (16) __________ school. My school has two floors and sixteen classrooms. My classroom is on the first floor. There are thirty-five (17) __________ in my class. Every morning, I get up at six o’clock. I get dressed, brush my (18) __________ and wash my face. I have breakfast at six twenty and go to school at six forty. A. Chọn từ trong khung để điền vào chỗ trống trong đoạn văn. Có 1 từ thừa. (2 điểm) teeth school students small six (Ghi số câu và từ em chọn tương ứng vào giấy làm bài.) B. Trả lời các câu hỏi sau.(1,5 điểm) 19. How old is Thu? 20. Is her school in the country? 21. What time does she go to school every morning? (Chỉ ghi câu trả lời vào giấy làm bài.) IV. Đặt câu hỏi cho cụm từ được gạch dưới. (1 điểm) 22. My mother gets up at 6.00 every morning. 23. There are ten trees in the garden. V. Sắp xếp các từ bị xáo trộn thành câu có nghĩa. (1 điểm) 24. Is/ post office/ a/ near / there/ your / house? 25. This / sister / are / and these / is / her / my / students. VI. Hoàn thành câu thứ 2 sao cho nghĩa không thay đổi với câu thứ nhất. (1 điểm) 26. My father usually drives to work.  My father usually goes ………………………………………………………. 27. There are many flowers in our garden.  Our garden …………………………………………………………………… (Chỉ ghi phần bài làm vào giấy làm bài.) ----------------------------------------HẾT---------------------------------------- Trang 2/2 –Mã đề 2A
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I - NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 QUẢNG NAM Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - (2 kĩ năng) TRƯỜNG PTDTBT THCS Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút CỤM XÃ CHÀ VÀL - ZUÔICH MÃ ĐỀ 2A HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM I. (1 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,25 điểm 1. B (floor) 3. A (morning) 2. D (factory) 4. B (desks) II. (2,5 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,25 điểm 5. C (an) 10. D (play) 6. C (Her) 11. D (Good morning) 7. B (father) 12. D (Yes, I do.) 8. A (What time) 13. C (I’m fine, thanks. And you?) 9. A (have) 14. C (any) III. (3,5 điểm): A. (2 điểm). Chọn đúng mỗi từ để điền vào chỗ trống đạt 0,5 điểm 15. six 16. small 17. students 18. teeth B. (1,5 điểm). Mỗi câu trả lời đúng đạt 0,5 điểm 19. Thu/ She is 12/twelve years old. 20. Yes, it is. 21. She goes to school at six forty/ 6:40 every morning. * Nếu HS chỉ trả lời phần in đậm, giáo viên vẫn cho điểm tối đa. IV. (1 điểm). Mỗi câu làm đúng trọn vẹn đạt 0,5 điểm 22.What time does your mother get up every morning? 23. How many trees are there in the garden? V. (1 điểm). Mỗi câu làm đúng trọn vẹn đạt 0,5 điểm 24. Is there a post office near your house? 25. This is my sister and these are her students. VI. (1 điểm). Mỗi câu làm đúng trọn vẹn đạt 0,5 điểm 26. ... to work by car. 27. ... has many flowers. * Tùy theo mức độ đạt được của bài làm, giáo viên quyết định điểm cho phù hợp ở phần IV, V và VI. ----------------------------------------HẾT---------------------------------------- DAP AN DE KT HK1-TIENG ANH 6 (2020-2021) – 2 KY NANG
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I - NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 QUẢNG NAM Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 – Chương trình 7 năm (4 kỹ năng) TRƯỜNG PTDTBT THCS Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (Không kể giao đề) CỤM XÃ CHÀ VÀL - ZUÔICH (Học sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy riêng) ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÃ ĐỀ 4A (Đề gồm 02 trang) I. Nghe (2,0 điểm). Gồm 2 phần gọi là Part 1 và Part 2. Part 1. Nghe và điền vào chỗ trống từ còn thiếu. Số 0 là ví dụ. (1 điểm) (Ghi số câu và và nội dung trả lời vào giấy làm bài.) 0. Maria Carter. 1. __________ Smith. 2. __________ Wilson. 3. Joseph __________. 4. __________ Jackson. Part 2. Nghe và viết Đúng (T) hoặc Sai (F). Số 0 là ví dụ. (1 điểm) (Ghi T/F vào giấy làm bài.) 0. Ba lives in an apartment in town. _ T_ 5. It isn’t very noisy near his apartment. ____ 6. Chi lives in a house in the country. ____ 7. There are many stores near her house. ____ 8. There are trees, flowers, rivers, a lake and paddy fields near her house. ____ II. Chọn từ có phần gạch chân được phát âm khác với các từ còn lại trong mỗi câu sau. (0,5 điểm) (Ghi số câu hỏi và phương án chọn A, B, C hay D vào giấy làm bài. Ví dụ: 1A, 2B ...) 9. A. zoo B. floor C. too D. room 10. A. doors B. desks C. windows D. boards III. Chọn phương án đúng (A, B, C hay D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau đây. (1,5 điểm) (Ghi số câu hỏi và phương án chọn A, B, C hay D vào giấy làm bài.) 11. There is ________eraser and two books on the table. A. a B. the C. an D. this 12. This is Son’s sister. ________ name is Lan. A. She B. He C. Her D. His 13. Nam: “________ do you go to school every day?” - Nga: “At 5 o’clock.” A. What time B. Where C. How D. When 14. Nam and his friends often________ soccer after school. Trang 1/2-Mã đề 4A