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Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Bỉnh Khiêm, Phú Ninh

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Cùng tham gia thử sức với “Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Bỉnh Khiêm, Phú Ninh" để nâng cao tư duy, rèn luyện kĩ năng giải đề và củng cố kiến thức môn học nhằm chuẩn bị cho kì thi quan trọng sắp diễn ra. Chúc các em vượt qua kì thi học kì thật dễ dàng nhé!

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Bỉnh Khiêm, Phú Ninh

  1. PHÒNG GDĐT HUYỆN PHÚ NINH TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN BỈNH KHIÊM ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HKI. NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 (Thời gian 60 phút-không kể thời gian thi nói ) I. Mục tiêu - Kiểm tra kiến thức HS đạt được trong các unit 1-5 môn Tiếng Anh 6 về ngữ âm, ngữ pháp, từ vựng, kiến thức ngôn ngữ, các kĩ năng Nghe, Nói, Đọc, Viết. - Học sinh biết được khả năng học tập của mình so với yêu cầu của chương trình. - Giúp GV nắm được tình hình học tập của lớp mình giảng dạy, trên cơ sở đó đánh giá đúng quá trình dạy học, từ đó có kế hoạch điều chỉnh phương pháp và hình thức tổ chức dạy học cho phù hợp để không ngừng nâng cao hiệu quả về phương pháp, hình thức tổ chức dạy học. - HS có thái độ học tập đúng và điều chỉnh qúa trình học tập của mình. II. Hình thức ra đề - Kiểm tra tập trung tại trường. - Kiểm tra Viết (8 điểm) theo hình thức kết hợp trắc nghiệm, tự luận. - Số lượng đề kiểm tra: 2 đề (đề A và đề B). - Kiểm tra nói (2 điểm) gồm 3 phần: Introduction (3 ideas= 0,4đ); Topic (5Qs= 1.0đ); Interview (3 Qs= 0,6đ). . (Tỉ lệ: nhận biết 4 điểm, thông hiểu 3 điểm, vận dụng 2 điểm, vận dụng cao 1 điểm); III. Ma trận đề
  2. PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO PHÚ NINH MATRIX FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 6) TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN BỈNH KHIÊM School year: 2024-2025 No. of Com Low App High App PARTS Mark Task types Re Ques TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL 5 1.0 - Listen and fill each blank with a word / number 1.0 LISTENING (2,0) - Listen and tick T/F 5 1.0 1,0 Pronunciation: Indicate the word whose underlined 2 0.4 part is pronounced differently form the others. 0,4 LANGUAGE COMPONENT 3 0,6 Vocabulary: MCQs: Circle the best option 0,4 0,2 (2,0) 5 1,0 Grammar: MCQs: Circle the best option 0,4 0,6 Read the passage, then fill in the blank (with suitable READING 6 1,2 0,8 0,4 words from the box) (2,0) Read the passage, then circle the best answer: 4 0,8 0,6 0,2 (Error identification) Circle A, B, C or D which is not 2 0,4 0,4 correct in standard English WRITING (2,0) (Sentence transformation) Rewrite the sentences so as 4 0,8 0,8 its meaning keeps unchanged
  3. 2 0,8 (Sentence building) Write complete sentences from the words given. 0,8 TOTAL(8,0) 38 8.0 3,4 2,2 1,6 0,8 2 0,4 Introduction 0,4 SPEAKING 5 1,0 Topic speaking 0,2 0,8 (2,0) 3 0,6 Questions and Answer 0,4 0,2 Grand Total 48 10,0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0)
  4. PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO PHÚ NINH SPECIFICATION FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 6) TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN BỈNH KHIÊM School year: 2024-2025 CONTENTS No. of Com Low App High App PARTS Mar Task types Re Ques k TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL Listen to the talk about -Sen 1-5: fill each blank with a 5 1.0 the best friend and fill 1.0 word / number each blank with a word LISTENING / number (2,0) - Listen the talk about a -Sen 6-10: T/F statement natural wonder of Viet 5 1.0 1,0 Nam and tick T/F Pronunciation: Indicate the word -Sen 11: sounds/ s & / z/ ; whose underlined part -Sen 12: sounds/ I/, / i:/ 2 0.4 is pronounced 0,4 differently form the others Vocabulary: -Sen 13: 1 word about 1 0,2 Odd one out 0,2 neighbourhood Vocabulary: LANGUAGE -Sen 14: 1 word about houses MCQs: Circle the best 2 0,4 0,2 0,2 COMPONENT -Sen 15: 1 word about natural option (2,0) wonders of Viet Nam Grammar points: -Sen16: 1 sentence about present continuous: are listening. 2 0,4 MCQs: Circle the best 0,4 -Sen 17: 1 sentence about option communicating: asking the way Grammar points: 3 0,6 0,6 -Sen 18: 1 sentence about
  5. comparative of long adj: more modern than -Sen 19: 1 sentence about a quantifier with a countable/ uncountable noun noun: a few -Sen 20: 1 sentence about a quantifier with a countable/ uncountable noun -Sen 21: 1 word about an adjective (Cloze test) Read the -Sen 22: 1 word about a noun 4 0,8 passage about a natural 0,4 0,4 Sen 23: 1 word about an adjective wonder, then fill in the -Sen 24: 1 word about a pronoun blank (with suitable -Sen 25: 1 word about a noun 2 0,4 words from the box) 0,4 -Sen 26: 1 word about preposition READING - Sen 27: Choose the best answer (2,0) for a WH -question ( Reading - Sen 28: Choose the best answer 3 0,6 comprehension) Read 0,6 for a WH-question the passage about my -Sen 29: - Sen 2: Choose the best friends, then circle the answer for a WH-question best answer: -Sen 30: What does the word “…” 1 0,2 0,2 in the text refer to? -Sen 31: 1 sentence about present (Error identification) continuous: play- are playing; Circle A, B, C or D 2 0,4 -Sen 32: 1 sentence about which is not correct in 0,4 possessive case standard English WRITING -Sen 33: -1 sentence about (Sentence (2,0) comparative adj transformation) Rewrite -Sen 34: 1 sentence about the sentences so as its comparative adj meaning keeps 0,8 4 0,8 -Sen 35: 1 sentence about unchanged
  6. must/mustn’t -Sen 36: 1 sentence about suggestion: How about+V-ing?/ Let’s + V -Sen 37: 1 sentence about (Sentence building) comparative adj. Write complete -Sen 38: 1 sentence asking: How 2 0,8 sentences from the 0,8 much & How many words given. TOTAL(8,0) 38 8.0 3,4 2,2 1,6 0,8 - Introduce personal information (hobby, school, houses, family, 2 0,4 Introduction 0,4 teacher, subject..) -Randomly take one vocab topic (My new school/ My house / My neighbourhood/ Natural wonders of Viet Nam) -5 minutes for preparation SPEAKING - Look at the pictures and answer 5 1,0 Topic speaking 0,2 0,8 (2,0) the question “What is this?” -Spell one word - two vocabs in situation -Student point the word form teacher’s explanation -Answer three questions about one of the topics (My new school/ My 3 0,6 Questions and Answers 0,4 0,2 house / My neighbourhood/ Natural wonders of Viet Nam/) Grand Total 48 10,0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0)
  7. MÃ ĐỀ A: I. LISTENING (2.0 pts) Question 1: Listen to Mi and Minh talking about their best friends and fill each blank with a word or number you hear. (you will hear twice): 1. Mi and Lan are studying in class ______________. 2. Lan has short black ___________ and a small mouth. 3. Lan is very _______________ and friendly. 4. Lan likes playing sports and has ______________ friends. 5. Chi always does her ________________ before class. Question 2: Listen to the talk and Tick ( ) T (True) or F (False) (you will hear twice): Statements T F 6. Ha Long Bay is in Quang Ninh. 7. There are many islands and caves in Ha Long Bay. 8. you can not enjoy great seafood there. 9. you can join in exciting activities there. 10. Ha Long Bay is not Viet Nam's best natural wonder. II. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2.0 pts) Part 1. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 11. A. books B. clocks C. shoulders D. lights 12. A. agree B. coffee C. see D. free Part 2. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence by circling the letter A, B, C or D. 13. Find one odd word A, B, C or D. A. museum B. zoo C. cinema D. school 14. My _________ has a bed and a table. A. bedroom B. bathroom C. kitchen D. living room 15. Ban Gioc is a natural ________ in Cao Bang province. A. desert B. mountain C. island D. waterfall 16. My sister and I _________ to music at the moment. A. listen B. are listening C. is listening D. am listening 17. – ______________. – First turn right, then turn left. It’s on your right. A. I don’t know any bakery near here. B. Can you tell me the way to the nearest bakery? C. Do you know there’s a bakery near here? D. There is a bakery near here. 18. Ho Chi Minh City is ____________ Da Nang City. A. more modern than B. moderner C. more modern D. modern than 19. This is a difficult exercise, so only ________ students can do it.
  8. A. much B. a little C. many D. a few 20. I drink ____ cup of coffee every morning. A. some B. any C. a D. an III. READING (2.0 pts) Part 1. Read the passage about a natural wonder of Viet Nam, then fill each blank with a suitable word from the box. is water easy forests they on hotels beautiful Phu Quoc (0) is a very beautiful island in Viet Nam. It is in Kien Giang. It has (21) ______________ beaches and green forests . It also has resorts, (22) ____________ , and bars. The people here are friendly. Phu Quoc has an international airport and travelling there is (23) __________ . Tourists can visit fishing villages, national parks, pagodas and temples. (24) ____________ also like to eat the seafood here. It is delicious. Sailing and fishing are popular (25) _____________ sports. You can buy interesting things at the markets (26) _____________ the island. Part 2. Read the text and circle the best answer (A, B or C) for each question. At Hanoi International School, students learn many subjects. For example, they learn Math in both Vietnamese and English; and they also study Science in English. Because of this, students spend their mornings and afternoons studying at school. Here, they only need to wear uniform on Tuesdays and Thursdays. Besides studying, students also play sports and join many clubs. For sports, there are swimming, basketball, football, badminton. Once a week, students go to their favourite club to have some fun time. 27. What is the main idea of the passage? A. About the school. B. About the house. C. About the family. 28. When do students wear uniform? A. On Tuesdays. B. On Thursdays. C. A & B. 29. What sports do students DO NOT play at At Hanoi International School? A. Baseball. B. Basketball. C. Football. 30. The word “they” in line 3 refers to.............. A. The subjects. B. The students. C. The sports. IV. WRITING (2.0 pts)
  9. Part 1. Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English. 31. We play basketball at the moment. A B C D 32. The park is in front of Hoa house. A B C D Part 2. Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged. 33. My Mum is careful, but my grandma is even more careful. → My grandma is ………………………………………………………….. 34. Da Nang City is larger than Tam Ky City. → Tam Ky City ……………………………………………………………… 35. It is wrong of us to throw rubbish. → We mustn’t ………………………………………………………………. 36. How about having a picnic this weekend? → Let’s …………………………………………………………………….. Part 3. Write complete sentences from the words given. 37. He / intelligent/ than/ friend. ………………………………………………………………………………… 38. How/ water/ you/ drink/ every day? ………………………………………………………………………………… MÃ ĐỀ B: I. LISTENING (2.0 pts) Question 1: Listen to Mi and Minh talking about their best friends and fill each blank with a word or number you hear. (you will hear twice): 1. Mi and Lan are studying in class ______________. 2. Lan has short black ___________ and a small mouth. 3. Lan is very _______________ and friendly. 4. Lan likes playing sports and has ______________ friends. 5. Chi always does her ________________ before class. Question 2: Listen to the talk and Tick ( ) T (True) or F (False) (you will hear twice): Statements T F 6. Ha Long Bay is in Quang Ninh. 7. There aren’t any islands and caves in Ha Long Bay. 8. you can not enjoy great seafood there. 9. you can join in exciting activities there. 10. Ha Long Bay is Viet Nam's best natural wonder. II. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2.0 pts) Part 1. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 11. A. sinks B. toilets C. cupboads D. lamps 12. A. agree B. free C. see D. coffee
  10. Part 2. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence by circling the letter A, B, C or D. 13. Find one odd word A, B, C or D. A. museum B. zoo C. cinema D. hospital 14. My _________ has a bed and a table. A. bathroom B. bedroom C. kitchen D. living room 15. Ban Gioc is a natural ________ in Cao Bang province. A. desert B. mountain C. waterfall D. island 16. My classmates and I _________ to music at the moment. A. listen B. is listening C. are listening D. am listening 17. – ______________. – First turn right, then turn left. It’s on your right. A. I don’t know any bakery near here. B. Do you know there’s a bakery near here? C. Can you tell me the way to the nearest bakery? D. There is a bakery near here. 18. Ho Chi Minh City is ____________ Da Nang City. A. moderner than B. more modern than C. more modern D. modern than 19. This is a difficult exercise, so only ________ students can do it. A. much B. a little C. many D. a few 20. I drink ____ cup of coffee every morning. A. some B. any C. an D. a III. READING (2.0 pts) Part 1. Read the passage about a natural wonder of Viet Nam, then fill each blank with a suitable word from the box. is water easy forests They on hotels beautiful Phu Quoc (0) is a very beautiful island in Viet Nam. It is in Kien Giang. It has (21) ______________ beaches and green forests . It also has resorts, (22) ____________ , and bars. The people here are friendly. Phu Quoc has an international airport and travelling there is (23) __________ . Tourists can visit fishing villages, national parks, pagodas and temples. (24) ____________ also like to eat the seafood here. It is delicious. Sailing and fishing are popular (25) _____________ sports. You can buy interesting things at the markets (26) _____________ the island. Part 2. Read the text and circle the best answer (A, B or C) for each question. At Hanoi International School, students learn many subjects. For example, they learn Math in both Vietnamese and English; and they also study Science in English. Because of this, students spend their mornings and afternoons studying at school. Here, they only need to wear uniform on Tuesdays and Thursdays. Besides studying, students also play sports and join many clubs. For
  11. sports, there are swimming, basketball, football, badminton. Once a week, students go to their favourite club to have some fun time. 27. What is the main idea of the passage? A. About the house. B. About the school. C. About the family. 28. When do students wear uniform? A. On Tuesdays. B. On Thursdays. C. A & B. 29. What sports do students DO NOT play at At Hanoi International School? A. Basketball. B. Baseball. C. Football. 30. The word “they” in line 3 refers to.............. A. The subjects. B. The sports. C. The students. IV. WRITING (2.0 pts) Part 1. Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English. 31. They play football at present. A B C D 32. The market is behind Na house. A B C D Part 2. Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged. 33. My sister is talkative, but my brother is even more talkative. → My brother is ………………………………………………………….. 34. Da Nang City is larger than Tam Ky City. → Tam Ky City ……………………………………………………………… 35. It is wrong of us to throw rubbish. → We mustn’t ………………………………………………………………. 36. How about visiting our grandparents this weekend? → Let’s …………………………………………………………………….. Part 3. Write complete sentences from the words given. 37. Nam/ careful/ than/ friend. ………………………………………………………………………………… 38. How/ apples/ you/ eat/ every day? …………………………………………………………………………………
  12. ĐỀ DÀNH CHO HỌC SINH KHUYẾT TẬT I. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (5.0 pts) Part 1. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 1. A. books B. clocks C. shoulders D. lights 2. A. agree B. coffee C. see D. free Part 2. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence by circling the letter A, B, C or D. 3. Find one odd word A, B, C or D. A. museum B. zoo C. cinema D. school 4. My _________ has a bed and a table. A. bedroom B. bathroom C. kitchen D. living room 5. Ban Gioc is a natural ________ in Cao Bang province. A. desert B. mountain C. island D. waterfall 6. My sister and I _________ to music at the moment. A. listen B. are listening C. is listening D. am listening 7. – ______________. – First turn right, then turn left. It’s on your right. A. I don’t know any bakery near here. B. Can you tell me the way to the nearest bakery? C. Do you know there’s a bakery near here? D. There is a bakery near here. 8. Ho Chi Minh City is ____________ Da Nang City. A. more modern than B. moderner C. more modern D. modern than 9. This is a difficult exercise, so only ________ students can do it. A. much B. a little C. many D. a few 10. I drink ____ cup of coffee every morning. A. some B. any C. a D. an II. READING (2.0 pts) Read the text and circle the best answer (A, B or C) for each question. At Hanoi International School, students learn many subjects. For example, they learn Math in both Vietnamese and English; and they also study Science in English. Because of this, students spend their mornings and afternoons studying at school. Here, they only need to wear uniform on Tuesdays and Thursdays. Besides studying, students also play sports and join many clubs. For sports, there are swimming, basketball, football, badminton. Once a week, students go to their favourite club to have some fun time. 11. What is the main idea of the passage? A. About the school. B. About the house.
  13. C. About the family. 12. When do students wear uniform? A. On Tuesdays. B. On Thursdays. C. A & B. 13. What sports do students DO NOT play at At Hanoi International School? A. Baseball. B. Basketball. C. Football. 14. The word “they” in line 1 refers to.............. A. The subjects. B. The students. C. The sports. III. WRITING (3.0 pts) Part 1. Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English (1.0 pt). 15. We play basketball at the moment. A B C D 16. The park is in front of Hoa house. A B C D Part 2. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences. (2.0 pt) 17. Hung / his/ intelligent/ than/ more/ friend/ is. ………………………………………………………………………………… 18. much/ do/ How/ water/ you/ drink/ every day? ………………………………………………………………………………… HƯỚNG DẪN KIỂM TRA KĨ NĂNG NÓI TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 HỌC KÌ I- NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 Bài kiểm tra kĩ năng nói tiếng Anh có tổng điểm là 2.0. Tổng thời gian thực hiện tối đa là 5 phút/ học sinh. Câu có 2 ý hoặc 2 chủ ngữ trở lên thì giám khảo chỉ chọn hỏi 01 ý hoặc 01 chủ ngữ. Chia ra làm 3 phần như sau: Part 1: Introduction: 0,4 điểm - Từng học sinh tự giới thiệu các thông tin về sở thích, thầy cô, mái trường, môn học ưa thích ....... - Mỗi học sinh giới thiệu được ít nhất 2 câu (0,2 đ/ câu, tối đa 0.4) Part 2: Topic speaking 1,0 điểm - Giám khảo chuẩn bị thǎm với 05 chủ đề tuơng ứng từ Unit 1 đến Unit 5 thuộc chương trình tiếng Anh lớp 6, Nhà xuất bản Giáo dục Việt Nam gồm: my new school, my house, my friends, my neighborhood, natural wonders of Viet Nam. - Học sinh bắt thǎm 01 trong 05 chủ đề nêu trên. - Giám khảo sử dụng bộ tranh đã được chuẩn bị từ 05 chủ đề trên, đặt câu hỏi theo chủ đề học sinh bắt thăm để kiểm tra từ vựng quanh chủ đề đó, 5 câu/ học sinh (0,2đ/câu).
  14. Lưu ý: Câu ở dạng giải thích nghĩa để học sinh đưa ra từ vựng thì giám khảo không dùng tranh; trường hợp gợi ý tranh thì trừ l/2 số điểm. Bộ câu hỏi như sau: * Chủ đề 1: My school 1. What school thing is it? 2. Which subject does he/she like? 3. Students have to wear it when they go to school. 4. What does he often do after school? 5. What do the students usually do to relax? * Chủ đề 2: My house 1. What type of house is this? 2. Where do they live? 3. What room is this? 4. Where is the cat/dog? 5. This thing helps you keep food fresh/wash the dishes. What is it? (Câu này sử dụng 01 trong 2 ý: keep food fresh hoặc wash the dishes). * Chủ đề 3: My friends 1. What is she/he like? 2. What are they doing?/ What is he/ she doing? 3. When is his birthday? 4. What does Lan/ Chi look like? 5. She always does a lot of homework after school. What's she like? * Chủ đề 4: My neighborhood 1. What is the name of this place? 2. Where can people wait for a bus? 3. Is it Chua Cau in Hoi An Ancient Town? 4. What is there in the neighborhood? 5. It is a place where we can buy stamps or send letters. * Chủ đề 5: Natural wonders of Viet Nam 1. What is it? 2. What natural wonder in VN is this? 3. Where are the camels? 4. It's so sunny today. What does she need? 5. It's a bag that you carry on your back, and often used for climbing or walking. Part 3: Interview: 0,6 điểm (examiner asks, student answers) Từ chủ đề học sinh đã bắt thǎm ở phần 2, giám khảo đặt câu hỏi và học sinh trả lời, 03 câu/ học sinh (0,2đ/câu). Câu hỏi tương ứng với các chủ đề như sau: * Chủ đề 1: My school 1. What time do you go to school? 2. How do you go to school? 3. What is your favourite subject at school?
  15. 4. How many students are there in your class? 5. What do you like about your school? * Chủ đề 2: My house 1. Where is your house? 2. Is your house big or small? 3. How many rooms are there in your house? What are they? 4. Which room do you like best in your house? 5. What are there in your favourite room/ your living-room....? *Chủ đề 3: My friends 1. What is your best friend's name? 2. What does your best friend (he/she) look like? 3. When is his/her birthday? 4. What do you and your best friend often do in your free time? 5. Do you want to go to a summer camp/... with your friends? * Chủ đề 4: My neighborhood 1. Where do you live? 2. How is your neighborhood? 3. Is there a market in your neighbourhood? 4. What are the people in your neighbourhood like? 5. What do you like about your neighbourhood? * Chủ đề 5: Natural wonders of Viet Nam 1. Which wonder of Vietnam do you like best? 2. Is Ha Long Bay/...a natural wonder? 3. Where is it? 4. How can you get there? 5. What can you do there? HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÃ ĐỀ A I. LISTENING (2.0 pts) Part 1. (1 điểm). Điền đúng mỗi từ đạt 0,2 điểm 1. 6 A 2. hair 3. active 4. many 5. homework Part 2. (1 điểm). Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 6. T 7.T 8.F 9.T 10. F II. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2.0 pts) Part 1. (0,4 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 11. C. shoulders 12. B. coffee Part 2. (1,6 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 16. B. are 13. D. school 14. A. bedroom 15. D. waterfall listening 17. B. Can you tell me the way 18. A. more modern than 19. D. a few 20. C. a to the nearest bakery?
  16. III. READING (2.0 pts) Part 1. (1,2 điểm).Chọn đúng mỗi từ để điền vào chỗ trống đạt 0,2 điểm 21. beautiful 22. hotels 23. easy 24. They 25. water 26. on Part 2. (0,8 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 27. A. about the school. 28. C. A & B 29. A. baseball 30. B. the students IV. WRITING (2.0 pts) Part 1. (0,4điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 31. B (play) 32. D. (Hoa) Part 2. (0,8 điểm). Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 33. → My grandma is more careful than my mum. 34. → Tam Ky City is smaller than Da Nang City. 35. We mustn’t throw rubbish. 36. Let’s have a picnic this weekend. Part 3. (0,8 điểm). Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0,4 điểm 37. He is more intelligent than his friend. 38. How much water do you drink every day? * Tùy theo mức độ đạt được của bài làm, giáo viên quyết định điểm cho phù hợp ở phần IV part 2, 3. MÃ ĐỀ B I. LISTENING (2.0 pts) Part 1. (1 điểm). Điền đúng mỗi từ đạt 0,2 điểm 1. 6 A 2. hair 3. active 4. many 5. homework Part 2. (1 điểm). Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 6. T 7.F 8.F 9.T 10. T II. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2.0 pts) Part 1. (0,4 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 11. C. cupboads 12. D. coffee Part 2. (1,6 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 13. D. hospital 14. B. bedroom 15. C. waterfall 16. C. are listening 17. C. Can you tell me the 18. B. more modern than 19. D. a few 20. D. a way to the nearest bakery? III. READING (2.0 pts) Part 1. (1,2 điểm).Chọn đúng mỗi từ để điền vào chỗ trống đạt 0,2 điểm 21. beautiful 22. hotels 23. easy 24. They 25. water 26. on Part 2. (0,8 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 27. B. about the school. 28. C. A & B 29. B. baseball 30. C. the students IV. WRITING (2.0 pts)
  17. Part 1. (0,4 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 31. B (play) 32. D. (Na) Part 2. (0,8 điểm). Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 33. → My brother is more talkative than my sister. 34. → Tam Ky City is smaller than Da Nang City. 35. We mustn’t throw rubbish. 36. Let’s visit our grandparents this weekend. Part 3. (0,8 điểm). Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0,4 điểm 37. Nam is more careful than his friend. 38. How many apples do you eat every day? * Tùy theo mức độ đạt được của bài làm, giáo viên quyết định điểm cho phù hợp ở phần IV part 2, 3. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ DÀNH CHO HỌC SINH KHUYẾT TẬT I. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2.0 pts) Part 1. (1.0 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,5 điểm 1. C. shoulders 2. B. coffee Part 2. (4.0 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,5 điểm 6. B. are 3. D. school 4. A. bedroom 5. D. waterfall listening 7. B. Can you tell me the way 8. A. more modern than 9. D. a few 10. C. a to the nearest bakery? II. READING (2.0 pts) (2.0 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,5 điểm 11. A. about the school. 12. C. A & B 14. A. baseball 14. B. the students III. WRITING (2.0 pts) Part 1. (1.0 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,5 điểm 15. B (play) 16. D. (Hoa) Part 2. (2.0 điểm). Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 1.0 điểm 17. Hung is more intelligent than his friend. 18. How much water do you drink every day? * Tùy theo mức độ đạt được của bài làm, giáo viên quyết định điểm cho phù hợp ở phần III part 2.
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